Flashcards in Rapid Fire Facts Deck (262):
Most common cause of neural tube defects
Most common cause of congenital malformations
Most common cause of mental retardation in US
Fetal Alcohol Syndrome
Hyperflexible joints, arachnodactyly, aortic dissection, lens dislocation
Marfan's syndrome (Fibrillin defect)
Hereditary nephritis, cataracts, sensorineural hearing loss
Alport syndrome (Collagen IV defect)
Blue sclera, bone fractures
Osteogenesis imperfecta (mutation in alpha chain of collagen type I, hydroxylation defect)
Antibodies against presynaptic Calcium channels at NMJ
Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome
Most common adrenal tumor
Benign, non-functioning adrenal adenoma
Most common tumor of adrenal medulla in adults
Most common tumor of adrenal medulla in kids
Most common cause of primary hyperaldosteronism
Medical treatment for hyperaldosteronism
Medical treatment for pheochromocytoma
Phenoxybenzamine (non selective alpha blocker)
Pheochromocytoma, medullary thyroid cancer, hyperparathyroidism
Pheochromocytoma, medullary thyroid cancer, mucosal neuroma
Adrenal disease with skin hyperpigmentation
Primary adrenal insufficiency: Addison's
HTN, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis
Hyperaldosteronism; Conn's syndrome
Most common cause of acute pancreatitis
Gallstones and alcohol
Most common cause of chronic pancreatitis
Severe hyperbilirubinemia in neonate
Crigler-Najjar type I
Mild benign hyperbilirubinemia
TG accumulation in hepatocytes
Fatty liver disease
Eosinophilic inclusions in cytoplasm of hepatocytes
Cancer linked closely to cirrhosis
Hepatomegaly, abdominal pain, ascites
Budd Chiari syndrome
Green/yellow corneal deposits
Kayser-Fleischer rings (Wilson's disease)
Low serum Ceruloplasmin
Cirrhosis, diabetes, hyperpigmentation
Anaphylaxis on exposure to blood products with IgA
Selective IgA deficiency
Coarse facial features, abscesses, eczema
Hyper IgE syndrome
Thrombocytopenia, purpura, infections, eczema
Wiskott Aldrich Syndrome (WATER)
Delayed separation of umbilicus
Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency
Neuro defects, partial albinism, recurrent infections
Chediak Higashi syndrome
Mucin-Filled cell with a peripheral nucleus
Signet ring cell (seen in gastric adenocarcinoma and lobular carcinoma in situ of breast)
Most common type of stomach cancer
Ovarian metastasis from gastric cancer
Gastric ulcerations and high gastrin levels
Zollinger Ellison Syndrome
Acute gastric ulcer associated with elevated ICP or head trauma
Acute gastric ulcer associated with severe burns
Aorta and IVC
Duodenum (2nd through 4th parts)
Pancreas (except tail)
Colon (ascending and descending)
Esophagus (thoracic portion)
What do the following cells secrete?
a. G cells
b. I cells
c. S cells
d. D cells
e. Gastric parietal cells
e. Gastric acid and IF
Name of monocytes in other parts of the body
a. blood, alveoli, intestines
b. connective tissue
c. Kupffer cells
d. mesangial cells
Obligate anaerobe bacteria lack
b. Superoxide dismutase
Obligate AEROBE bacteria are...
(Naggy Pests Must Breathe)
"Naggy Pests Must Breathe"
What serum antibodies are associated with celiac sprue?
What organism is associated with Whipple disease?
Tropheryma whipplei (gram positive)
Defect in chylomicron exportation
Cramping associated with milk products
Small intestinal mucosa laden with macrophages in the lamina propria (that are filled with PAS+ granules and rod-shaped bacilli seen by electron microscopy)?
Weight loss, diarrhea, arthritis, fever, adenopathy, hyperpigmentation
What are the common causes of small bowel obstruction?
