REM A LVL 1

Question 1

A ___ ∆H corresponds to an
___ process

A. negative, endothermic
B. positive, exothermic
C. negative, exothermic
D. positive, exothermic

Answer 1

C. negative, exothermic

Question 2

A typical carbon atom has six neutrons and six protons in its nucleus. If one of the protons is taken out of the nucleus somehow but no other aspect of the atom changed, which of the following best describes the new atom?

A. it will be a positive carbon ion
B. it will be an atom of different element
C. it will be different isotope of carbon
D. it will be a negative carbon ion

Answer 2

B. it will be an atom of different element

Question 3

Corrosion of iron is retarded by ___

A. high pH conditions
B. the presence of salts
C. both the presence of salts and high pH
conditions
D. the presence of pH

Answer 3

A. high pH conditions

Question 4

A galvanic cell for which the reactants
are continuously supplied

A. Lead Storage
B. Thermophotovoltaic cell
C. Dry Cell
D. Fuel Cell

Answer 4

D. Fuel Cell

Question 5

In a lead-acid battery, the electrodes are
consumed. In this battery,

A. the anode is Pb02.
B. the anode is PbS04.
C. the cathode is PbSO4
D. the cathode is Pb02.
E. the anode is Pb

Answer 5

E. the anode is Pb

Question 6

The gain of electrons by an element is
called ___

A. fractionation
B. reduction
C. oxidation

Answer 6

B. reduction

Question 7

The energy released by combustion of 1
g of a substance is called the ___
of the substance.

A. fuel value
B. nutritional calorie content
C. heat capacity

Answer 7

A. fuel value

Question 8

“When the elements are arranged in the
order of increasing atomic number,
elements with similar properties appear at periodic intervals.” This statement is known as_

A. The Periodic Law
B. Dalton’s Atomic Theory
C. Law of Definite Proportion
D. Law of Multiple Proportion

Answer 8

A. The Periodic Law

Periodic table’s invention is generaly
credited to Russian Chemist Dmitri
Mendeleev. He arranged the elements
by their increasing atomic mass.

Question 9

When two liquids do not form a solution,
the two liquids are said to be

A. Miscible
B. Immiscible
C. Heterogeneous
D. Miscible

Answer 9

B. Immiscible

When two liquids do not form a solution,the two liquids are said to be like oil and water.

Question 10

Which of the following is an intensive
chemical property of a box of raisins?

A. grams per serving
B. total calories
C. calories per serving
D. grams per serving

Answer 10

C. calories per serving

Chemical Properties - are properties that lead to changes in the identity and composition of a substance.
Examples: combustibility, pH, tendency
to rust, reaction with water, etc.

Intensive Properties - are properties that are independent on the size of the sample involved.
Examples: density, freezing point, color,
melting point, reactivity, luster,
malleability, conductivity, etc.

Question 11

The meteorite ALH84001 contains tiny bubbles of gas trapped in the rock. The chemical composition of the gas in
these bubbles matches the composition
of the Martian atmosphere as
determined by Viking spacecraft in the 1970’s. The meteorite is an example of a/an

A. Binary compound
B. Heterogeneous mixture
C. Element
D. Homogeneous mixture

Answer 11

B. Heterogeneous mixture

Heterogeneous Mixture - mixture that
has distinguishable phases.

Homogenous Mixture - mixture that is uniform in appearance and has only one phase.

Compound - pure chemical substance
consisting of two or more different
elements that can be separated into
simpler substances by chemical means.

Element - chemical substance that is
made up of a unique kind of atoms and
hence it cannot be broken down into
simpler substance. In total, 118
elements have been observed, 94 of
which occur naturally on Earth.

Question 12

In the periodic table, electronegativity

A. increases from top to bottom and
increases from left to right
B. decreases from top to bottom and
decreases from left to right
C. decreases from top to bottom and
increases from left to right

Answer 12

C. decreases from top to bottom and
increases from left to right

(REM A GEAS LVL 1 TABLE)

Question 13

Which of the following is an extensive
property of a bubble of air?

A. Density
B. Radius
C. Percent oxygen
D. Temperature

Answer 13

B. Radius

Extensive Properties - are properties that depend on the size of the sample involved.
Examples: volume, mass, weight, length,
etc.

