Quiz 24 - Special Operations Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Quiz 24 - Special Operations Deck (50):
1

When parking the ambulance off the side of the highway in dry weather:

A. you should place safety cones at all four points of the vehicle.

B. the heat from underneath the vehicle could start a grass fire.

C. the entire ambulance should be positioned off of the gravel.

D. it is generally considered safe to turn off your warning lights.

B. the heat from underneath the vehicle could start a grass fire.

2

Which of the following biologic agents is highly transmittable from person to person?

A. Smallpox

B. Botulinum

C. Bubonic plague

D. Yellow fever virus

A. Smallpox

3

Which of the following statements regarding cold water submersion is NOT correct?

A. Bradycardia occurs after falling in cold water and lowers the basal metabolic rate.

B. The cold protective response secondary to hypothermia can protect vital organs.

C. Patients submerged in cold water are often dehydrated secondary to cold diuresis.

D. Water that is colder than 70°F will cause a marked increase in oxygen demand.

D. Water that is colder than 70°F will cause a marked increase in oxygen demand.

4

Department of Transportation (DOT) Class 8 chemicals are:

A. radioactive.

B. flammable.

C. explosive.

D. corrosive.

D. corrosive.

5

After ensuring your own safety, which of the following is your next priority at the scene of a hazardous materials incident?

A. Immediately move patients to a safe place.

B. Begin decontaminating all involved patients.

C. Identify the hazardous material involved.

D. Evacuate residents within a 3-mile radius.

C. Identify the hazardous material involved.

6

The key to any disaster response is:

A. execution.

B. triage.

C. recovery.

D. planning.

D. planning.

7

All of the following are examples of domestic terrorism, EXCEPT the:

A. Oklahoma City bombing.

B. World Trade Center attack.

C. Centennial Park bombing.

D. Atlanta abortion clinic attacks.

B. World Trade Center attack.

8

In contrast to the lethal concentration of a chemical, the lethal dose is:

A. a single dose that causes death when exposure occurs by any route other than inhalation.

B. the dose expected to cause death when administered by any route other than absorption.

C. a single dose that causes death when exposure occurs exclusively via the inhalation route.

D. the dose expected to cause death when administered over a specified period of time.

A. a single dose that causes death when exposure occurs by any route other than inhalation.

9

Which of the following statements regarding body armor is correct?

A. Body armor effectively protects your neck, which is a common target for someone who tries to kill you.

B. Soft body armor offers six levels of protection and will stop a bullet fired from any weapon.

C. Federal regulations mandate that EMS providers working in urban areas are provided body armor.

D. Sound survival skills to avoid dangerous situations provide more protection than body armor.

D. Sound survival skills to avoid dangerous situations provide more protection than body armor.

10

According to the JumpSTART triage system, if an infant or child is not breathing, you should:

A. categorize the patient as expectant.

B. deliver five rescue breaths.

C. manually open the patient's airway.

D. immediately assess for a pulse.

D. immediately assess for a pulse.

11

A blue placard specifically indicates that a chemical is a _________ hazard.

A. reactivity

B. fire

C. health

D. explosive

C. health

12

You are caring for a patient with non-life-threatening injuries in the treatment section of a multiple-casualty incident when you are approached by several TV reporters who are seeking details regarding the incident. You should:

A. ignore the reporters' questions and continue patient care.

B. direct the reporters to the public information officer.

C. firmly tell the reporters to leave the scene immediately.

D. provide a brief overview of the current situation.

B. direct the reporters to the public information officer.

13

You are assessing an injured hiker and determine that his pelvis is unstable and painful to palpation. The patient is located at the top of a large mountain, and the local rescue helicopter is on another mission and is unable to respond. Assuming you have the appropriate equipment, the MOST effective way of moving this patient is to:

A. place the patient in a Stokes basket, pad around his pelvic area with blankets, and use at least six people to carefully move him down the mountain.

B. apply full spinal motion restriction precautions, establish an IV and administer 15 mg of morphine, and carefully move him in 5-minute increments.

C. secure the patient in a full-body vacuum mattress, place the mattress in a Stokes basket, and utilize at least four people to move him down the mountain.

D. fully immobilize him on a scoop stretcher, apply a commercial pelvic binder to stabilize his pelvis, and then coordinate each move down the mountain.

C. secure the patient in a full-body vacuum mattress, place the mattress in a Stokes basket, and utilize at least four people to move him down the mountain.