A - Adhesions from previous surgeries (75%)
B - Bulge/Hernia (second most common cause)
C - Cancer/Tumors (most commonly metastatic colorectal cancer)
What heart defect is associated with chromosome 22q11 deletion?
Tetralogy of Fallot, truncus arteriosus
What heart defect is associated with down syndrome?
Endocardial cushion defect, ASD, VSD, AV septal defect
What heart defect is associated with congenital rubella?
PDA, pulmonary artery stenosis, septal defect
What heart defect is associated with Turner syndrome?
Coarctation, aortic root dilation, bicuspid aortic valve
What heart defect is associated with Marfan syndrome?
What drugs are used to treat TB?
Most abundant bacteria in GI tract
1. Bacteroides fragilis
2. E. coli
What is fundamental problem in Hirschsprung Disease?
Neural crest cells fail to migrate to the colon --> missing enteric ganglia//nerve plexuses (Auerbach's and Meissner's plexus)
Where in GI tract does endodermal tissue make an abrupt transition to ectoderm?
Most common surgical emergency
Severe RLQ pain with rebound tenderness
McBurney's point seen in Appendicitis
What cytokines do TH1 cells make?
IL-2 and IFy
What cytokines do TH2 cells make?
IL4, IL5, IL10
What five classes of medications are used to treat glaucoma?
diuretics (acetazolamide, mannitol)
prostaglandins (prostaglandin F2-alpha)
What nerve is damaged in wrist drop?
What nerve is damaged in scapular winging?
Long thoracic nerve
What nerve is damaged if you are unable to wipe your bottom?
What nerve is damaged in loss of forearm pronation?
What nerve is damaged in weak external rotation of the arm?
What nerve is damaged in loss of elbow flexion and forearm supination?
What nerve is damaged in loss of wrist extension?
Which kind of colonic polyp is considered a precursor for malignancy?
Which colon polyp has most malignant potential?
What are risk factors for colon cancer?
Adenomatous and serrated polyps, smoking, familial cancer syndromes, IBD, diet of processed meat with low fiber
Most common cancer of the appendix
GI hamartomas, hyper pigmentation of the mouth and hands
Multiple colon polyps, osteomas, soft tissue tumors
"Apple core" lesion on barium enema
What makes Lewy Body Dementia unique?
Visual hallucinations, repeated falls, syncopal episodes
Most common cause of acute RLQ pain
Most common cause of acute LLQ pain
Most common cause of RUQ pain
Colonoscopy reveals very friable mucosa extending from the rectum to the distal transverse colon
Most common site of colonic diverticula
"String sign" on contrast xray
"Lead pipe" appearance of colon on contrast x-ray
From what tissue does the spleen arise?
What artery is it supplied by?
Supplied by foregut (Celiac artery)
Common cause of pneumonia in immunocompromised patients
Most common cause of atypical walking pneumonia
Common cause of pneumonia in alcoholics
Klebsiella pneumoniae (think aspiration)
Can cause interstitial pneumonia in bird handlers
Often cause of pneumonia in person with exposure to bats and bat droppings
Often cause of pneumonia who visited Southern California, New Mexico or West Texas
Pneumonia associated with currant jelly sputum
Causes Q fever
Associated with pneumonia acquired from air conditioners
Most common cause of pneumonia in children 1 year or younger
Most common cause of pneumonia in neonate
Group B Strep or E. Coli
Most common cause of pneumonia in children and young adults
Most common cause of viral pneumonia
Causes wool sorter's disease (life threatening pneumonia)
Common pneumonia in ventilator patients and those with CF
How is hemochromatosis identified on biopsy?
With Prussian blue stain
What is the classic triad of hemochromatosis?
Cirrhosis, Diabetes, Hyperpigmentation
What causes primary hemochromatosis?
