REM A LVL 3 Flashcards

(77 cards)

1
Q

It explains combustion as a result of
loss of a substance.

A. Reduction
B. Phlogiston
C. Roasting
D. Roasting

A

B. Phlogiston

The phlogiston theory is a superseded
scientific theory that postulated the
existence of a fire-like element called
phlogiston contained within
combustible bodies and released during
combustion.

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2
Q

What refers to the amount of heat
released by one mole of a substance
when it changes from liquid to solid?

A. Molar heat of vaporization
B. Molar heat of fission
C. Molar heat of solidification
D. Molar heat of fusion

A

D. Molar heat of fusion

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3
Q

What refers to the amount of heat
required by one mole of a substance to
change from liquid to gas?

A. Molar heat of vaporization
B. Molar heat fusion
C. Molar heat of fission
D. Molar heat of solidification

A

A. Molar heat of vaporization

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4
Q

The best arrangement of a given
number of shared and unshared
electrons is the one that minimizes the repulsion among them?. This is known as

A. molecular polarity theory
B. valence bond theory
C. valence-shell electron-pair repulsion theory

A

C. valence-shell electron-pair repulsion theory

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5
Q

What is the distance between the nuclei
of two bonded atoms called?

A. Atomic distance
B. Molecular length
C. Bond length
D. Atomic radius

A

C. Bond length

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6
Q

What principle states that no two
electrons in the same atom can have
the same set of four quantum numbers?

A. Kinetic molecular theory
B. Pauli exclusion principle
C. Autbau principle
D. Uncertainty principle

A

B. Pauli exclusion principle

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7
Q

What principle states that the electrons
fill the orbitals, one at a time, starting
with the lowest orbital then proceeding
to the one with higher energy?

A. Uncertainty principle
B. Kinetic molecular theory
C. Aufbau principle
D. Pauli exclusion principle

A

C. Aufbau principle

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8
Q

Which of the following is an example of
Bottom Up approach?

A. Etching
B. Milling
C. Attrition
D. Colloidal dispersion

A

D. Colloidal dispersion

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9
Q

__states that in the addition of
polar reagents to alkenes, the positive
portion of the reagents adds to the
carbon atom in the double bond that
already has the most hydrogen atoms.

A. Le Chatelier’s principle
B. Lock-and-key theory
C. Markovnikou’s rule

A

C. Markovnikou’s rule

Markovnikov’s rule states that in an
addition reaction of a protic acid HX
(hydrogen chloride, hydrogen bromide,
or hydrogen iodide) to an alkene or
alkyne, the hydrogen atom of HX
becomes bonded to the carbon atom
that had the greatest number of
hydrogen atoms in the starting alkene or
alkyne.

Le Chatelier’s principle (also known as
“Chatelier’s principle” or “The
Equilibrium Law”) states that when a
system experiences a disturbance (such
as concentration, temperature, or
pressure changes), it will respond to
restore a new equilibrium state.

Pauli’s Exclusion Principle states that no two electrons in the same atom can have identical values for all four of their quantum numbers.

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10
Q

It is tiny cylinders only a few
nanometers in diameter that are
constructed of rolled sheets of a
graphite-like array of atoms. Carbon and
boron nitride are the most extensively
studied.

A. Nanotubes
B. Quantum Dots
C. Nanocrystal
D. Nanosheets

A

A. Nanotubes

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11
Q

What refers to the forces of attraction
that exist between molecules in a
compound?

A. Induction forces
B. Interaction forces
C. Dispersion forces
D. Intermolecular forces

A

D. Intermolecular forces

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12
Q

The four types of Artificial
nanomaterials are_
A. Carbon-based, metallic, composites
and dendrimers
B. Carbon-based, metallic, composites and
ceramics
C. Carbon-based, non-metallic, composites
and ceramics

A

A. Carbon-based, metallic, composites
and dendrimers

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13
Q

Particles of ZrO2, Y202 and Nano
whiskers have been produced by

A. Sol-gel
B. CVC
C. Plasma spraying
D. Laser pyrolysis

A

B. CVC

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14
Q

In this approach, porous membranes of
polymers such as polycarbonates or
ceramics such as alumina are prepared,then placed into a solution of a salt. The metal cation of the salt is reduced
electrochemically and the metal plates
onto the insides of the pores in the
membranes. The membrane in then
removed or dissolved away, leaving the
nanotubes.

