Quiz 6 (CH 17, 18, 19A) Flashcards

(64 cards)

1
Q

Methods of identifying unknown microbes

A

Phenotypic: micro, macro, physiological
Genotypic: PCR, FISH, gel electrophoresis, Ribosomal RNA sequencing
Immunologic: serology

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2
Q

What do you look for in micro and macro scopic morphology

A

Micro: size, shape, structures (fimbria, glycocalyx, flagella, cilia, endospores, appendages)
Macro: colony appearances, texture, size, shape (margin, color, elevation)

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3
Q

What are the different stains used in phenotypic methods

A

Gram stain, acid-fast stain (used for TB), direct immunofluorescent antibody, and direct antigen testing

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4
Q

What are the two phenotypic methods for the cultivation of specimen

A

Isolation media: enrichment, selective or differential
Biochemical testing API: physiological rxn to nutrients and other substrates

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5
Q

What are the miscellaneous phenotypic tests

A

Phage typing: plaque formation will be present if you identified the bacteria
Antimicrobial sensitivity: used to determine treatment drugs

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6
Q

Explain FISH

A

with a blood culture do a gram stain, there is a genetic probe that will bind the nucleotides to their targets on the sample. If they bind they will stay bound and be able to see the fluorescent stage.
The probe has pre-set nucleotides on it to bind to the sample

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7
Q

Explain Pulse-field gel electrophoresis

A

With the ladder examine the samples and see which matches more closely to the ladder.
Cut DNA at specific positions to look for DNA matches to ID it

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8
Q

Explain Polymerase chain rxn (PCR)

A

amplification of DNA, or a forced DNA replication over and over
sensitive and specific, detect HIV, Lyme disease, HPV, TB, and hepatitis

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9
Q

Explain Ribosomal RNA sequencing

A

There are more differences in ribosomal DNA, it is used to study the phylogeny and taxonomy of samples.

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10
Q

What are the serological methods

A

In vivo testing, testing patient serum, test culture colony with known antibodies, card test, and streak plate

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11
Q

Describe in vivo testing and give an example

A

Antigens are introduced into the body to determine the +/- of antibodies
allergy and tuberculin skin test

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12
Q

Describe what happens in the patient serum and prepared antigen test

A

when the antigen and antibody come together there is a visible change or clumping when positive, if negative there is no rxn

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13
Q

Describe what happens in the patient serum and prepared antigen test

A

when the antigen and antibody come together there is a visible change or clumping when positive, if negative there is no rxn

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14
Q

Describe what happens in the culture colony with known antibodies

A

once the patient sample is cultured, it is placed on a slide with antiserum with antibodies to a pathogen. If it contains the antigen it will clump and will be positive, if neg there is no rxn

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15
Q

Describe the card and streak plate

A

Serum card: different known antigens are on the card along with control if an rxn there is clumping
Streak plate: colonies mixed with Neisseria meningitides antiserum (+ rxn will have clumping)
all is visualized

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16
Q

Describe Agglutination tests

A

The antibody cross-links whole-cell antigens, from visible insoluble clumps
if binding occurs see the large precipitate on the bottom of the tube, if not bound they will stay throughout the tube
has a threshold of when it turns from + agglutinated cells to - unagglutinated cells
as you go through the tubes the more diluted the patient sample becomes

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17
Q

Describe the precipitation tests

A

the soluble antigen is made insoluble by an antibody
Ouchterlony double diffusion: samples are in wells and if a precipitation band is seen it is a + result (the antibodies are present)
VDRL: when bind together they will form a specific precipitated

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18
Q

Describe the Western Blot test

A

Electrophoretic separation of proteins, followed by an immunoassay to detect
uses to look at something over time, looking for the formation of antibodies against infection (from the same bands as control) Bands intensifying over days show the patient is showing stronger and stronger response to the infection (bad since has to fight harder against infection)

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19
Q

Describe the Complement fixation test

A

Lysins red blood cells not bound to antibodies - result (where there is a rxn there is no antibody, hemolysis happens)
lysins fail to lyse in the + rxn and can bind to antibodies and hemolysis doesn’t happen

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20
Q

Describe Direct immunofluorescent testing (add more if you would like)