C282Y or H63D mutation on HFE gene
Associated with HLA-A3
Treatment for hemochromatosis
Phlebotomy or chelation with deferoxamine/deferasirox/deferiprone
What conditions is Primary Biliary Cirrhosis associated with/
CREST, Sjogren syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis and celiac disease
What conditions is Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis associated with/
What are the two types of gallstones? Which one is more common? When are each seen?
1. Cholesterol stones (80%); associated with obesity, Crohn disease, advanced age, estrogen therapy, multiparty, rapid weight loss, Native American origin, Clofibrate
2. Pigment stones; seen in patients with chronic hemolysis, alcoholic cirrhosis, advanced age, biliary infections, total parenteral nutrition (TPN)
What conditions can gallstones cause?
Cholecystitis, ascending cholangitis, acute pancreatitis, bile stasis, biliary colic, fistula between gallbladder and small intestine
What is cholecystitis?
Acute or chronic inflammation of gallbladder; usually from cholelithiasis (gallstones)
What is Charcot triad of cholangitis?
Jaundice, fever, RUQ pain
What is porcelain gallbladder?
It is a calcified gallbladder from chronic cholecystitis that is usually found incidentally on imaging. Causes gallbladder carcinoma.
Clinical presentation of acute pancreatitis
Epigastric abdominal pain radiating to back, anorexia, nausea, fear of eating, increased lipase (and amylase)
Complications of acute pancreatitis
Pancreatic pseudocyst (can rupture and hemorrhage)
Chronic pancreatitis presentation
Pancreatic insufficiency --> steatorrhea, fat-soluble vitamin deficiency, diabetes mellitus
Marker for pancreatic cancer
Risk factors for pancreatic adenocarcinoma
Tobacco use, Chronic pancreatitis, diabetes, age >50, Jewish and Native American males
What is Trousseau syndrome?
Migratory thrombophlebitis (redness and tenderness on palpation of extremities) seen with pancreatic (or GI) malignancy
Classic triad of symptoms in MS
Scanning speech, intention tremor, nystagmus
Lysosomal storage disorder characterized by accumulation of GM2 ganglioside
Lysosomal storage disorder associated with renal failure
What structures perforate the diaphragm and at what levels?
T8 - IVC
T10 - esophagus, vagus nerve
T12 - aorta, thoracic duct, azygos vein
What histological change takes place in esophagus of smoker?
Squamous becoming columnar; metaplasia
What ratio in amniotic fluid indicates fetal lung maturity?
Lecithin to Sphingomyelin ratio > 2.0
What nerve is at risk of injury with fracture of shaft of humerus?
What nerve is at risk of injury with fracture of surgical neck of humerus?
What nerve is at risk of fracture with supracondylar humerus fracture?
Nerve and artery injured from shaft humerus fracture?
Radial nerve and deep brachial artery injury
Air that moves into lung with each quiet inspiration
Inspiratory reserve volume
Air that can still be breathed in after normal inspiration
Expiratory reserve volume
Air that can still be breathed out after normal inspiration
Air in lung after maximal expiration; cannot be measured on spirometry
IRV + TV
Functional residual capacity
ERV + RV - volume of gas in lungs after normal expiration
TV + IRV + ERV - maximum volume of gas that can be expired after a maximal inspiration
Total lung capacity
IRV + TV + ERV + RV - volume of gas present in lungs after maximal inspiration
Physiologic dead space equation
Vd = VT x ((PaCO2 - PeCO2)/PaCO2)
What happens to intrathoracic volume when a lung collapses?
What can cause pulmonary hypertension?
COPD, sleep apnea, frequent thromboembolism, mitral stenosis, left to right cardiac shunts
What gene is mutated in primary hypertension?
BMPR2 gene that normally inhibits vascular smooth muscle proliferation
What drugs can treat pulmonary hypertension?
Prostaglandin analog (Epoprostenol, iloprost)
What is the mechanism of Bosentan?
Antagonist at the endothelin 1 receptor that decreases pulmonary vascular resistance
What antibodies are specific for SLE?