A. Vapor-phase synthesis
B. Molecular beam epitaxy
C. Molecular self-assembly

A

A. Vapor-phase synthesis

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15
Q

Why are chlorofluorocarbons so
damaging to the ozone layer when they
are such stable molecules?

A. They contain a double bond that ozone
readily attacks, resulting in the destruction
of the ozone.
B. The radiation in the stratosphere
dissociates them producing chlorine
atoms that catalytically destroy ozone.
C. They are greenhouse gases that raise the
temperature above the dissociation
temperature of ozone.
D. They are very light molecules that rapidly
diffuse into the upper atmosphere and
block the radiation that causes formation
of ozone

A

B. The radiation in the stratosphere
dissociates them producing chlorine
atoms that catalytically destroy ozone.

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16
Q

Why does ozone not form in high
concentrations in the atmosphere above
50 km?

A. Light of the required wavelength is not
available at those altitudes.
B. Insufficient molecules exist for removal
of excess energy from ozone upon its
formation.
C. Atomic oxygen concentration is too low at
high altitudes.
D. Insufficient oxygen is available.

A

B. Insufficient molecules exist for removal
of excess energy from ozone upon its
formation.

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17
Q

A diatomic quantum mechanical rotator in the L = 1 quantum state has energy E.The same rotator in the L = 2 quantum
state will have energy

A. 2E.
B. 3E.
C. 6E.

A

B. 3E.

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18
Q

Why does the upper atmosphere contain only very little dissociated nitrogen?

A. most of the nitrogen is in the troposphere
and not in the upper atmosphere
B. the bond energy of nitrogen is very high
and it does not absorb radiation very
efficiently
C. nitrogen atoms are extremely reactive and
so react with other substances
immediately upon their formation
D. the dissociated nitrogen very rapidly
diffuses out of the atmosphere and into
space

A

B. the bond energy of nitrogen is very high
and it does not absorb radiation very
efficiently

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19
Q

The primary detrimental effect of the
presence of large amounts of
biodegradable organic materials in
water is

A. it causes death of bottom dwelling
organisms because it agglutinates and settles to the bottom, poisoning bottom dwelling organisms
B. it causes oxygen depletion in the water
C. it rises to the surface and absorbs
wavelengths needed by aquatic plants
D. it decomposes endothermically causing the temperature of the water to decrease
below the limits within which most aquatic
organisms can live

A

B. it causes oxygen depletion in the water

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20
Q

In its lowest quantum state, the energy
of a diatomic harmonic oscillator is

A. (1/4)hf.
B. (3/2)hf.
C. (1/2)hf.

A

C. (1/2)hf.

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21
Q

One of having the same elastic
properties in all directions at any one
point of the body

A. Isotropic
B. Anisotropic
C. Monotropic

A

A. Isotropic

Isotropic materials have identical
material properties in all directions at
every given point. This means that when a specific load is applied at any point in the x, y or z-axis, isotropic materials will exhibit the same strength, stress, strain,young’s modulus and hardness.

Anisotropic materials, also known as
“triclinic” materials, are direction-
dependent mediums that are made up of unsymmetrical crystalline structures.In other words, the mechanical
properties of anisotropic materials
depend on the orientation of the
material’s body.

Orthotropic materials are a subset of anisotropic materials; their properties depend on the direction in which they are measured. Orthotropic materials have three planes/axes of symmetry.

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22
Q

The overall shape of a molecule is
described by which two properties?