Question 14

It consist of microscopic particles
dispersed in a solvent. Its particles are larger than the size of a molecule but smaller than particles that can be seen with naked eye.

A. Solution
B. Colloid
C. Suspension
D. None of these choices

Answer 14

B. Colloid

The Tyndall Effect is the effect of light scattering in colloidal dispersion, while showing no light in a true solution. This effect is used to determine whether a mixture is a true solution or a colloid.

Question 15

In the periodic table, the atomic radius
of the elements

A. decreases from top to bottom and
decreases from left to right
B. increases from top to bottom and
increases from left to right
C. increases from top to bottom and
decreases from left to right
D. increases from top to bottom and
increases from left to right

Answer 15

C. increases from top to bottom and
decreases from left to right

(REM A GEAS LVL 1 TABLE)

Question 16

A solid melts gradually between 85°C
and 95°C to give a milky, oily liquid.
When a laser beam shines through the
liquid, the path of the beam is clearly
visible. The milky liquid is likely to be:
A. A compound
B. A heterogeneous mixture
C. Solution
D. Homogeneous mixture

Answer 16

B. A heterogeneous mixture

Heterogeneous Mixture - mixture that
has distinguishable phases.

Compound - pure chemical substance
consisting of two or more different
elements that can be separated into
simpler substances by chemical means.

Element - chemical substance that is
made up of a unique kind of atoms and
hence it cannot be broken down into
simpler substance. In total, 118
elements have been observed, 94 of
which occur naturally on Earth.

Solution - a homogenous mixture
composed of only one phase. Solutions
have particle sizes at the molecule or
ion level.

Question 17

Quantum dots can be used in ___

A. Mechanics
B. Crystallography
C. Optoelectronics

Answer 17

C. Optoelectronics

Question 18

Vesicle is a type of

A. Nanocrystal
B. Supramolecular system
C. Nanoparticle
D. Nanostructure

Answer 18

B. Supramolecular system

Question 19

In this approach, porous membranes of
polymers such as polycarbonates or
ceramics such as alumina are prepared,then placed into a solution of a salt. The metal cation of the salt is reduced
electrochemically and the metal plates
onto the insides of the pores in the
membranes. The membrane in then
removed or dissolved away, leaving the
nanotubes.

A. Vapor-phase synthesis
B. Template synthesis
C. Molecular self-assembly

Answer 19

B. Template synthesis

Question 20

Nano sized polymers built from
branched units are called.

A. Dendrimers
B. Carbon-based materials
C. Composites

Answer 20

A. Dendrimers

Question 21

The four types of Artificial
nanomaterials are_______

A. Carbon-based, non-metallic, composites
and ceramics
B. Carbon-based, metallic, composites
and dendrimers
C. Carbon-based, non-metallic, composites
and dendrimers

Answer 21

B. Carbon-based, metallic, composites
and dendrimers

Question 22

Solution of pure buckminsterfullerene
has a colour of ___

A. Green
B. Pink
C. Purple
D. Yellow

Answer 22

C. Purple

Question 23

The primary detrimental effect of the
presence of large amounts of
biodegradable organic materials in
water is ___

A. it causes oxygen depletion in the water
B. it decomposes endothermically causing the temperature of the water to decrease below the limits within which most aquatic organisms can live
C. it causes death of bottom dwelling
organisms because it agglutinates and settles to the bottom, poisoning bottom dwelling organisms

Answer 23

A. it causes oxygen depletion in the water

Question 24

Ozone is a(n) ___ of oxygen.

A. Isomer
B. resonance structure
C. allotrope
D. isotope

Answer 24

C. allotrope

Question 25

What is/are the product(s) of photodissociation of molecular oxygen? A. ozone B. excited oxygen molecules C. ozone and atomic oxygen D. atomic oxygen

Answer 25

D. atomic oxygen

Question 26

In the past, CFCs were not used in ___ A. dry cleaning B. plastic manufacturing C. refrigerators D. spray cans

Answer 26

A. dry cleaning

Question 27

In the world's oceans, the average salinity is about _____g/kg. A. 17 B. 35 C. 0.1 D. 0.03

Answer 27

B. 35

Question 28

Why are chlorofluorocarbons so damaging to the ozone layer when they are such stable molecules? A. They are greenhouse gases that raise the temperature above the dissociation temperature of ozone. B. They are very light molecules that rapidly diffuse into the upper atmosphere and block the radiation that causes formation of ozone C. The radiation in the stratosphere dissociates them producing chlorine atoms that catalytically destroy ozone.