What is mechanism of type IV hypersensitivity
T cells are sensitized and bind antigens and release cytokines
Treatment for methemoglobinemia
Methylene blue or Vitamin C
Which form of hemoglobin has high affinity for oxygen?
R form (relaxed) has high affinity for oxygen
T form (taut) has low affinity for oxygen (Tissues)
What substances shift oxygen dissociation curve to right?
CO2, elevated 2,3DPG, acidosis, exercise and increased temperature
What immunodeficiency matches the following:
a. neutrophils fail to respond to chemotactic stimuli
b. Adenosine deaminase deficiency
c. Failure of endodermal development
d. Defective tyrosine kinase gene
e. Associated with high levels of IgE
a. Job syndrome (hyper IgE) or leuocyte adhesion deficiency syndrome
d. Bruton agammaglobulinemia
e. Hyper IgE syndrome
What bacterial structure has the following functions;
a. mediates adherence of bacteria to the surface of a cell
b. protects against phagocytosis
c. space between the inner and outer cellular membranes in gram - bacteria
d. forms attachment between two bacteria during conjugation
e. genetic material within bacteria that contains genes for antibiotic resistance
a. fimbria or pili
d. sex pilus (F pilus)
What structures arise from paramesonnephric ducts?
What's a normal A-a gradient?
What are causes of high A-a gradient?
Shunting of blood
Which neurodegenerative disease fits the following:
a. senile plaques, neurofibrillary tangles
b. presents at birth as "floppy baby"
c. lewy bodies
a. Alzheimer disease
b. Werdnig-Hoffman disease
c. Parkinson's, diffuse lewy body dementia
What drugs are composed of antibodies against TNF
Etanercept - not an antibody, TNF inhibitor
What is the eye palsy associated with MS and internuclear ophthalmoplegia?
-On lateral gaze abducting eye has nystagmus, adducting eye is unable to adduct
-Convergence is normal
-Medial rectus palsy only shows up during lateral gaze and not with convergence
What is the classic presentation of congenital pyloric stenosis?
Infant, 2-6 weeks of age
First born male
Non-bilious projectile vomiting
Palpable mass in RUQ, olive-like
Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis
How does fetal Hgb differ from adult Hgb?
Adult Hgb has higher affinity for 2,3 DPG
Fetal Hgb has higher affinity for O2
EKG changes with MI
ST segment elevation of at least 1 mm in 2 contiguous leads
T wave inversion
New Q waves (at least 1 block wide of 1/3 height of total QRS)
What serum lab markers are used to diagnose MI?
Troponin I - after 4 hours
CK-MB - after 6-12 hours
What is most common lethal complication of MI?
Chest pain, pericardial friction rub, persistent fever occurring several weeks after an MI?
Which hereditary bilirubinemia:
a. responds to phenobarbital
b. grossly black liver
a. Crigler-Najjar type II or Gilbert syndrome
b. Dubin-Johnson syndrome
What is complication of silicosis?
Increases susceptibility to tuberculosis
What are pathologic findings of HTN?
Medial hypertrophy, fibrosis of the intimate, arteriosclerosis
Where do these spinal tracts cross over?
a. dorsal column
b. lateral corticospinal tracts
c. spinothalamic tract
b. medullary pyramids
c. anterior white commissure
What drugs interact with CYP450?
Acute alcohol use
What is a disulfiram like reaction?
Inhibition of acetaldehyde dehydrogenase --> accumulation of aldehyde
Caused by metronidazole, cephalosporins, 1st generation sulfonylureas
What are the signs of Right heart failure?
Lower extremity edema, JVD, hepatosplenomegaly
What are signs of left sided Heart failure?
