Quiz 2 Flashcards

(40 cards)

1
Q

What is the definition of stereotypy?

a.An innate behaviour that varies each time it is performed.

b.Any learned behaviour displayed by captive wild animals.

c.A conditioned behaviour that is always triggered by an external stimulus.

d.The repetition of a motor pattern that serves no apparent goal or function.

A

The repetition of a motor pattern that serves no apparent goal or function

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2
Q

Which of the following is NOT a factor that may contribute to stress and abnormal repetitive behaviours in animals?

a.Enrichment.

b.Poor maternal care.

c.Unpredictable schedule.

d.Positive punishment.

A

a.Enrichment.

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3
Q

What is a potential consequence of cribbing in horses?

a.
Increased social interaction

b.
Improved grazing ability

c.
Excess wear on incisors and potential fitness issues

d.
Enhanced training responsiveness

A

c.
Excess wear on incisors and potential fitness issues

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4
Q

Which of the following is a correct description of desensitisation?

a.
An animal’s behavioural response to a stimulus is present at a low intensity but increases over time.

b.
The stimulus is presented at a low intensity and does not trigger an emotional or behavioural response initially.

c.
The intensity of the stimulus decreases over time during desensitisation.

d.
Desensitisation is one of many types of associative learning.

A

The stimulus is presented at a low intensity and does not trigger an emotional or behavioural response initially.

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5
Q

Which neurotransmitter is often implicated in the treatment of repetitive disorders in dogs?

A

Dopamine

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6
Q

A dog-owning client does some online research and then approaches you asking why positive punishment is such a bad idea for dog training. Outline your response

A

Emotional learning of associations can occur when an animal is exposed to a stimulus that causes pain, discomfort or fear.

Animals develop increased stress responses when exposed to training using positive punishment.
The freeze response and learned helplessness can be confused with a calm and compliant animal who is happy to obey.

Training techniques that aim to stop some behaviours can lead to other undesirable behaviours emerging, e.g. aggression.

Positive punishment can also result in inhibition of behaviours that serve as communication signals.

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7
Q

At what age do a puppy’s eyes open?

a.
In utero.

b.
At birth.

c.
3–5 days after birth.

d.
10–14 days after birth

A

10–14 days after birth

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8
Q

What is the term for the retention of juvenile characteristics in adult dogs?

a.
Neotony.

b.
Altricial.

c.
Precocial.

d.
Paedomorphosis.

A

Neotony

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9
Q

In regard to play behaviour, which statement is true about dogs?

a.
The ‘play bow’ position in dogs can be easily confused for a fearful response.

b.
Severely food-deprived dogs may not play.

c.
Normal play does not involve repeated mounting attempts.

d.
Puppies should be discouraged from playing with adult dogs before the age of 36 weeks.

A

b.Severely food-deprived dogs may not play.

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10
Q

Which of the following training methods would qualify as negative reinforcement?

a.
Removing a dog’s favourite companion from their yard.

b.
Striking a dog with a stick when it did not comply with a command.

c.
Feeding a dog it’s favourite treat – a piece of dried liver.

d.
Loosening a choke chain restraining a dog.

A

Loosening a choke chain restraining a dog

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11
Q

Which of the following statements regarding gonadectomy of dogs is accurate?

a.
Castration eliminates aggressive behaviour.

b.
Spaying increases metabolic rate.

c.
Castration reduces urine marking behaviour.

d.
Spaying is effective in reducing fearful behaviours

A

Castration reduces urine marking behaviour.

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12
Q

Name the five behavioural “type forms” (taxonomic standards for comparison) representing domestic dogs.

A

Village dogs.
Livestock-guarding dogs.
Sled dogs.
Herding dogs, gun dogs, and hounds.
Household dogs.

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13
Q

How long does the neonatal age last in cats?

a.
Birth–2 days of age.

b.
Birth–7 days of age.

c.
Birth–14 days of age.

d.
Birth–21 days of age

A

c.Birth–14 days of age.

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14
Q

What is an accurate definition of a feral cat?

a.
Any aggressive member of the species Felis catus.

b.
Any free-living felid.

c.
A cat that is reliant on humans but not owned by one family.

d.
A free-living cat whose ancestors were domesticated.

A

A free-living cat whose ancestors were domesticated.

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15
Q

Which behaviour indicates the highest level of arousal on the cat stress ladder?

a.
Growling with ears flat.

b.
Tail thumping.

c.
Stiff body with piloerection.

d.
Ears folded or out to the side.

A

a.Growling with ears flat.

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16
Q

What is indicated by tail thumping in cats?

a.
Playfulness.

b.
Relaxation.

c.
Fear.

d.
Agitation.

A

d.Agitation.