14

Anthrax is a bacterium that:

A. is generally not responsive to antibiotic therapy, even if the therapy is begun immediately.

B. results in death more than 90% of the time, regardless of how the bacterium enters a person's body.

C. is highly communicable and would most likely be disseminated by a terrorist via a liquid medium.

D. lies dormant in a spore and is released when exposed to the optimal temperature and moisture.

D. lies dormant in a spore and is released when exposed to the optimal temperature and moisture.

15

According to the dose effect principle:

A. the greater the length of time or the greater the concentration of the material, the greater the effect will be on the body.

B. the effects of a hazardous material will be more severe if it is ingested rather than inhaled or absorbed through the skin.

C. an extremely toxic hazardous material will have the same effect on the body, regardless of the length of the exposure.

D. biotransformation and elimination of a chemical is not possible if the exposure involved a large or concentrated dose.

A. the greater the length of time or the greater the concentration of the material, the greater the effect will be on the body.

16

Which of the following duties is NOT a responsibility of the incident commander?

A. Establishing strategic objectives and priorities

B. Developing a plan to manage the incident

C. Authorizing medical treatment interventions

D. Assessing the entire incident scene

C. Authorizing medical treatment interventions

17

According to the START triage system, a nonbreathing patient should be triaged as immediate if:

A. a manual airway maneuver restores breathing.

B. he or she is in need of immediate intubation.

C. the airway is completely blocked by swelling.

D. he or she does not respond to two rescue breaths.

A. a manual airway maneuver restores breathing.

18

When approaching a parked vehicle that is occupied by an apparently sick person, you should:

A. immediately retreat to your ambulance if you see an object such as a baseball bat inside the vehicle.

B. position yourself in front of the vehicle's B column if there are any people in the rear seat of the vehicle.

C. determine how many people are in the vehicle, paying particular attention to the location of their hands.

D. stop at the left rear of the vehicle first and firmly tug on the hood to determine if it is closed.

C. determine how many people are in the vehicle, paying particular attention to the location of their hands.

19

Air ambulances are advantageous for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT:

A. faster transport to definitive care.

B. the ability to access remote areas.

C. the availability of specialized equipment.

D. more experience of the flight paramedics.

D. more experience of the flight paramedics.

20

Proper documentation of an incident in which a patient was injured during a crime should include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. your estimate of when the injury occurred.

B. the disposition of any evidence at the scene.

C. any incriminating statements made by others.

D. the position of the patient upon your arrival

A. your estimate of when the injury occurred.

21

When personnel from other jurisdictions arrive at the scene of a disaster, they should:

A. report to the staging area.

B. notify the incident commander.

C. turn their portable radios off.

D. begin secondary triage.

A. report to the staging area.

22

It is MOST important to park your ambulance upwind and uphill from a hazardous materials incident scene because:

A. the vapor density of many chemicals is less than that of the air, causing the vapor to rise and dissipate as it travels with the wind.

B. the risk of being contaminated is minimal if the chemical travels, and you will have greater visibility of the entire incident scene.

C. if the chemical ignites and explodes, the fallout from the blast will most likely sink into valleys and ditches instead of rising.

D. hazardous chemicals that turn to gas rarely have a vapor density that is heavier than the air, regardless of the amount of chemical.

A. the vapor density of many chemicals is less than that of the air, causing the vapor to rise and dissipate as it travels with the wind.

23

Cyanide is a chemical asphyxiant, which means that it:

A. binds to hemoglobin and prevents oxygen transport to the cells.

B. interferes with the utilization of oxygen at the cellular level.

C. destroys red blood cells and prevents red blood cell production.

D. impairs pulmonary respiration by causing pulmonary edema.

B. interferes with the utilization of oxygen at the cellular level.

24

If you are trained in hazardous materials at the awareness level, you should be able to:

A. care for patients who may present a risk of secondary contamination.

B. coordinate activities at the scene of a hazardous materials incident.

C. recognize potential hazards and the need for additional resources.

D. perform patient care activities in the command and support center.

C. recognize potential hazards and the need for additional resources.

25

Which of the following statements regarding an EMS provider's role during a trench rescue is correct?

A. Due to a lack of proper training, EMS providers should remain at least 50 yards away from the trench at all times.

B. It is crucial for the EMS provider to be in the trench to provide emergency care during the rescue attempt.

C. Trench rescue is a part of a paramedic's training, so he or she is properly trained to enter a trench safely.

D. EMS providers should attempt to make contact with the patient, but should not enter the trench and attempt rescue.

D. EMS providers should attempt to make contact with the patient, but should not enter the trench and attempt rescue.

26

Level A personal protective equipment:

A. is required when a technician needs protection from splashes and inhaled toxins but does not need to be fully encapsulated.