Dyspnea on exertion
Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
a. What are the symptoms of organophosphate poisoning?
b. What are the symptoms of atropine overdose?
a. diarrhea, urination, miosis, bronchospasm, bradycardia, lacrimation, salivation
b. increased temp, decreased secretions, constipation, cyclopedia, mydriasis, confusion, disorientation
Outline pathway that Gq receptor activates PKC
Gq --> Phospholipase C --> cleaves PIP2 into DAG and IP3. DAG activates Protein Kinase C and IP3 causes an increase in calcium to cause smooth muscle contraction
With what type of heart defect would increasing afterload be beneficial?
Any right to left shunt; tetralogy of fallot, trunks arteriosus, transposition of the great vessels, Eisenmenger syndrome (squatting down)
What medications improve survival in CHF?
What medications provide symptomatic relief in CHF but do not improve survival?
What medications are used to treat acute heart failure?
Nitrates, Oxygen, Loop diuretics, Inotropes, Positioning
What is the mechanism of action of cardiac glycosides like Digoxin?
It inhibits the Na/K ATPase so that Na can't leave the cell --> this inhibits the Na/Ca exchanger so Calcium isn't leaving the cell and Na isn't entering --> Intracellular Calcium increases and causes more muscle contraction
What is a cardiac consequence of Lyme disease? What is the vector of Lyme disease?
What are other complications of Lyme disease?
AV nodal heart block; Caused by Ixodes scapularis
Bell's palsy, arthritis,
Which blood pressure drugs are C/I in patients with a sulfa allergy?
Thiazides and loop diuretics
Which beta blockers are:
a. B1 (heart) selective
b. non selective (B2 in lungs)
a. Starting with A-M
b. Starting with M-Z
Exceptions are Carvedilol and Labetalol which are both a1 and b1
Triad of symptoms for ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm:
Hypotension, pulsatile abdominal mass, abdominal pain
What is the most likely underlying reason for:
a. abdominal aortic aneurysm
b. thoracic aortic aneurysm
a. Atherosclerosis (smoking, old age, men)
b. Cystic medial necrosis (HTN, Marfan's, bicuspid aortic valve, tertiary syphilis)
What drugs have the following S/E:
c. Pulmonary fibrosis
f. Drug Induced Lupus
a. PPU, Clozapine, Carbamazepine, Colchizine, Methimazole
b. Corticosteroids, Heparin
c. Bleomycin, Busulfan, Amiodarone
d. Spironolactone, Digitalis, Cimetidine, Chronic alcohol, Ketoconazole, Marijuana
e. Sulfonamides, Tetracycline, Amiodarone
f. Sulfonamides, Hydralazine, Isoniazid, Procainamide, Phenytoin
What adult structures give rise to the:
a. 3rd aortic arch
b. 4th aortic arch
c. 6th aortic arch
a. Common carotid artery and proximal part of internal carotid
b. Left - arch of adult aorta, Right - proximal part of R subclavian
c. Proximal part of pulmonary arteries and ductus arteriosus
What causes edema by increased capillary pressure?
CHF, anything that blocks veins (venous thrombosis, compression of veins)
What causes edema by decreased plasma colloid osmotic pressure (decreased plasma proteins)?
What causes edema by increasing capillary permeability?
What causes edema by increased interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure?
To which category do each of the following drugs belong:
b. COX2 inhibitor
d. Tetracycline antibiotic
e. Inhibitor of dihydrofolate reductase
f. H2 blocker
What is the antidote for copper, gold or arsenic?
What is the antidote for gold, arsenic or mercury?
What is the antidote for tPA or streptokinase?
What is the antidote for Digoxin?
Anti-digoxin antibody fragments
What does heart sound S3 represent?
You hear it in early diastole during rapid ventricular filling phase; it is associated with INCREASED FILLING PRESSURE - seen in heart failure or mitral regurgitation and more common in dilated ventricles
What does heart sound S4 represent?
Heard in late diastole (atrial kick); represents HIGH ATRIAL PRESSURE; associated with ventricular hypertrophy --> left atrium must push against stiff LV wall
Why does normal splitting happen?
