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2024 - Élo - Qbank > Quiz 54 > Flashcards

Quiz 54 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the cause of an annular pancreas?

A

Abnormal embryological rotation of the pancreatic bud

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2
Q

What is seen radiologically in chronic pancreatitis?

A

Pancreatic calcification - small opacities in the upper abdomen

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3
Q

Chronic pancreatitis can result in what endocrine disorder?

A

Diabetes mellitus

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4
Q

Rupture of bridging veins results in what type of brain bleed?

A

Subdural hematoma

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5
Q

Rupture of Charcot-Bouchard aneurysms produce hemorrhage where?

A

Intraparenchymal hemorrhage - commonly in the basal ganglia

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6
Q

Rupture of middle meningeal artery causes what type of brain bleed?

A

Epidural hematoma

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7
Q

Where can one find aneurysms in ADPKD?

A

Circle of Willis

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8
Q

Histologic evaluation of a lymph node showing mixture of cells (lymphocytes, histiocytes, eosinophils, and plasma cells) with scattered, large cells with prominent nucleoli is found in what disease?

A

Hodgkins lymphoma

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9
Q

What disease causes lymph node architecture to be distorted by broad bands of fibrosis?

A

Nodular sclerosing subtype of Hodgkins lymphoma

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10
Q

What subtype of cells are seen in nodular sclerosing Hodgkins lymphoma?

A

Subtype of Reed-Sternberg cells called lacunar cells

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11
Q

Chronically high venous pressure in the legs can result in what?

A

Varicose veins

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12
Q

In late stages of AIDs, what antibodies are not produced? Why?

A

IgG, IgA, and IgE are not produced - these antibodies need T-cell help

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13
Q

What bacterium is gram positive, grows in clusters and is non-hemolytic?

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

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14
Q

What is the morphology of S. aureus? What type of hemolysis does it produce?

A

Gram positive cocci; catalase and coagulase +; beta-hemolytic

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15
Q

Gram positive cocci that ferments mannitol?

A

S. Aureus

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16
Q

Is S. pyogenes bacitracin sensitive or resistant? Hemolysis?

A

Sensitive; beta-hemolytic

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17
Q

What is the morphology of S. epidermidis? How is it differentiated from S. aureus?

A

Gram + cocci in clusters; catalase + but coagulase negative; also is gamma hemolytic

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18
Q

What is a distinguishing feature of S. epidermidis?

A

Novobiocin sensitive; biofilm producer

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19
Q

Gram positive cocci, catalase and coagulase negative, beta hemolytic, bacitracin resistant and CAMP+

A

S. Agalactiae

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20
Q

Gram positive cocci, catalase +, coagulase negative, novobiocin sensitive

A

S. Epidermidis

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21
Q

How does one differentiate between staph aureus, epidermidis, and saprophyticus?

A

All are catalse +, epidermidis and saprophyticus are coagulase negative and gamma-hemolytic; epidermidis is novobiocin sensitive and saprophyticus is novobiocin resistant

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22
Q

Acquired pure red cell aplasia is seen after infections with what?

A

Parvovirus B19

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23
Q

Patients with what disease(s) are prone to developing pure red cell aplasia?

A

Sickle cell anemia or hereditary spherocytosis

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24
Q

What anticonvulsant drugs can cause aplastic anemia?