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17
Q

What is the definition of periuria?

a.The production and passage of abnormally large amounts of urine.

b.deposition of faeces in undesired locations irrespective of the cause.

c.Deposition of faeces outside the litter box for the purpose of communication.

d.Deposition of urine in undesired locations irrespective of the cause.

A

Deposition of urine in undesired locations irrespective of the cause.

18
Q

What are the 5 pillars of a healthy feline environment

A

1.A safe place.

2.Multiple and separated key environmental resources.

3.Opportunity for play and predatory behaviour.

4.Positive, consistent and predictable human-cat social interaction.

5.An environment that respects the cat’s sense of smell and other senses.

19
Q

The ideal socialisation period in dogs is:

a.
1–3 weeks.

b.
3–12 weeks.

c.
12–24 weeks.

d.
24–36 weeks.

A

3–12 weeks.

20
Q

What is an ideal age at which to separate puppies from their dam (mother) and littermates?

a.
4–6 weeks.

b.
6–8 weeks.

c.
8–10 weeks.

d.
10–12 weeks

A

c.8–10 weeks.

21
Q

When do the two fear periods occur during a puppy’s development?

A

~8 weeks and 6 months

22
Q

Which of the following dog breeds is over-represented in clinical cases of the abnormal repetitive behaviour known as ‘spinning’?

23
Q

What is a common treatment approach for dogs with abnormal repetitive behaviours?

A

Increasing enrichment

24
Q

Which behaviour modifying drug is commonly used in the treatment of severe abnormal repetitive behaviour in dogs?

25
If a dog is resource guarding his food bowl, which of the following would be reasonable advice to give the client?
Do not touch the dog whilst it is eating.
26
Using the Dunbar bite scale, which level/s of dog bite have a reasonable prognosis? a. Only level 1. b. Level 1, 2 and 3 only. c. All below Level 5. d. All levels.
b. Level 1, 2 and 3 only.
27
What is the most important predisposing factor regarding aggression in dogs? a. Owner personality type. b. Noise levels in the dog’s immediate surroundings. c. Early socialisation. d. Breed.
c. Early socialisation.
28
An example of what approach would involve giving a dog with a phobia of storms a favourite food treat every time thunder strikes? Question 11Answer a. Desensitisation. b. Sensitisation. c. Counter-conditioning. d. Flooding.
Counter-conditioning.
29
What drug is marketed as Clomicalm® for treating separation anxiety in dogs? Question 12Answer a. Sertraline. b. Trazodone. c. Clomipramine. d. Fluoxetine.
Clomipramine.
30
What is a common comorbidity of separation-related disorders in dogs? a. Compulsive repetitive behaviours. b. Inter-dog aggression. c. Noise phobias. d. Human aggression.
c. Noise phobias.
31
Which of the following drugs would be suitable for use as an intermittent as-needed treatment for canine separation anxiety, to be used during longer periods when a dog is left alone, in addition to ongoing baseline medication? a. Clonidine. b. Selegiline. c. Clomipramine. d. Fluoxetine.
Clonidine.
32
What is one typical sign that a caregiver might give if their dog is a sufferer of separation anxiety? a. Aggression towards other dogs. b. Repetitive behaviours. c. Excited, high-pitched barking. d. Self-injurious behaviour
Self-injurious behaviour
33
At what age are cats sexually mature? a. 4 months. b. 9 months. c. 12 months. d. 18 months.
a. 4 months.
34
What is indicated by tail thumping in cats? a. Playfulness. b. Relaxation. c. Fear. d. Agitation.
d. Agitation.
35
Which of the following correctly matches a cat breed with a congenital condition that creates difficulties for owners? a. Devon Rex – large size. b. Siamese – separation anxiety. c. Maine Coon – brachycephalic. d. Russian Blue – no hair.
b. Siamese – separation anxiety.
36
How frequently do cats normally urinate? a. 1–2 times a week. b. 3–4 times a week. c. 1–2 times a day. d. 2–5 times a day.
d. 2–5 times a day.
37
What is the definition of periuria?
Deposition of urine in undesired locations irrespective of the cause
38
What percentage of cats will continue to urine mark after gonadectomy?
10% of males and 5% of females.
39
Which of the following behaviours in a cat is most indicative of the cat being about to aggressively bite or scratch?
Hissing.
40
You begin treating a canine patient with a severe case of separation anxiety with a high dose of oral fluoxetine. Two weeks after beginning the treatment, the exasperated owner calls you and reports that they have made no other changes at home, and have seen absolutely no improvement in the dog’s behaviour. Outline your intitial response to them explaining why this might be the case.
Management of separation-related disorders in dogs requires patience and a long-term approach Medication must be combined with changes in management and modification of the dog's environment in order to achieve improvement in behavioural cases Fluoxetine is a Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor (SSRI) The average time between beginning treatment and the onset of clinical effect in dogs is 6-8 weeks with SSRIs