Answer 28

C. The radiation in the stratosphere dissociates them producing chlorine atoms that catalytically destroy ozone.

Question 29

If the properties of a body are the same in all directions, it is called A. Isotopic B. Isodynamic C. Isogonic D. Isotropic

Answer 29

D. Isotropic

Question 30

How many atom/s is/are there in the unit cell of a simple cubic? A. 6 B. 4 C. 1 D. 2

Answer 30

C. 1

Question 31

What is a combination of two or more materials that has properties that the components material do not have by themselves? A. Mixture B. Matrix C. Composite D. Compound

Answer 31

C. Composite

Question 32

What are considered as the building blocks for engineering materials? A. Atoms B. Elements C. Matters D. Compounds

Answer 32

A. Atoms

Question 33

The materials which have the same elastic properties in all directions are called A. Brittle B. Hard C. Isotropic D. Isogonic

Answer 33

C. Isotropic

Question 34

One of the same elastic properties at all points in the body A. heterogeneous material B. homogenous material C. multistate material D. monostate material

Answer 34

B. homogenous material Homogeneous materials are defined as materials of uniform composition throughout that cannot be mechanically disjointed, in principle, into different materials. Examples of homogeneous materials are polypropylene, steel, shampoo, glass cleaner, nylon yarn, finish, and coating. Heterogeneous materials are a new class of structural materials with remarkable heterogeneity in strength from one component to another with a variety of shape, form, and morphology at different length scales.

Question 35

What is the factor of safety? A. The ratio of stress to strain B. The ratio of ultimate stress to the permissible stress C. The ratio of permissible stress to the ultimate stress

Answer 35

B. The ratio of ultimate stress to the permissible stress Factor of safety is the ratio of ultimate stress to the permissible stress.

Question 36

What is the most common alloying ingredient in copper? A. Aluminum B. Brass C. Nickle D. Zinc

Answer 36

D. Zinc

Question 37

___ occurs due to cyclic application of a stress. It could be due to vibration of thermal cycling A. Flow Stress B. Structural Stress C. Pressure Stress D. Fatigue Stress

Answer 37

D. Fatigue Stress Fatigue limit, endurance limit, and fatigue strength are all expressions used to describe a property of materials: the amplitude (or range) of cyclic stress that can be applied to the material without causing fatigue failure.

Question 38

The modulus of elasticity is also known as A. Yield strength B. Hooke's ratio C. Modulus of rigidity D. Young's modulus

Answer 38

D. Young's modulus Modulus of rigidity Young's Modulus or Tensile Modulus describes the length elasticity of the material. It is a measure of the amount of force needed to produce a unit deformation.

Question 39

When a material is stretched in one direction and the other direction tends to contract, the Poisson's ratio is A. Cannot be determined B. Zero C. Positive D. Negative

Answer 39

C. Positive Poisson's ratio is the ratio of transverse contraction strain to longitudinal extension strain in the direction of stretching force. Tensile deformation is considered positive.

Question 40

The term "bronze" is used to designate any alloy containing: A. copper and zinc B. copper and tin C. copper and aluminum D. copper and nickel

Answer 40

B. copper and tin

Question 41

Which type of atomic bonding is predominantly found in ceramics? A. Metallic bonding. B. lonic bonding. C. Van der Waals bonding. D. Covalent bonding.

Answer 41

B. lonic bonding. Ceramics are often composed of atoms with large differences in electronegativity, leading to the transfer of electrons and the formation of ionic bonds. This type of bonding contributes to the high strength and stability of ceramics. Brief explanations for other choices: Metallic bonding: Metallic bonding is more commonly found in metals, where electrons are delocalized and shared among atoms in a metallic lattice, which is different from the structure of ceramics. Covalent bonding: While covalent bonding can exist in ceramics, it is less common than ionic bonding and is usually found in specific ceramic compositions.