A

Carbamazepine and phenytoin

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25
What antibiotic can cause aplastic anemia?
Chloramphenicol
26
Bernard-Sloulier syndrome is due to absence of what?
Platelet Glycoprotein Ib, a receptor for vWF
27
What syndrome does one see thrombocytopenia, frequent infections, and eczema?
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
28
Increasing the survival of a certain disease does what to incidence and prevalence?
Incidence is normal, but prevalence increases
29
Primary prevention does what to incidence and prevalence?
Both decrease
30
Increased death from a certain disease does what in incidence and prevalence?
Incidence in normal (stays the same), but prevalence decreases
31
Cart-wheel distribution of chromatin in the nucleus is seen in infections with what organism?
Entamoeba histolytica
32
Entamoeba histolytica causes what symptoms?
Diarrhea (can be bloody), peritonitis and liver abscess formation
33
What is seen in the stool of a patient infected with Entamoeba histolytica?
Cysts or trophozoites
34
Mumps is part of what viral family? What is its genetic makeup?
Paramyxoviridae; -ssRNA
35
How do paramyxoviruses evade the immune system? What type of immunity is thus important?
Evade by syncytia formation (spread from cell to cell this way); cell mediate immunity is important as antibodies (humoral immunity) don't "see" the virus
36
What viruses are part of paramyxoviridae?
RSV, parainfluenza (croup), mumps, measles,
37
How does one treat RSV?
Ribavirin
38
What bacterial species undergo natural transformation? (4 of them)
Haemophilus spp. Streptococcus spp., Neisseria spp., H. Pylori
39
What is natural transformation?
Uptake of naked DNA from the environment
40
Meconium ileus is often the first manifestation of what disease?
Cystic fibrosis
41
What is meconium ileus?
Thick, sticky meconium obstructs the intestine - most commonly occurs at the ileus
42
Meconium ileus can result in what complications?
Perforation with peritonitis and intraperitoneal calcification
43
Deposition of what causes senile cardiac amyloidosis?
Transthyretin
44
Autoimmune disease can result in deposition of what type of amyloid?
Amyloid associated protein
45
Long term hemodialysis results in what type of amyloid deposition?
Beta-2 microglobulin
46
Antibodies that recognize metalloprotease that cleaves vWF multimers results in what disease?
Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
47
What is the common pentad of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura?
Fever, thrombocytopenia, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, renal insuff., neurological manifestations *pentad rarely seen
48
What is ADAMTS-13?
Metalloprotease that cleaves ultralarge vWF multimers
49
Deficiency in ADAMTS-13 results in what disease?
Thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura
50
In thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura, what is seen on peripheral smear?
Schistocytes due to microangiopathic anemia
51
What cardiac abnormality is seen in infections of Borrelia burgdorferi?
AV block
52
Cheese, beer, and wine cause interaction with what drugs?
Tyramine containing foods (beer, cheese, wine) cause interactions with monoamine oxidase inhibitors
53
List three MAO inhibitors.
Phenelzine, tranylcypromine, isocarboxazid
54
What happens when a patient is on MAO inhibitors and tyramine containing foods are ingested?
Large amounts of NE are displaced from postganglionic neurons, resulting in sympathetic crisis
55
What happens to the numerical density and total luminal cross sectional area of blood vessels in high blood pressure?
Decreased numerical density and decreased cross sectional area
56
What is a common cause of neonatal meningitis?
Streptococcus agalactiae (GBS)
57
What is the morphology of S. agalactiae? Is it bacitracin sensitive or resistant?
Gram positive cocci, bacitracin sensitive
58
What cytoskeletal protein moves toward the plus end of microtubules? Which toward the minus end of microtubules?
Kinesin moves toward the plus end; dynein moves toward the minus end
59
Anterograde transport involves what cytoskeletal protein? Is it toward the minus or plus end of microtubules?
Anterograde is toward the plus end and involves kinesins
60
Are myosins directed toward the plus or minus end of microtubules?
Plus end
61
What lab values are important in diagnosing DIC?
Prolonged PT and PTT, decreased fibrinogen level and elevated fibrin split products
62
Crescent-shaped protozoa adjacent to epithelial brush border on biopsy is characteristic of what infection?
Giardia lamblia
63
After swimming in fresh water, patient complains of losing sense of smell and now has a prefrontal headache with fever and nausea, what organism are they infected with?
Naegleria fowleri
64
How is a diagnosis of Naegleria fowleri meningoencephalitis made?
Trophozoites in CSF
65
Thymic hyperplasia and thymomas are strongly associated with what disease?
Myasthenia gravis
66
What antibodies are formed in myasthenia gravis?
Antibodies targeting post-synaptic acetylcholine nicotinic receptors
67
How does one diagnose myasthenia gravis?
Tensilon (Edrophonium) test
68
What is Edrophonium?
AChE inhibitor
69
What cancer is strongly associated with Lambert-Eaton syndrome?
Small cell carcinoma of the lung
70
What antibodies are produced in Lambert-Eaton syndrome?
Antibodies directed against voltage-gated calcium channels
71
Weakness during the early part of the day that improves with greater activity is seen in what NMJ disease?
Lambert-Eaton syndrome
72
Antibodies to acetylcholine nicotinic receptors at the NMJ causes what disease?
Myasthenia gravis
73
What is the fick equation?
Cariac output = oxygen consumption divided by (arterial O2 content - venous O2 content)
74
What artery is at risk in a supracondylar fracture of the femur?
Popliteal artery
75
What artery is at risk in a posterior dislocation of the knee?
Popliteal artery
76
The popliteal is from what artery?
Superficial femoral artery
77
What arteries does the popliteal artery give rise to distal to the knee?
Anterior tibial a. And posterior tibial artery
78
What artery gives rise to the dorsalis pedis artery?
Anterior tibial artery
79
What artery gives rise to the the pulse posterior to the medial malleolus?
Posterior tibial artery
80
What does the posterior tibial artery divide into to supply the plantar region of the foot?
Medial and lateral plantar arteries
81
What artery supplies the posterior compartment of the thigh?
Profunda femoris artery
82
Coagulative necrosis of a tumor is due to what?
Ischemia - not enough vascular supply to keep up with the rapid neoplastic growth
83
Name 5 neutrophil chemoattractants
C5a, IL-8, leukotriene B4, fibrinopeptides, formyl methionyl peptides
84
What is the equation for specificity?
True negatives/(true negatives + false positives)
85
What is the equation for sensitivity?
TP/(TP+FN)
86
What affect does phenobarbital have on the CYP450 system?
Induces it
87
What organelle is the CYP450 found in?
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum of hepatocytes
88
What are the best markers for identification of B cells?
CD19, CD20, CD21
89
What cells are CD28+?
T cells
90
What cells are CD56+?
NK cells
91
Osteogenesis imperfecta results from a defect in what?
Type I collagen - hydroxylation of proline and lysines

2024 - Élo - Qbank (33 decks)

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