B. provides the same degree of protection as a fire fighter's turnout gear, and is typically worn in the cold zone.

C. fully encapsulates the hazardous materials technician, including his or her self-contained breathing apparatus.

D. is designed to protect the rescuer against a known agent and is worn with an air-purifying respirator.

C. fully encapsulates the hazardous materials technician, including his or her self-contained breathing apparatus.

27

When sizing up the scene of a multiple-casualty incident, the LEAST of your initial concerns should be:

A. requesting additional help.

B. why the incident occurred.

C. how you will react initially.

D. the nature of the incident.

B. why the incident occurred.

28

Level ___ personal protective equipment would MOST likely be worn during transport of patients with the potential of secondary contamination.

A. B

B. A

C. D

D. C

D. C

29

A man stormed into a daycare center and opened fire with a semiautomatic rifle. The scene has been secured by law enforcement, and you are in the process of triaging the injured children. The first child you assess, a 4-year-old boy, is unresponsive and apneic but has a pulse. After manually opening his airway, he remains apneic. You should:

A. provide five rescue breaths and reassess his respiratory status.

B. consider him nonsalvageable and place a black tag on him.

C. assist his ventilations while closely monitoring his pulse rate.

D. categorize him as an immediate patient and continue triaging.

A. provide five rescue breaths and reassess his respiratory status.

30

A patient would MOST likely become trapped between the driver's seat and steering wheel following a:

A. rollover crash.

B. T-bone collision.

C. frontal crash.

D. lateral collision

C. frontal crash.

31

Decontaminating a patient with copious amounts of water:

A. should involve the use of a brush to maximize decontamination.

B. decreases the dose effect of the hazardous material on the patient.

C. should not include the eyes, as this often causes further injury.

D. is generally discouraged, as this may cause runoff of the material.

B. decreases the dose effect of the hazardous material on the patient.

32

Which of the following statements regarding utility hazards at the scene of a rescue operation is correct?

A. Live power lines usually arc or produce sparks.

B. Natural gas displaces carbon dioxide in the air.

C. You should park at least 10 feet away from downed power lines.

D. Utility hazards can be above or below the ground.

D. Utility hazards can be above or below the ground.

33

If you must break a window to gain access to a patient trapped in his or her vehicle, you should:

A. ensure that the patient and all rescuers are protected properly.

B. try to lower the window as far as possible before breaking it.

C. break the windshield and approach the patient from the front.

D. break the safety glass of a side window with a center punch.

A. ensure that the patient and all rescuers are protected properly.

34

The seizures associated with nerve agent exposure:

A. are often more severe in patients with a seizure history.

B. should be treated with large quantities of a benzodiazepine.

C. will continue until a MARK 1 antidote is administered.

D. cannot be reversed with any pharmacologic agent.

C. will continue until a MARK 1 antidote is administered.

35

It is MOST important to consider a clandestine drug lab to be a(n):

A. crime scene.

B. hazardous materials scene.

C. unsafe environment for children.

D. illegal operation.

B. hazardous materials scene.

36

During an incident involving an explosion, you determine that two critically injured patients should be transported to a trauma center by air. After stabilizing the patients' conditions to the best of your ability, you should:

A. request air transport immediately and determine where you will land the helicopter.

B. contact the incident commander and request permission to utilize air transport.

C. notify the transportation supervisor and request that he or she establish a landing zone.

D. call the receiving trauma center and update them on the patients' conditions.

C. notify the transportation supervisor and request that he or she establish a landing zone.

37

Safe practices when parking your emergency vehicle on a roadway at night include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. leaving the headlights on.

B. using your emergency flashers.

C. turning off the strobe lights.

D. wearing a reflective vest.

A. leaving the headlights on.

38

Upon entering the residence of a man with a supposed heart attack, you find that you have been taken hostage by a young man who has a deer rifle. He orders you to sit down in the corner of the room, where other people have been taken hostage as well. You should:

A. move slowly to your ordered location, wait for the captor to turn his back, and swiftly attempt to subdue and disarm him.