Question 42

What is the primary crystalline structure of ceramics? A. Tetrahedral structure. B. Amorphous structure. C. Hexagonal structure. D. Cubic structure.

Answer 42

D. Cubic structure. The crystalline structure of ceramics is often based on a cubic lattice, where the constituent atoms or ions are arranged in a repeating three-dimensional pattern. Brief explanations for other choices: Amorphous structure: While some ceramics can have an amorphous or non-crystalline structure, the majority have a crystalline structure. Hexagonal structure: Hexagona structures are more commonly found in certain metals and minerals, but they are not the predominant structure of ceramics. Tetrahedral structure: A tetrahedral structure is more characteristic of certain compounds or materials, such as some polymers or certain minerals,rather than ceramics.

Question 43

What mechanical property of a material refers to the resistance to plastic deformation? A. Ductility B. Hardness C. Plasticity

Answer 43

B. Hardness

Question 44

The engineering materials known as plastics are more correctly called A. Polyvinyl chloride B. Mers C. Polymers

Answer 44

C. Polymers

Question 45

Plastic is a ___ substance. A. Organic B. Natural C. Inorganic D. Eco friendly

Answer 45

A. Organic

Question 46

What is a combination of one or more metals with a nonmetallic element? A. Matrix Composite B. Metalloids C. Inert D. Ceramic

Answer 46

D. Ceramic

Question 47

What physical property of material refers to the rate of heat flow per unit time in a homogeneous material under steady state conditions per unit area, unit temperature gradient in a direction perpendicular to the area? A. Water absorption B. Thermal expansion C. Thermal conductivity

Answer 47

C. Thermal conductivity

Question 48

What is the most widely used dielectric material in the electrical and electronics industry? A. Plastic B. Polymer C. Rubber D. All of these choices

Answer 48

A. Plastic

Question 49

Which of the following materials have very high permeability? A. Non-magnetic materials B. Paramagnetic materials C. Ferromagnetic materials

Answer 49

C. Ferromagnetic materials

Question 50

What physical property of a material that refers to the point at which a material liquefies on heating or solidifies on cooling? A. Curie point B. Specific heat C. Refractive index D. Melting point

Answer 50

D. Melting point

Question 51

What physical property of a material refers to the highest potential difference that an insulating material of a given thickness can withstand for a specified time without occurrence of electrical breakdown through its bulk? A. Electric Resistivity B. Dielectric Strength C. Conductivity D. Thermal expansion

Answer 51

B. Dielectric Strength

Question 52

Which of the following is non-luminous? A. Moon B. Sun C. Star D. All of these choices

Answer 52

A. Moon

Question 53

Sugar is a form of A. Fat B. Water C. Carbohydrate D. Protein

Answer 53

C. Carbohydrate

Question 54

Into how many types, the water carriage system is divided? A. 4 B. 3 C. 2 D. 5

Answer 54

B. 3

Question 55

The salinization can be defined as A. Accumulation of salts in animals B. Accumulation of salts in the soil C. Accumulation of salts in water D. Accumulation of salts in the body

Answer 55

B. Accumulation of salts in the soil

Question 56

Environment is the life support system that includes A. Land B. Water C. All of these choices D. Air

Answer 56

C. All of these choices

Question 57

The set of ecosystems is called A. Biome B. Hydrosphere C. None of these choices D. Atmosphere

Answer 57

A. Biome

Question 58

Which of the following statements define Environmental Engineering? A. Waste disposal B. Pollution control of various kinds C. All of these choices

Answer 58

C. All of these choices

Question 59

How much percentage of nitrogen consist in Earth's Atmosphere? A. 25% B. 78% C. 92%

Answer 59

B. 78%

Question 60

What is hibernation? A. All of these choices B. Adaptation of animals to escape from predators C. Winter sleep D. Summer sleep

Answer 60

C. Winter sleep

Question 61

Which of the following is the coldest planet of the solar system? A. Neptune B. Jupiter C. Mercury D. Venus