A. Bond distance and bond angle
B. Bond angle and bond size
C. Bond radius and bond angle

A

A. Bond distance and bond angle

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23
Q

The property of some crystals of
absorbing light difference extents,
thereby giving to the crystals different colors according to the direction of the incident light is known as

A. diastrophism
B. chromaticity
C. Dichroism

A

C. Dichroism

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24
Q

In screw dislocation, the Burger’s vector
lies _to the dislocation line.

A. Parallel
B. At an angle
C. Sideways
D. Perpendicular

A

A. Parallel

The Burger’s vector in screw dislocation lies parallel to the dislocation line along the axis of a line of atoms in the same plane. On the other hand, it lies at an angle for edge dislocation.

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25
Material that does not possess any kind of elastic symmetry A. Isotropic B. Monotropic C. Orthotropic D. Anisotropic
D. Anisotropic Isotropic materials have identical material properties in all directions at every given point. This means that when a specific load is applied at any point in the x, y or z-axis, isotropic materials will exhibit the same strength, stress, strain,young's modulus and hardness. Anisotropic materials, also known as "triclinic" materials, are direction- dependent mediums that are made up of unsymmetrical crystalline structures.In other words, the mechanical properties of anisotropic materials depend on the orientation of the material's body. Orthotropic materials are a subset of anisotropic materials; their properties depend on the direction in which they are measured. Orthotropic materials have three planes/axes of symmetry.
26
Some polymetric materials such as epoxies are formed by strong primary chemical bonds called_. A. Metallic bond B. Covalent bond C. Cross linking
C. Cross linking
27
What is the result of full annealing of hypoeutectoid steels? A. Coarse pearlite B. Bainite C. Cementite
A. Coarse pearlite Hypoeutectoid steels are heated above the A3 line and then cooled in the furnace. Then it removed from the furnace and then cooled at room temperature. This results in coarse pearlite with excess ferrite.
28
Which steels are generally used for making connecting rods and gear shafts? A. High carbon steels B. Stainless steels C. Medium carbon steels D. Low carbon steels
C. Medium carbon steels Connecting rods and gear shafts are commonly made using medium carbon steels containing 0.35% to 0.45% carbon. They possess a tensile strength of 750 N/mm2. This gives the required strength and hardness to the parts.
29
Some structural members subjected to long time sustained loads deform progressively with time especially at elevated temperatures. What is such a phenomenon called? A. Fatigue B. Creep relaxation C. Creep
C. Creep Creep is the deformation progressively with time. It comes when the body is subjected to long time load. After the instant deflection due to load the deformation occurs slowly with time.
30
What is a structural member supported horizontally and carries transverse loading? A. Beam B. Column C. Arch
A. Beam A beam is a horizontal structural element which withstands vertical loads. Its mode of deflection is primarily by bending. Column is a vertical structural member that carries loads mainly in compression. Columns are frequently used to support beams or arches on which the upper parts of walls or ceilings rest. A shaft is a rotating machine element,usually circular in cross section, which is used to transmit power from one part to another, or from a machine which produces power to a machine which absorbs power.
31
What mechanical property of a material which is a time-dependent permanent strain under stress? A. Elasticity B. Rupture C. Elongation D. Creep
D. Creep Creep (sometimes called cold flow) is the tendency of a solid material to move slowly or deform permanently under the influence of persistent mechanical stresses. Creep is a mechanical property of a material which is a time- dependent permanent strain under stress. Elongation is a measure of deformation that occurs before a material eventually breaks when subjected to a tensile load. Elasticity is the ability of a body to resist a distorting influence and to return to its original size and shape when that influence or force is removed. Rupture is the sudden and complete failure of a material under stress.
32
What dimensional property refers to the direction of a predominating surface pattern? A. Out of flat B. Camber C. Roughness D. Lay
D. Lay
33
Which of the following polymer additive is used to remove parts from molds? A. Reinforcements B. Lubricants C. Plasticizers D. Stabilizers
