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2024 - Élo - Qbank > Quiz 54 > Flashcards

Quiz 54 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the cause of an annular pancreas?

A

Abnormal embryological rotation of the pancreatic bud

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2
Q

What is seen radiologically in chronic pancreatitis?

A

Pancreatic calcification - small opacities in the upper abdomen

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3
Q

Chronic pancreatitis can result in what endocrine disorder?

A

Diabetes mellitus

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4
Q

Rupture of bridging veins results in what type of brain bleed?

A

Subdural hematoma

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5
Q

Rupture of Charcot-Bouchard aneurysms produce hemorrhage where?

A

Intraparenchymal hemorrhage - commonly in the basal ganglia

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6
Q

Rupture of middle meningeal artery causes what type of brain bleed?

A

Epidural hematoma

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7
Q

Where can one find aneurysms in ADPKD?

A

Circle of Willis

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8
Q

Histologic evaluation of a lymph node showing mixture of cells (lymphocytes, histiocytes, eosinophils, and plasma cells) with scattered, large cells with prominent nucleoli is found in what disease?

A

Hodgkins lymphoma

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9
Q

What disease causes lymph node architecture to be distorted by broad bands of fibrosis?

A

Nodular sclerosing subtype of Hodgkins lymphoma

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10
Q

What subtype of cells are seen in nodular sclerosing Hodgkins lymphoma?

A

Subtype of Reed-Sternberg cells called lacunar cells

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11
Q

Chronically high venous pressure in the legs can result in what?

A

Varicose veins

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12
Q

In late stages of AIDs, what antibodies are not produced? Why?

A

IgG, IgA, and IgE are not produced - these antibodies need T-cell help

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13
Q

What bacterium is gram positive, grows in clusters and is non-hemolytic?

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

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14
Q

What is the morphology of S. aureus? What type of hemolysis does it produce?

A

Gram positive cocci; catalase and coagulase +; beta-hemolytic

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15
Q

Gram positive cocci that ferments mannitol?

A

S. Aureus

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16
Q

Is S. pyogenes bacitracin sensitive or resistant? Hemolysis?

A

Sensitive; beta-hemolytic

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17
Q

What is the morphology of S. epidermidis? How is it differentiated from S. aureus?

A

Gram + cocci in clusters; catalase + but coagulase negative; also is gamma hemolytic

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18
Q

What is a distinguishing feature of S. epidermidis?

A

Novobiocin sensitive; biofilm producer

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19
Q

Gram positive cocci, catalase and coagulase negative, beta hemolytic, bacitracin resistant and CAMP+

A

S. Agalactiae

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20
Q

Gram positive cocci, catalase +, coagulase negative, novobiocin sensitive

A

S. Epidermidis

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21
Q

How does one differentiate between staph aureus, epidermidis, and saprophyticus?

A

All are catalse +, epidermidis and saprophyticus are coagulase negative and gamma-hemolytic; epidermidis is novobiocin sensitive and saprophyticus is novobiocin resistant

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22
Q

Acquired pure red cell aplasia is seen after infections with what?

A

Parvovirus B19

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23
Q

Patients with what disease(s) are prone to developing pure red cell aplasia?

A

Sickle cell anemia or hereditary spherocytosis

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24
Q

What anticonvulsant drugs can cause aplastic anemia?

A

Carbamazepine and phenytoin

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25
Q

What antibiotic can cause aplastic anemia?

A

Chloramphenicol

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26
Q

Bernard-Sloulier syndrome is due to absence of what?

A

Platelet Glycoprotein Ib, a receptor for vWF

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27
Q

What syndrome does one see thrombocytopenia, frequent infections, and eczema?

A

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

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28
Q

Increasing the survival of a certain disease does what to incidence and prevalence?

A

Incidence is normal, but prevalence increases

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29
Q

Primary prevention does what to incidence and prevalence?

A

Both decrease

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30
Q

Increased death from a certain disease does what in incidence and prevalence?

A

Incidence in normal (stays the same), but prevalence decreases

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31
Q

Cart-wheel distribution of chromatin in the nucleus is seen in infections with what organism?

A

Entamoeba histolytica

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32
Q

Entamoeba histolytica causes what symptoms?

A

Diarrhea (can be bloody), peritonitis and liver abscess formation

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33
Q

What is seen in the stool of a patient infected with Entamoeba histolytica?

A

Cysts or trophozoites

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34
Q

Mumps is part of what viral family? What is its genetic makeup?

A

Paramyxoviridae; -ssRNA

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35
Q

How do paramyxoviruses evade the immune system? What type of immunity is thus important?

A

Evade by syncytia formation (spread from cell to cell this way); cell mediate immunity is important as antibodies (humoral immunity) don’t “see” the virus

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36
Q

What viruses are part of paramyxoviridae?

A

RSV, parainfluenza (croup), mumps, measles,

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37
Q

How does one treat RSV?

A

Ribavirin

38
Q

What bacterial species undergo natural transformation? (4 of them)

A

Haemophilus spp. Streptococcus spp., Neisseria spp., H. Pylori

39
Q

What is natural transformation?

A

Uptake of naked DNA from the environment

40
Q

Meconium ileus is often the first manifestation of what disease?

A

Cystic fibrosis

41
Q

What is meconium ileus?

A

Thick, sticky meconium obstructs the intestine - most commonly occurs at the ileus

42
Q

Meconium ileus can result in what complications?

A

Perforation with peritonitis and intraperitoneal calcification

43
Q

Deposition of what causes senile cardiac amyloidosis?

