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1
Q
  1. Pharmacokinetics is defined as:
    Optional Answers:
  2. The effects our bodies have on drugs
  3. How drugs effect our bodies
  4. How drugs are attracted to each other
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2
Q
  1. Which of the following describes the pharmacokinetic processes?
    Optional Answers:
  2. Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Elimination
  3. Administration, Delivery, Medication, Excretion
  4. Allocation, Distribution, Mediation, Evaluation
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3
Q
  1. Describes the amount of drug entering circulation after overcoming physical, chemical, and biological barriers.
    Optional Answers:
  2. Absorption 2. Distribution 3. Metabolism 4. Elimination
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4
Q
  1. First pass metabolism occurs with which of the following routes of administration?
    Optional Answers:
  2. Enteral
  3. Parenteral
  4. Transdermal
  5. Mucous membrane
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5
Q
  1. The __________________________ prevents passive diffusion of drugs into the cerebral area.
    Optional Answers:
  2. Blood brain barrier 2. Cerebral sphincter 3. Cerebral spinal fluid 4. Vagus nerve
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6
Q
  1. The overall goal of hepatic metabolism is:
    Optional Answers:
  2. Make molecules more hydrophilic to leave the body 2. Make molecules more lipophilic to enter the brain 3. Make molecules less toxic
  3. Make molecules inactive
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7
Q
  1. Which of the following induces metabolism of CYP450 1A2 enzymes?
    Optional Answers:
  2. Smoking
  3. Nicotine gum
  4. Bupropion
  5. All of these
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8
Q
  1. Generally, in therapeutic drug monitoring, a serum concentration should be checked at steady state. This is achieved:
    Optional Answers:
  2. After 4.5 half-lives
  3. After 1 week
  4. Following the first dose
  5. 12 hours after the last dose
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9
Q
  1. Pharmacodynamics is defined as:
    Optional Answers:
  2. How drugs effect our bodies
  3. The effects our bodies have on drugs
  4. How drugs are attracted to each other
A

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10
Q
  1. A drug with a narrow therapeutic index has:
    Optional Answers:
  2. A small window between therapeutic effects and toxic effects
  3. Toxic effects at small doses
  4. Therapeutic effects at large doses
  5. A large variability of effects
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11
Q
  1. When interacting with a receptor, an antagonist:
    Optional Answers:
  2. Maintains the baseline activity of the receptor
  3. Prevents all activity of the receptor
  4. Stimulates (“turns on”) the receptor
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12
Q
  1. Which is an example of a medications class that targets neurotransmitter metabolism?
    Optional Answers:
  2. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
  3. VMAT2 inhibitors
  4. Antipsychotics
  5. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
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13
Q
  1. When a medication interacts with a ligand-gated ion channel, it:
    Optional Answers:
  2. Produces a conformational change adjusting the flow of ions through the channel
  3. Blocks all ions from passing through the channel
  4. Changes the charge of the channel, producing flow in a different direction
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14
Q
  1. Communication between neurons is accomplished with:
    Optional Answers:
  2. Neurotransmitters
  3. Electrical impulses
  4. Serum proteins
  5. Water diffusion
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15
Q
  1. Neurotransmission results in:
    Optional Answers:
  2. Gene expression
  3. Static electricity
  4. Cognitive impairment
  5. Warp travel
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16
Q
  1. Behavior can be affected by gene expression.
    Optional Answers:
  2. True 2. False
17
Q
  1. Activity at which of these receptors makes an antipsychotic “atypical”?
    Optional Answers:
  2. 5HT2A
  3. D2
  4. H1
  5. M1
18
Q
  1. Atypical antipsychotics vary in their affinities for receptors, which confers:
    Optional Answers:
  2. Differences in side effect profiles 2. Differences in efficacy
  3. Differences in affordability
19
Q
  1. Positive symptoms of schizophrenia are associated with excessive dopaminergic activity in which pathway?
    Optional Answers:
  2. Mesolimbic pathway
  3. Mesocortical pathway
  4. Nigrostriatal pathway
  5. Tuberoinfundibular pathway
20
Q
  1. Which symptoms of schizophrenia impair functioning the most?
    Optional Answers:
  2. Negative symptoms 2. Positive symptoms
21
Q
  1. Generally speaking, which side effects are shared by the “pines” (clozapine, olanzapine)?
    Optional Answers:
  2. Sedation, weight gain, and anticholinergic effects
  3. EPS and hyperprolactinemia
  4. Weight loss and akathisia
  5. Tardive dyskinesia, hypotension, and dystonic reactions
22
Q
  1. Generally speaking, which side effects are shared by the “dones” (risperidone, ziprasidone)?
    Optional Answers:
  2. EPS and hyperprolactinemia
  3. Sedation and anticholinergic effects
  4. Weight gain and hypertension
  5. Constipation, dry mouth, and hypotension
23
Q
  1. Generally speaking, which side effects are shared by the “2 pips and a rip” (aripiprazole, brexpiprazole, cariprazine)?