Answer 61

A. Neptune

Question 62

A herbivore is also known as a A. Third order consumer B. Second order consumer. C. First order consumer

Answer 62

C. First order consumer

Question 63

In an ecosystem, bacteria are the A. Decomposers B. Secondary consumers C. Producers

Answer 63

A. Decomposers

Question 64

Which of the following is the example of primary pollutants? A. Carbon monoxide B. Hydrocarbons C. All of these D. Carbon monoxide

Answer 64

C. All of these

Question 65

Which of the following is not influenced by human activities? A. Depletion of ground water B. Increased extinction rate of species C. None of these choices D. Destruction of mangroves and wetlands

Answer 65

C. None of these choices

Question 66

Which of the following is the disease caused by bacterial infections? A. Infectious hepatitis B. Typhoid fever C. Poliomyelitis

Answer 66

B. Typhoid fever

Question 67

How many types of air pollutants are there? A. 2 types B. 3 types C. None of these choices D. 6 types

Answer 67

A. 2 types

Question 68

Which of the following is/are types of pollution that affect the environment? A. Land pollution B. All of these choices C. Water pollution D. Air pollution

Answer 68

B. All of these choices

Question 69

Loss of forest has led to A. Erosion of fertile soil B. All of these choices C. Global warming

Answer 69

B. All of these choices

Question 70

_____ defines how we should study and protect the ecosystem, air quality, integrity, and sustainability of our resources. A. Social development B. Environmental protection C. Economic development

Answer 70

B. Environmental protection

Question 71

What is green energy? A. It is the energy that is produced to reduce pollution B. It is the energy that is produced in such a way that it reduces coal consumption C. It is the energy that is produced in such a way as to minimize its negative impact on the environment

Answer 71

C. It is the energy that is produced in such a way as to minimize its negative impact on the environment

Question 72

Which of the following is a type of non- renewable resource? A. Nuclear energy B. Geothermal energy C. Hydrogen and fuel cells D. Solar energy

Answer 72

A. Nuclear energy

Question 73

Which of the following is energy relies on the nuclear fusion power from the core of the sun? A. Geothermal energy B. Hydroelectric energy C. Hydrogen and fuel cells D. Solar energy

Answer 73

D. Solar energy

Question 74

What would you do to prevent environmental damage? A. Control pollution B. Halt deforestation C. Plant trees D. All of these choices

Answer 74

D. All of these choices

Question 75

What do you mean by consumerism? A. None of these choices B. Consumerism refers to the consumption of non-renewable resources by the people. C. Consumerism refers to the consumption of resources by the people. D. Consumerism refers to the consumption of renewable resources by the people.

Answer 75

C. Consumerism refers to the consumption of resources by the people.

Question 76

____ is the process of overgrowth of plants and algae in lakes. A. Reproduction B. Eutrophication C. Transpiration D. Photosynthesis

Answer 76

B. Eutrophication

Question 77

Which of the following is not commonly used as a filter material in the treatment of water? A. Crushed rock B. Anthracite C. Sand

Answer 77

A. Crushed rock

Question 78

Which process of water treatment is done to avoid floating debris, branches,trees, or other large particles suspended in water? A. Secondary sedimentation B. Screening C. Primary sedimentation D. Aeration

Answer 78

B. Screening

Question 79

___ these are not strictly renewable energy resources but are very abundant in availability and are very low in pollution. A. Geothermal energy B. Hydrogen and fuel cells C. Hydroelectric energy

Answer 79

B. Hydrogen and fuel cells

Question 80

Which of the following is biodegradable waste? A. Synthetic fiber B. Food waste C. Polythene bags D. Cans

Answer 80

B. Food waste

Question 81

In which type of aerator, the flow of water is divided into fine streams and small droplets? A. Inclined apron aerator B. Cascade aerator C. Gravel bed aerator

Answer 81

B. Cascade aerator

Question 82

A type of bond where in the security is in sum's form of recognized commercial papers of a well established subsidiary. A. callable bond B. collateral bond C. subsidiary bond

Answer 82

B. collateral bond

Question 83

What is the opposite of perfect competition? A. Monopoly B. Oligopoly C. Oligopsony D. Monopsony

Answer 83

A. Monopoly Monopoly is the opposite of perfect competition. There exists a perfect monopoly if the single vendor can prevent the entry of all other vendors into the market. The monopolist is in the position to set the market price.