A

an unknown antigen is fixed and exposed to a fluorescent known antibody solution.
the antibody is binding directly onto the bacterial cell which is casing the rxn
and identifies antigens on the surfaces of cells/tissues
ex. syphilis, gonorrhea, chlamydiosis, whooping cough

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21
Q

Describe indirect immunofluorescent testing (add more if you would like)

A

the antibody binds onto the cell, but to see that it has bound a second fluorescently labeled antibody binds to the first antibody and shows the tag
used to diagnose syphilis and various viral infections

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22
Q

What is radioimmunoassay (RIA)

A

antigens or antibodies labeled with radioactive isotopes

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23
Q

Describe indirect ELSA

A

Start with the antigen bound to the well, add the patient sample serum which may or may not contain antibodies, if it does those antibodies will bind to the antigen, rinse out the well only the antibodies bound to the antigen will stay. Add another antibody (like a tag) to the sample and if the original antibody is bound then the second antibody will bind, rinse again. order should be antigen, antibody, antibody. Add a substrate which if both antibodies are present will cause a rxn and change the well color to yellow. If no antibodies present no color change

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24
Q

describe capture or sandwich ELSA

A

the antibody is bound to the well, the solution potentially containing the antigen is added to the well (if present will bind to the antibody). Then the enzyme-linked antibody is added if the antigen is present it will bind to the antigen, and rinse well. Then the enzyme substrate is added and if the enzyme is present the color will change. Antibody, antigen, enzyme