B. Lubricants Lubricants are used to remove parts from molds, make surfaces slippery, and prevent them from sticking to each other. They are also known as slip agents. Common lubricant additives are silicone, waxes, fatty acid amides, glycerides, petrolatum etc.
34
Which of the following is true for the resultant polymer product formed, when molecules of pthalic acid react with molecules of glycerol? A. None of these choices B. Cross-link polymer C. Linear polymer D. Branch polymer
B. Cross-link polymer
35
Which of the following have a greater impact on longitudinal strength of reinforced composites? A. Fiber strength B. Fiber length C. Fiber diameter D. Fiber orientation
A. Fiber strength
36
What do you call metals reinforced by ceramics or other materials, usually in fiber form? A. Metal lattices B. Metalloids C. Metal Matrix composites
C. Metal Matrix composites
37
Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched? A. Orthotropic material: different properties in three perpendicular directions B. Strain hardening material: stiffening effect felt at some stage C. Visco-elastic: small plastic zone D. Isotropic material: same physical property in all directions at a point
C. Visco-elastic: small plastic zone Visco-elastic material exhibit a mixture of creep and elastic after effects at room temperature. Thus their behavior is time dependent. Materials with different properties in different directions are called anisotropic. Orthotropic material is a special case of an anisotropic material in three mutually perpendicular directions. However, these are symmetric about any axis.
38
What effect do thermal variations in volume have on a body? A. Cracking B. Contraction C. Phase transformation
A. Cracking Cracking is the effect of thermal variation in the volume of a body.Expansion, contraction, and phase transformation are the ways in which these volume changes occur, i.e. they are causes, and not effects.
39
Which of the following is a characteristic of asbestos minerals? A. Poor bonding B. Heat resistance C. Reacts with acids
B. Heat resistance
40
Which material is used for Schottky barrier diodes, light-emitting diodes,Gunn diodes and injection lasers? A. Silicon Carbide B. Gallian Phosphide C. Gallium Arsenide D. Selenium
C. Gallium Arsenide
41
When a body is resistant to heat, it is called A. Thermotropic B. Thermoscopic C. Thermoduric
C. Thermoduric
42
If in a population, natality is balanced by mortality, then there will be A. Increase in population growth B. Over population C. Decrease in population growth D. Zero population growth
D. Zero population growth
43
The species restricted to be present in one region are called A. Endangered species B. Edge species C. Endemic species
C. Endemic species
44
Which of the ecological pyramid is always upright A. Pyramid of numbers B. Pyramid of biomass C. Pyramid of energy
C. Pyramid of energy
45
Which of the following can act as a pioneer species in a xerach succession A. Animals B. Lichens C. Humans D. Herbs
B. Lichens
46
Which are the two forces balanced by the geostrophic wind? A. Coriolis effect and pressure gradient force B. Frictional force and pressure gradient force C. Coriolis force and centrifugal force D. Pressure gradient force and centrifugal force
A. Coriolis effect and pressure gradient force Geostrophic winds are those winds which blow parallel to isobars when the both the Coriolis force and pressure gradient force are balanced.
47
The stability of the stratosphere is due to which of the following reasons? A. Absorption of solar energy by ozone layer B. Pressure is minimal C. Strong wind currents
A. Absorption of solar energy by ozone layer The ozone layer in the stratosphere absorbs radiations (mainly UV) coming from the sun. This energy is the key to stratospheric stability.
48
In which zone, decomposition of the dead organism takes place? A. Benthic zone B. Littoral zone C. Euphotic zone
A. Benthic zone In Benthic zone, the dead organism settled down where their decomposition takes place by the bacteria.
49
Which of the following statement is wrong regarding permanent hardness? A. It is due to the presence of sulfates, chlorides and nitrates of calcium and magnesium B. It requires special methods of water softening to get removed C. It is also called carbonate hardness D. It cannot be removed by boiling
C. It is also called carbonate hardness Permanent hardness is called non- carbonate hardness whereas temporary hardness is called carbonate hardness.
50
Which is not a feature of heliophyte among the following? A. Stem with long internodes B. Vigorous fruiting and flowering C. Numerous rootlets D. Long lateral roots