Question 84

What is the term for an annuity with a fixed time span? A. Annuity certain B. Annuity due C. Perpetuity

Answer 84

A. Annuity certain Classification of Annuity Based on Duration Annuity Certain - an annuity where the payments are made for a fixed (deterministic) period of time. If the length of time is deterministic and infinite, the annuity is called a perpetuity. Contingent Annuity - an annuity in which the payments extend over indefinite (or indeterminate) length of time.

Question 85

In Engineering Economy, what do you call the method of repaying a debt, the principal and interest included, usually by a series of equal payments at periodic intervals of time? A. Deflation B. Deflation C. Annuity D. Amortization

Answer 85

D. Amortization

Question 86

Which of the following is a method of calculating periodic depreciation that involves the determining at regular (as annual) intervals throughout the expected life of an asset of equal percentage amounts of a cost balance which is progressively decreased by subtraction of each prior increment of depreciation from the original cost of the asset? A. Sum-of-digits Method B. Declining Balance C. Straight-line

Answer 86

B. Declining Balance

Question 87

A cost that is incurred because of the use of limited resources, such that the opportunity to use those resources to monetary advantage in an alternative use is foregone. A. Sunk cost B. Life cycle cost C. Opportunity cost

Answer 87

C. Opportunity cost

Question 88

The decision-making process under certainty involves: A. Gathering information about future outcomes. B. Comparing known costs and benefits. C. Making choices based on intuition.

Answer 88

B. Comparing known costs and benefits. In decisions under certainty, the decision-maker compares the known costs and benefits associated with each alternative. Since all future outcomes are known, the decision is made by selecting the alternative that offers the highest net benefit or utility. Brief explanations for other choices: Assessing risks and uncertainties: This is not necessary in decisions under certainty, as there are no risks or uncertainties. Gathering information about future outcomes: In decisions under certainty all future outcomes are already known,so there is no need to gather additional information. Making choices based on intuition: Decisions under certainty are not based on intuition but on objective analysis of known outcomes.

Question 89

The primary objective in decisions under certainty is to: A. Randomly select an alternative. B. Ignore costs and benefits. C. Minimize uncertainty. D. Maximize profit.

Answer 89

D. Maximize profit. In decisions under certainty, the primary objective is to maximize profit or achieve the best possible outcome based on the perfect knowledge of future outcomes. The decision-maker can calculate and compare the expected profits for each alternative. Brief explanations for other choices: Minimize uncertainty: Decisions under certainty do not involve uncertainty, as all future outcomes are known. Randomly select an alternative: Decisions under certainty are not made randomly but are based on analyzing known outcomes. Ignore costs and benefits: Costs and benefits are considered in decisions under certainty, as they are known with certainty.

Question 90

In decisions under certainty, the decision-maker: A. Has perfect knowledge of future outcomes. B. Makes decisions without considering costs. C. Makes decisions with considering the costs.

Answer 90

A. Has perfect knowledge of future outcomes. In decisions under certainty, the decision-maker has complete and accurate information about all future outcomes and associated costs, benefits, and probabilities. This allows for a straightforward analysis and selection of the best alternative. Brief explanations for other choices: Faces uncertainty and risk: This is not true for decisions under certainty. Uncertainty and risk are present in decisions under uncertainty or risk. Makes decisions without considering costs: Costs are considered in decisions under certainty, as all future outcomes and their associated costs are known. Randomly selects a decision alternative: Decisions under certainty are not made randomly. They are based on perfect knowledge of future outcomes.

Question 91

Which technique is commonly used in decisions recognizing risk to assess the potential impact of varying inputs on the decision outcomes? A. Payback period analysis. B. Break-even analysis. C. Decision tree analysis. D. Sensitivity analysis.