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25
Staphylococci general characteristic
A common inhabitant of the skin and mucous membranes, spherical cells arranged in irregular clusters, gram +, lack spores and flagella, may have capsules
26
Types of ways to identify staphylococcus
pus, tissue, sputum, urine, blood API test, catalase test, coagulase test, antibody/antigen
27
What are the coagulase-negative staphylococci (4 types)
S. epidermidis, S. hominis, S. capitis, S. saprophyticus
28
What do the coagulase-negative staphylococci have in common
all live on the skin epi: skin and mucous membranes hominis: sweat glands capitis: scalp, face, eternal ear saprophyticus: skin, intestine, vagina
29
What are some general characteristics of Staphylococcus aureus
grows in large, round, opaque colonies temp 37 facultative anaerobe withstands high salt, extremes in pH, high temps produces many virulence factors coagulase positive
30
What are some of the virulence factors of S. aureus
coagulates blood plasma, digests connective tissues, digests blood clots, lyse red blood cells, induces fever, vomiting rash, organ damage
31
What are folliculitis
Superficial inflammation of hair follicle; usually resolves easily
32
What are furuncles
boil; inflammation of hair follicle or sebaceous gland, may progress
33
What is a carbuncle
larger and deeper lesion created by aggregation and interconnection of a cluster of furuncles, more likely to progress
34
What does impetigo mean
bubble-like swellings that can break and peel away; most common in newborns
35
Based on the table what does S. aureus affect?
Cardiovascular, lymphatic system: endocarditis, toxic shock syndrome Gastrointestinal: food intoxication Respiratory: Pneumonia
36
What are the toxigenic disease from S. aureus and give a brief description
Food intoxication: ingestion fo heat-stable enterotoxins (gastrointestinal distress) staphylococcal scaled skin syndrome: toxin induces bright red flush, blisters then peeling Toxic shock syndrome: toxemia leading to shock and organ failure
37
What is the current treatment for S. aureus
Resistant forms can generally be treated with cephalexin, sulfa drugs, tetracyclines, or clindamycin
38
What can treat MRSA
vancomycin, ceftaroline, linezolid, and daptomycin
39
What are the general characteristic of straptococci
gram + spherical arranged in long chains or pairs, non-spore-forming, nonmotile, can form capsules and slime layers, facultative anaerobes, do no form catalase but have peroxidase, most parasitic forms are fastidious and require to enrich media, small, non-pigmented, sensitive to drying, heat and disinfectants
40
Describe Lancefield groups
17 groups that are based on polysaccharides, or teichoic acids that are found on the bacterial cell wall that contains antigens Has beta-hemolytic and alpha hemolytic
41
What kind of tests can be done after the gram stain to differentiate (Streptococcal)
Quellung test: looking to see the level or amount of lysis that occurs (beta complete hemolysis, alpha partial hemolysis) Bile solubility: cloudy neg, clear pos inulin fermentation: positive fermentation if it was able to use the starch or if not
42
Describe Streptococcus pyogenes general
most serious streptococcal pathogen, inhabits throat, nasopharynx, occasionally skin strict parasite that produce surface antigens
43
Build a story of S. pyogenes touch on C-carbohydrates, Fimbriae, M-protein, Hyaluronic acid capsule, and C5a protease
the cell itself on the outside is the C5a protease that hinders complement & neutrophil response, the fimbriae make it so they can attach better onto host cells, the hyaluronic acid capsule provokes no immune response, then M-protein contributes to resistance to phagocytosis, and C-carbohydrates prevents lysozymes from being able to properly bind or enter cells
44
What are some of the Virulence factors of S. pyogenes
Extracellular toxins: streptolysins, erythrogenic toxins, superantigens Extracellular enzymes: Streptokinase, hyaluronidase, DNase
45
For S. pyogenes what are the scopes of clinical disease (non-systemic)
impetigo: superficial lesions, highly contagious erysipelas: pathogen enters through broken skin and invades deeper layers streptococcal pharyngitis: strep throat
46
For S. pyogenes what are the scopes of clinical disease (systemic infections)
scarlet fever, septicemia, pneumonia, streptococcal toxic shock,
47
General characteristics of Streptococcus pneumoniae
small, lancet-shaped cells, pairs, and short chains requires blood or chocolate agar lack of catalase and peroxidases all pathogenic strains form capsules
48
what is a pneumococcus disease
pneumonia occurs when cells are aspirated into the lungs of susceptible individuals, which then multiplies and induces an overwhelming inflammatory response
49
What is the treatment for pneumococcal infections
treated with penicillin G or V
50
general characteristics of Neisseria
gram neg, bean-shaped, diplococci, no flagella or spores (yes pili) strict parasites do not survive long outside of the host produce catalase aerobic or microaerophilic
51
General characteristics of Gonococcal infections
gram neg, diplococci form urethral, vaginal, cervical, or eye
52
Factors contributing to gonococcal pathogenicity epidemiology and pathology of gonorrhea Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Factors: fimbriae, other surface molecules for attachment; slows phagocytosis epidemiology: strictly a human infection in top 5 STDs
53
Gonorrhea in males
urethritis, yellowish discharge, scarring, and infertility 10% of males are asymptomatic
54
gonorrhea in female
vaginitis can cause inflammation in the vagina, and urethra other risks of sterility are scar tissue may build in the FT and not letting an egg pass or could, however, might not let an already fertilized egg pass. 50% of females are asymptomatic
55
Gonorrhea in children
infants born to gonococcus carries are in danger of being infected as they pass through the birth canal eye inflammation, blindness
56
What are the three medically important gram + bacilli
Endospores-formers, non-endospores formers, irregular shaped and staining properties
57
What are the general characteristics of bacillus
gram +, endospore-forming motile rods, mostly saprobic, aerobic, catalase positive, and source of antibiotics
58
Describe bacillus anthracis
large block-shaped angular nonmotile rods central spores that developed under all conditions except in the living body virulence factors- polypeptide capsule and exotoxins
59
where are the majority of anthrax cases from
livestock from africa, asia, and the middle east, vaccines used to protect animals
60
How is anthrax treated?
with clindamycin, doxycycline, or ciprofloxacin each + raxibacumab
61
General characteristics of Bacillus cereus
Gram+ rod, variety of environments (anaerobic), spreads through the air or dust, spores, grows in foods Food poisoning
62
Tell the story of Bacillus cereus
is air-borne or dust-borne and when in the kitchen it lands on food exposed to the air since it has spores those spores do not cook away and then they will grow and infect whoever eats it. the second story is if the cooked food was left out with no cover then spores have time to line germinate and produce toxins
63
Give the general characteristics of the genus Clostridium
Gram +, spore-forming rods, anaerobic and catalase neg, a common genus in and out of the body, in our gut (ferment nutrients), can produce a variety of acids, alcohols, exotoxins
64
General overview of Clostridium perfringens
Most frequent clostridia involved in soft tissue an dwond infections spores found in soil, human skin, intestine, and vagina Virulence factors: Alpha toxin, collagenase, hyaluronidase, DNase