A. Stem with long internodes Heliophytes are heat resistant plants They are adapted to an environment with high levels of insolation. Coarse,small leaves with hairy and waxy protection against excessive solar radiation and water loss are unique to the plant. The leaves have a lot of double palisade layers in their structure.
51
Which of the following gases vary significantly over time and place at the atmospheric boundary level? A. Carbon dioxide B. Water vapour C. Oxygen D. Ozone
B. Water vapour Water vapour varies based on time and place at the atmospheric boundary level due to the continuous action of evaporation and condensation near water bodies.
52
What is E-waste? A. All the files which are not used on computers or all over the internet are known as E-waste. B. All junk electronics, television sets,computers, monitors refrigerators,chips, and medical equipment are known as E-waste C. None of these choices
B. All junk electronics, television sets,computers, monitors refrigerators,chips, and medical equipment are known as E-waste All junk electronics, television sets,computers, monitors refrigerators,chips, and medical equipment are known as E-waste.
53
Greenhouse gases which is present in very high quantity is A. Ethane B. Propane C. Carbon dioxide
C. Carbon dioxide
54
What is Photochemical smog? A. Photochemical smog is the mixture of reactants and products that result from the interaction of volatile organic compounds B. Photochemical Smog is a harmful mixture of smoke formed by incomplete combustion of organic material C. Photochemical Smog is liquid particles and droplets formed by the condensation of vapors
A. Photochemical smog is the mixture of reactants and products that result from the interaction of volatile organic compounds Photochemical smog is the mixture of reactants and products that result from the interaction of volatile organic compounds.
55
Which of the following is a source for boron air pollution? A. Rockets and jets B. Soap industries C. Automobiles
A. Rockets and jets Borane is mixed with petroleum and used as a fuel in rockets and jets which when combusted releases boron which causes air pollution.
56
Gas molecules that absorb thermal infrared radiation and are present in large quantity to change the climate system are known as: A. Greenhouse gases B. Alpha radiations C. Beta radiations D. Ozone gases
A. Greenhouse gases
57
In disaster management to eliminate or reduce the probability of occurrence of a disaster or reduce the unavoidable effects of the disaster is known as ___ A. Post-disaster stage B. Emergency stage C. Preparedness D. Mitigation
D. Mitigation In disaster management eliminating or reducing the probability of occurrence of a disaster or reducing the unavoidable effects of the disaster is known as mitigation.
58
Which of the following method is used to control photochemical smog? A. Incineration B. Adsorption C. All of these choices
C. All of these choices Incineration, Absorption, Adsorption,and Condensation are the following method which is used to control photochemical smog.
59
What does the method of "enhanced weathering" infer? A. None of these choices B. It is a method of cloud seeding that is done to reduce the contribution of clouds to greenhouse effect C. It is a method used to spray sulphate aerosols to reduce the greenhouse effect
A. None of these choices Enhanced weathering is a form of geoengineering where minerals are broken down to help remove CO2 from air.
60
CPCB stands for A. Control pollution control board B. Control pollution central board C. Central pollution control board
C. Central pollution control board The Central Pollution Control Board(CPCB) was established in 1974. It provides technical services to the ministry of environment and forests. It promotes the cleanliness of streams and wells in different areas of the states to prevent and control water pollution.
61
What is the principle behind which opacity monitors/transmissometers work? A. Change in capacitance for various gaseous media, between two stationary plates B. Scattering of light transmitted through a gas stream C. Pressure exerted by a fixed volume of gas enclosed in a container of specific dimension
B. Scattering of light transmitted through a gas stream
62
In which process, excess lime is converted into bicarbonate? A. Liming B. Re-carbonation C. Super-chlorination D. Chlorination
D. Chlorination By Re-carbonation of water softened by excess lime treatment, excess lime is converted into bicarbonate.
63
The depth of Euphotic zone is measured by A. Calorimeter B. Turbidity meter C. Radar D. Secchi disk
D. Secchi disk The depth of Euphotic zone is measured by Secchi disk where it is put in the lake and the depth at which the disk becomes invisible is taken as the depth of Euphotic zone.