B. attempt to negotiate with the captor, and tell him that he can keep you hostage if he releases the other people.

C. follow the orders of your captor, but try to pass by a window in an attempt to attract someone's attention.

D. do as your captor orders, try to remain calm, and avoid doing anything to attract attention to yourself.

D. do as your captor orders, try to remain calm, and avoid doing anything to attract attention to yourself.

39

Which of the following injuries or conditions should be assigned the HIGHEST triage priority?

A. Full-thickness burns

B. Cardiopulmonary arrest

C. Multiple long bone fractures

D. Respiratory distress

D. Respiratory distress

40

All of the following are indicators of the potential for violence, EXCEPT:

A. a large body build.

B. clenching of the fists.

C. uncontrollable pacing.

D. the use of profanity.

A. a large body build.

41

According to the JumpSTART triage system for pediatric patients, infants or children not developed enough to walk or follow commands should be:

A. taken to the treatment sector as soon as possible for immediate secondary triage.

B. assigned the same triage category as the walking wounded and evaluated later.

C. quickly moved to a designated area of the triage section and monitored closely.

D. labeled with a red tag and transported immediately to a pediatric trauma center.

A. taken to the treatment sector as soon as possible for immediate secondary triage.

42

While interviewing a severely depressed man, the patient suddenly lunges at you with his hands. It is not known if the patient has any weapons. Your MOST appropriate action should be to:

A. throw your patient care form directly at the patient's nose and egress rapidly.

B. quickly move back until you are out of the man's reach, and then subdue him.

C. block his hands with your arm and strike him in the face with your closed fist.

D. strike the patient in the face with your metal clipboard and leave the scene.

A. throw your patient care form directly at the patient's nose and egress rapidly.

43

Biologic agents are:

A. least preferred by terrorists because they are difficult to disseminate over a large population.

B. synthetically manufactured and weaponized by mixing the synthetic component with an organism.

C. naturally occurring organisms that are cultivated in a laboratory.

D. the ideal weapons of mass destruction if the terrorist's objective is to affect a small geographic area.

C. naturally occurring organisms that are cultivated in a laboratory.

44

When transporting a small child on the stretcher, you should:

A. use a pediatric transport securing device whenever possible.

B. place the child on a parent's lap and secure them both with straps.

C. secure the child as usual, using the adult straps on the stretcher.

D. place the child on a backboard, even in the absence of trauma.

A. use a pediatric transport securing device whenever possible.

45

A multiple-casualty incident is MOST accurately defined as an event in which:

A. there are at least 25 patients, more than half of whom are critically injured.

B. the number of patients exceeds the resources available to the initial responders.

C. mutual aid from other agencies is required to care for numerous patients.

D. there are more patients who require advanced life support than patients who do not.

B. the number of patients exceeds the resources available to the initial responders.

46

The unified command system:

A. mandates that a single person will maintain command authority, even if multiple jurisdictions respond.

B. can deplete the resources of multiple jurisdictions and agencies and should only be used during large disasters.

C. allows representatives from multiple jurisdictions and agencies to share command authority and responsibility.

D. is a type of incident response in which command is established and maintained by the first agency on the scene.

C. allows representatives from multiple jurisdictions and agencies to share command authority and responsibility.

47

In contrast to sarin, soman:

A. is much less persistent and is odorless.

B. is a clear, oily agent that looks like baby oil.

C. is five times as lethal and has a fruity odor.

D. enters the body exclusively through the skin.

C. is five times as lethal and has a fruity odor.

48

Which of the following statements regarding the hot zone at a rescue scene is correct?

A. The hot zone is designated for the staging of vehicles and equipment and is also where the command post is located.

B. The hot zone immediately surrounds the dangers of the rescue site and is only accessible by entry and rescue teams.

C. The hot zone should be specifically designated for decontamination of rescue personnel and equipment.

D. The hot zone should be a large perimeter around the entire scene and should be cordoned off with yellow tape.

B. The hot zone immediately surrounds the dangers of the rescue site and is only accessible by entry and rescue teams.

49

In contrast to a type II ambulance, a type III ambulance:

A. does not allow access from the cab to the patient compartment.

B. is a specialty van that usually has a modular ambulance body.

C. has an ambulance body that can be transferred to a new chassis.

D. is a standard van with a walk-through to the patient compartment.

B. is a specialty van that usually has a modular ambulance body.

50

The goal of system status management is to:

A. ensure that every ambulance is staffed with at least one paramedic.

B. allow paramedics ample time to rest before going on another call.

C. post at least three ambulances in an area where most EMS calls occur.

D. minimize response times by deploying EMS resources strategically.

D. minimize response times by deploying EMS resources strategically.