A

Transthyretin

44
Q

Autoimmune disease can result in deposition of what type of amyloid?

A

Amyloid associated protein

45
Q

Long term hemodialysis results in what type of amyloid deposition?

A

Beta-2 microglobulin

46
Q

Antibodies that recognize metalloprotease that cleaves vWF multimers results in what disease?

A

Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

47
Q

What is the common pentad of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura?

A

Fever, thrombocytopenia, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, renal insuff., neurological manifestations
*pentad rarely seen

48
Q

What is ADAMTS-13?

A

Metalloprotease that cleaves ultralarge vWF multimers

49
Q

Deficiency in ADAMTS-13 results in what disease?

A

Thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura

50
Q

In thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura, what is seen on peripheral smear?

A

Schistocytes due to microangiopathic anemia

51
Q

What cardiac abnormality is seen in infections of Borrelia burgdorferi?

A

AV block

52
Q

Cheese, beer, and wine cause interaction with what drugs?

A

Tyramine containing foods (beer, cheese, wine) cause interactions with monoamine oxidase inhibitors

53
Q

List three MAO inhibitors.

A

Phenelzine, tranylcypromine, isocarboxazid

54
Q

What happens when a patient is on MAO inhibitors and tyramine containing foods are ingested?

A

Large amounts of NE are displaced from postganglionic neurons, resulting in sympathetic crisis

55
Q

What happens to the numerical density and total luminal cross sectional area of blood vessels in high blood pressure?

A

Decreased numerical density and decreased cross sectional area

56
Q

What is a common cause of neonatal meningitis?

A

Streptococcus agalactiae (GBS)

57
Q

What is the morphology of S. agalactiae? Is it bacitracin sensitive or resistant?

A

Gram positive cocci, bacitracin sensitive

58
Q

What cytoskeletal protein moves toward the plus end of microtubules? Which toward the minus end of microtubules?

A

Kinesin moves toward the plus end; dynein moves toward the minus end

59
Q

Anterograde transport involves what cytoskeletal protein? Is it toward the minus or plus end of microtubules?

A

Anterograde is toward the plus end and involves kinesins

60
Q

Are myosins directed toward the plus or minus end of microtubules?

A

Plus end

61
Q

What lab values are important in diagnosing DIC?

A

Prolonged PT and PTT, decreased fibrinogen level and elevated fibrin split products

62
Q

Crescent-shaped protozoa adjacent to epithelial brush border on biopsy is characteristic of what infection?

A

Giardia lamblia

63
Q

After swimming in fresh water, patient complains of losing sense of smell and now has a prefrontal headache with fever and nausea, what organism are they infected with?

A

Naegleria fowleri

64
Q

How is a diagnosis of Naegleria fowleri meningoencephalitis made?

A

Trophozoites in CSF

65
Q

Thymic hyperplasia and thymomas are strongly associated with what disease?

A

Myasthenia gravis

66
Q

What antibodies are formed in myasthenia gravis?

A

Antibodies targeting post-synaptic acetylcholine nicotinic receptors

67
Q

How does one diagnose myasthenia gravis?

A

Tensilon (Edrophonium) test

68
Q

What is Edrophonium?

A

AChE inhibitor

69
Q

What cancer is strongly associated with Lambert-Eaton syndrome?

A

Small cell carcinoma of the lung

70
Q

What antibodies are produced in Lambert-Eaton syndrome?

A

Antibodies directed against voltage-gated calcium channels

71
Q

Weakness during the early part of the day that improves with greater activity is seen in what NMJ disease?

A

Lambert-Eaton syndrome

72
Q

Antibodies to acetylcholine nicotinic receptors at the NMJ causes what disease?

A

Myasthenia gravis

73
Q

What is the fick equation?

A

Cariac output = oxygen consumption divided by (arterial O2 content - venous O2 content)

74
Q

What artery is at risk in a supracondylar fracture of the femur?

A

Popliteal artery

75
Q

What artery is at risk in a posterior dislocation of the knee?

A

Popliteal artery

76
Q

The popliteal is from what artery?

A

Superficial femoral artery

77
Q

What arteries does the popliteal artery give rise to distal to the knee?

A

Anterior tibial a. And posterior tibial artery

78
Q

What artery gives rise to the dorsalis pedis artery?

A

Anterior tibial artery

79
Q

What artery gives rise to the the pulse posterior to the medial malleolus?

A

Posterior tibial artery

80
Q

What does the posterior tibial artery divide into to supply the plantar region of the foot?

A

Medial and lateral plantar arteries

81
Q

What artery supplies the posterior compartment of the thigh?

A

Profunda femoris artery

82
Q

Coagulative necrosis of a tumor is due to what?

A

Ischemia - not enough vascular supply to keep up with the rapid neoplastic growth

83
Q

Name 5 neutrophil chemoattractants

A

C5a, IL-8, leukotriene B4, fibrinopeptides, formyl methionyl peptides

84
Q

What is the equation for specificity?

A

True negatives/(true negatives + false positives)

85
Q

What is the equation for sensitivity?

A

TP/(TP+FN)

86
Q

What affect does phenobarbital have on the CYP450 system?

A

Induces it

87
Q

What organelle is the CYP450 found in?

A

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum of hepatocytes

88
Q

What are the best markers for identification of B cells?

A

CD19, CD20, CD21

89
Q

What cells are CD28+?

A

T cells

90
Q

What cells are CD56+?

A

NK cells

91
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta results from a defect in what?

A

Type I collagen - hydroxylation of proline and lysines

2024 - Élo - Qbank (33 decks)

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