On inspiration there is a drop in intrathoracic pressure that causes increased venous return --> increased RV filling --> increased RV stroke volume --> increased RV ejection time --> delayed closure of pulmonic valve
Why does wide splitting happen?
It is seen in conditions that delay RV emptying (pulmonic stenosis, right bundle branch block). The delay in RV emptying causes delayed pulmonic sound. Exaggeration of normal splitting.
What is fixed splitting? In which conditions is it seen?
Seen in ASD --> left to right shunt --> that increases RA and RV volumes --> increased flow through pulmonic valve such that the pulmonic valve closure is greatly delayed REGARDLESS OF BREATH.
a. What causes aortic regurgitation?
b. What are clinical signs of aortic regurgitation?
a. aortic root dilation (syphilis or Marfan's), bicuspid aortic valve, endocarditis, rheumatic fever
b. Blowing early diastolic decrescendo murmur; wide pulse pressure, bounding pulses and head-bobbing
a. What causes mitral stenosis?
b. What are clinical signs of mitral stenosis?
a. Rheumatic fever, can result in left atrial dilation
b. Follows opening snap (from abrupt half in leaflet motion in diastole)
a. What does PDA sound like?
a. Continuous machine-like murmur; loudest at S2
What are the diastolic murmurs?
Mitral or Tricuspid stenosis
Aortic or Pulmonic regurgitation
What murmurs are heard best in left lateral decubitus position?
Outline pathway of phenlalanine to NE
Phenylalanine is converted to Tyrosine (by Phenylalanine hydroxylase) which is converted to L-DOPA (by Tyrosine hydroxylase) which is converted to Dopamine (by Dopamine dexarboxylase that requires B6) which is converted to NE and then Epi
Five most common causes of aortic stenosis
Bicuspid aortic valve
Rheumatic heart disease
Unicuspid aortic valve
What heart murmur is associated with weak pulses?
Crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur best heart in the 2nd-3rd right interspace close to the sternum
Early diastolic decrescendo murmur heart best along the upper left side of the sternum
Late diastolic decrescendo murmur heard best along the lower left side of the sternum
Pansystolic mumur best heard at the apex and often radiates to the left axilla
Late systolic murmur usually preceded by a mid-systolic click
Mitral valve prolapse
Crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur best heard in the 2nd-3rd left interspaces close to the sternum
Pansystolic mumur best heard along the left lower sternal border and generally radiates to the right lower sternal border
Tricuspid regurgitation or VSD
Rumbling late diastolic murmur with an opening snap, heard loudest in the 5th interspace in the midaxillary line
Continous machine-like murmur
High-pitched diastolic murmur associated with a widened pulse pressure
A gardener with diarrhea, miosis, urination and bradycardia. What do they have? What is the mechanism of action?
Organophosphate poisoning. Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase --> excess cholinergic stimulation of the muscarinic receptors
What is the mechanism of N-acetyl cysteine when given as an antidote for acetaminophen overdose?
It regenerates glutathione.
Which phase of the myocardial action potential causes myocardial contraction?
Phase 2; when there is Calcium influx through voltage gated Ca channels balancing K efflux
a. Which phase of the pacemaker action potential is responsible for the upstroke?
b. Which ion is responsible?
a. Phase 0 is the upstroke from opening of
b. voltage gated Calcium channels
Which ion accounts for automaticity of SA and AV pacemaker action potential?
Slow spontaneous diastolic depolarization as Na conductance increases; when it reaches a threshold the voltage gated Calcium channels open
Which phase of the pacemaker action potential determines the heart rate?
Phase 4 (when Na conductance is increasing) in the SA node determines HR
What are the four important pharmacokinetic equations?
1. volume of distribution
3. loading dose
4. maintenance dose
What G protein class does each receptor stimulate:
a. alpha 1
b. alpha 2
c. beta 1
d. beta 2
a. alpha 1 - Gq
b. alpha 2 - Gi
c. beta 1 - Gs
d. beta 2 - Gs
e. M1 - Gq
f. M2 - Gi
g. M3 - Gq
What enzyme is inhibited by the drug Fomepizole
Alcohol dehydrogenase; antidote for methanol or ethylene glycol poisoning
How do ALL Class I anti-arrhythmias works?