    Optional Answers:
  2. Weight neutrality and low sedation
  3. Constipation, dry mouth, and hypotension
  4. EPS and hyperprolactinemia
  5. Sedation, weight gain, and anticholinergic effects
24
Q
  1. Which group of antipsychotics should be taken with food to ensure absorption?
    Optional Answers:
  2. Lurasidone and ziprasidone
  3. Asenapine and quetiapine
  4. Risperidone and clozapine
  5. Olanzapine and aripiprazole
25
9. Pimavanserin is an antipsychotic that uniquely is missing activity at which receptor? Optional Answers: 1. D2 2. 5HT2A 3. H1 4. M1
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10. Clozapine has a number of serious side effects, including: Optional Answers: 1. Agranulocytosis, myocarditis, and seizures 2. Thrombocytopenia, constipation, and sedation 3. Anorexia, withdrawal, agranulocytosis 4. DKA, increased suicidality, dystonic reactions
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27
11. Which of these antipsychotics is the gold standard for efficacy in treating schizophrenia, especially if treatment-resistant? Optional Answers: 1. Clozapine 2. Aripiprazole 3. Haloperidol 4. Chlorpromazine
1
28
12. According to the APA Choosing Wisely initiative, antipsychotics should NOT be used first line for: Optional Answers: 1. All of these 2. Insomnia 3. Psychosis in patients with dementia 4. Children without a psychotic disorder
1
29
1. The main excitatory neurotransmitter is: Optional Answers: 1. Glutamate 2. GABA 3. Acetylcholine 4. Serotonin
1
30
2. Stimulating serotonin 5HT2A receptors has what effect on dopamine (DA)? Optional Answers: 1. Inhibits DA release 2. Increases DA release 3. Has no effect of DA 4. Acts as an antagonist at DA receptors
1
31
3. Monoamines are removed from the synapse by which of these mechanisms? Optional Answers: 1. All of these 2. Norepinephrine transporters 3. Monoamine oxidase (MAO) A or B 4. Serotonin transporters
1
32
1. Lithium therapy is associated with which of these side effects: Optional Answers: 1. Hypothyroidism 2. Weight loss 3. Urinary retention 4. Insomnia
1
33
2. Which of the following statements describes lithium pharmacokinetics? Optional Answers: 1. Lithium is 100% renally eliminated 2. Lithium is metabolized by CYP1A2 3. Lithium’s half-life is 4 hours 4. Lithium achieves steady state in 1-2 weeks
1
34
3. Which of these are side effects of valproic acid/divalproex? Optional Answers: 1. All of these 2. Thrombocytopenia 3. Pancreatitis 4. Polycystic ovary syndrome
1
35
4. Which of the following statements describes valproic acid pharmacokinetics? Optional Answers: 1. Valproic acid is highly protein bound 2. Valproic acid is not hepatically metabolized 3. Valproic acid achieves steady state in 7 days 4. Valproic acid’s half-life is 72 hours
1
36
5. Which of these side effects is associated with carbamazepine? Optional Answers: 1. Agranulocytosis 2. Hypernatremia 3. Iron deficiency 4. Weight loss
1
37
6. What is a problematic aspect of carbamazepine that makes it difficult to use with other medications? Optional Answers: 1. Induces several CYP450 enzyme systems 2. Few drug-drug interactions 3. Short half-life of 3 hours 4. Requires genetic testing in patients of African descent
1
38
7. Which of these side effects is associated with lamotrigine? Optional Answers: 1. Rash 2. Urinary retention 3. Bradycardia 4. Diarrhea
1
39
8. Which of these are side effects of valproic acid/divalproex? Optional Answers: 1. All of these 2. Thrombocytopenia 3. Pancreatitis 4. Polycystic ovary syndrome
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PMHNP (26 decks)

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