Answer 91

D. Sensitivity analysis. Sensitivity analysis is commonly used in decisions recognizing risk to assess the potential impact of varying inputs or factors on the decision outcomes. It helps identify which variables have the most significant influence on the outcomes and allows decision-makers to analyze different scenarios and their effects on the decision. Brief explanations for other choices: Payback period analysis: Payback period analysis determines the time required to recover the initial investment and is not specific to assessing the impact of varying inputs. Break-even analysis: Break-even analysis determines the point at which revenues equal costs and is not specific to assessing the impact of varying inputs.

Question 92

In decisions recognizing risk, the decision-maker aims to: A. Eliminate all uncertainties B. Quantify and manage the uncertainties. C. Minimize the potential impact of uncertainties. D. Assign probabilities to unknown outcomes.

Answer 92

B. Quantify and manage the uncertainties. In decisions recognizing risk, the decision-maker aims to quantify and manage the uncertainties associated with future outcomes. Rather than eliminating uncertainties, the focus is on understanding the potential impact of uncertainties and making informed decisions based on that understanding Brief explanations for other choices: Eliminate all uncertainties: It is not feasible to eliminate all uncertainties in decisions recognizing risk; the goal is to manage them. Assign probabilities to unknown outcomes: Assigning probabilities is characteristic of decisions recognizing risk, but it does not eliminate uncertainties. Minimize the potential impact of uncertainties: Minimizing the potential impact of uncertainties is one aspect of managing uncertainties, but quantifying and analyzing them is also crucial.

Question 93

In decisions admitting uncertainty, the focus is primarily on: A. Making decisions based on available information. B. Quantifying and analyzing uncertainties C. Conducting extensive market research. D. Assigning probabilities to future outcomes.

Answer 93

A. Making decisions based on available information In decisions admitting uncertainty, the focus is primarily on making decisions based on available information, without attempting to quantify or analyze uncertainties. The decision-maker acknowledges that some factors or outcomes are unknown or unpredictable and relies on qualitative assessments or available information to make informed decisions. Brief explanations for other choices: Quantifying and analyzing uncertainties: This is the primary focus of decisions recognizing risk, not decisions admitting uncertainty. Assigning probabilities to future outcomes: Assigning probabilities is characteristic of decisions recognizing risk, where quantitative techniques are used to assess uncertainties.

Question 94

Which technique is commonly used in decisions recognizing risk to model probabilistic outcomes and assess the range of possible outcomes? A. Sensitivity analysis. B. Break-even analysis. C. Monte Carlo simulation.

Answer 94

C. Monte Carlo simulation. Monte Carlo simulation is commonly used in decisions recognizing risk to model probabilistic outcomes and assess the range of possible outcomes It involves generating random samples based on probability distributions for uncertain variables and simulating the decision outcomes multiple times to provide a probabilistic view of the results. Brief explanations for other choices: Break-even analysis: Break-even analysis determines the point at which revenues equal costs and does not model probabilistic outcomes. Sensitivity analysis: Sensitivity analysis assesses the impact of varying inputs on decision outcomes but does not explicitly model probabilistic outcomes Decision tree analysis: Decision tree analysis represents decision alternatives and potential outcomes but does not model probabilistic outcomes.

Question 95

What is the primary difference between decisions recognizing risk and decisions admitting uncertainty in Engineering Economics? A. The level of complexity involved in the decision-making process. B. The use of quantitative techniques to assess uncertainties. C. The consideration of past historical data. D. The level of unknown factors in future outcomes.

Answer 95

B. The use of quantitative techniques to assess uncertainties. The primary difference between decisions recognizing risk and decisions admitting uncertainty is the use of quantitative techniques to assess uncertainties. In decisions recognizing risk, quantitative techniques such as probability analysis and risk assessment are utilized to quantify and analyze the uncertainties associated with future outcomes. Decisions admitting uncertainty, on the other hand,do not attempt to assign probabilities or quantify uncertainties. Brief explanations for other choices: The level of complexity involved in the decision-making process: The level of complexity can vary in both decisions recognizing risk and decisions admitting uncertainty, but it is not the primary differentiating factor. The consideration of past historical data: Past historical data may be considered in both types of decisions,but it is not the primary differentiating factor. The level of unknown factors in future outcomes: Both decisions recognize the presence of unknown factors in future outcomes; however, the key difference lies in the quantification and analysis of uncertainties.