Decrease slope of phase 0 (Na influx, rapid depolarization)
What are the:
a. class IA anti-arrhythmics
b. class IB anti-arrhythmics
c. class IC anti-arrhythmics
and what is their effect?
a. Disopyramide, Quinidine, Procainamide (double quarter pounder) increase AP duration and increase ERP and decrease slope of phase 0
b. Mexiletine, Lidocaine (mayo, lettuce, tomato) decrease AP duration and decrease slope of phase 0
c. Flecainide, Propafenone (fries please) prolongs ERP in AV node but no effect on ERP in purkinje and ventricular tissue, decreases slope of phase 0 depolarization
What is the mechanism and time frame of acute transplant rejection?
Cytotoxic T cells react to MHC
Weeks following transplant
Patient with GI bleeding has buccal pigmentation
Which immunosuppressant matches each of the following statements?
a. precursor of 6-mercaptopurine
b. Ab that binds CD3 on T cells
c. Ab that binds IL2 on activated T cells
d. inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase
e. inhibits calcineurin --> loss of IL2 production --> blockage of T cell differentiation and activation
f. metabolized by Xanthine Oxidase - increasing Allopurinol toxicity
d. Myocphenolate mofetil
What are the five 2's of Meckel's diverticulum?
First 2 years of life
Within 2 feet of ileocecal valve
2 inches in size
2 percent of population
2 possible types of tissue - pancreatic and gastric epithelium
What is treatment for ZE?
High dose PPIs
Sporadic gastrinoma - surgical resection
Metastatic gastrinoma - Octreotide
Transplant patient is on Cyclosporine; needs to take an anti-fungal for Candida infection. Which would cause Cyclosporine toxicity?
What is hyper pigmented skin finding on face during pregnancy?
Woman breast feeding develops red mass over breast. What is diagnosis?
Mastitis - caused by Staph aureus.
What muscles and nerves are derived from 4th and 6th branchial arches?
a. Cricothyroid, Levator veli palatini
b. Branches of recurrent laryngeal and superior laryngeal (vagus branches)
What heart defect is associated with the following:
a. 22q11 deletion
b. congenital rubella
c. Turner's syndrome
d. Marfan syndrome
a. truncus arteriosus, tetralogy of ballot
b. PDA or pulmonary artery stenosis
c. coarctation of the aorta and bicuspid aortic valve
d. aortic insufficiency
Which organisms do not take gram stain?
Mycobacterium (high lipid content)
Mycoplasma (no cell wall)
What is cause of Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy
X linked recessive
Deletion of Dystrophin gene
Cimetidine - CYP inhibitor or inducer?
Macrolides - CYP inhibitor or inducer?
Azole antifungals - CYP inhibitor or inducer?
Isoniazid - CYP inhibitor or inducer?
Sulfonamides - CYP inhibitor or inducer?
Grapefruit juice - CYP inhibitor or inducer?
Protease inhibitors - CYP inhibitor or inducer?
Ciprofloxacin - CYP inducer or inhibitor?
Barbiturates - CYP inhibitor or inducer?
Quinidine - CYP inducer or inhibitor?
Rifampin - CYP inducer or inhibitor?
Phenytoin - CYP inducer or inhibitor?
Griseofulvin - CYP inducer or inhibitor?
Carbamazepin - CYP inducer or inhibitor?
Chronic alcohol use - CYP inducer or inhibitor?
Chronic alcoholics Steal Phen-Phen and Never Refuse Greasy Carbs
St. Johns Wort
How does alkalosis affect calcium levels?
Increased pH increases affinity of albumin to bind Ca --> causes hypocalcemia (cramps, pain, paresthesias, carpopedal spasm)