64
Flocculation of iron from water by the addition of lime is an example of which of the following process? A. Chemical coagulation B. lon exchange C. Chemical precipitation
C. Chemical precipitation Chemical precipitation removes the dissolved substance from water through ion transfer where precipitation of dissolved impurities takes place.
65
In-site in-stack analysers are used for measuring concentrations of which of the following gases? A. All of these choices B. Nitrogen monoxide C. Sulphur dioxide D. Ammonia
A. All of these choices In-site in-stack analysers work on the principle of second derivative spectroscopy to measure concentrations of ammonia, sulphur dioxide and nitrogen monoxide.
66
What is the indicator used in EDTA method? A. Potassium chloride B. Potassium dichromate C. Erio chrome, black T
C. Erio chrome, black T Hardness is determined by using Ethylene diamine tetra-acetic acid using Erio chrome, black T as indicator at a pH between 8.5 and 11.
67
A formal organization of producers within industry forming a perfect collusion purposely formed to increase profit and block new comers from the industry. A. Cartel B. Competitors C. Corporation
A. Cartel
68
What is the reason behind making a provision for depreciation in accounts? A. To purchase new assets B. To show the current value of assets C. To show current liabilities D. To charge the cost of assets against profits
D. To charge the cost of assets against profits
69
In a for-profit company, which of the following statements could be true? A. Profit reserves at the end of the year will be greater than the profits returned at the beginning of the year. B. Profits kept at the end of the year will be greater than shareholders' shares. C. Operating income will be less than annual income.
A. Profit reserves at the end of the year will be greater than the profits returned at the beginning of the year.
70
Which of the following techniques is not commonly used in decisions under certainty? A. Profitability index (PI). B. Internal rate of return (IRR). C. Payback period. D. Net present value (NPV).
C. Payback period. The payback period is a technique commonly used in decisions under uncertainty or risk. It calculates the time required for the cash inflows to equal the initial investment. In decisions under certainty, where future outcomes are known, more comprehensive techniques like IRR, NPV, and Pl are commonly used to evaluate investment alternatives.
71
In a decision under certainty, the net present value (NPV) of an investment project is calculated as the: A. Ratio of the internal rate of return (IRR) to the cost of capital. B. Present value of cash inflows minus the present value of cash outflows. C. Difference between the initial investment and the salvage value.
B. Present value of cash inflows minus the present value of cash outflows. In a decision under certainty, the net present value (NPV) of an investment project is determined by calculating the present value of expected cash inflows and subtracting the present value of expected cash outflows. The NPV represents the value added to the firm's wealth by the investment project.
72
Which decision-making technique involves ranking projects based on their benefits and dividing them by their respective costs to prioritize the most beneficial projects within a given budget constraint A. Benefit-Cost Ratio B. Net Present Value (NPV) C. Payback Period Analysis D. Internal Rate of Return (IRR)
C. Payback Period Analysis
73
In engineering economics, which concept refers to the maximum amount one is willing to pay to obtain an asset or to undertake a project? A. Marginal Cost B. Break-Even Point C. Willingness-to-Pay (WTP)
C. Willingness-to-Pay (WTP)
74
In engineering economics, which decision-making technique considers multiple objectives and uncertainties to generate a range of possible outcomes using a probabilistic approach? A. Regression Analysis B. Sensitivity Analysis C. Decision Tree Analysis D. Regression Analysis
C. Decision Tree Analysis
75
Which of the following is a measure of the dispersion of probability distribution,representing the average deviation of possible outcomes from the expected value? A. Coefficient of Variation B. Payback Period Analysis C. Sensitivity Analysis
A. Coefficient of Variation
76
Which method of evaluating investment decisions recognizes the time value of money by discounting all future cash flows to their present value? A. Payback Period Analysis B. Net Present Value (NPV) C. Internal Rate of Return (IRR)
B. Net Present Value (NPV)
77
Which decision-making criterion uses a cost-benefit analysis to evaluate different alternatives by comparing the present value of benefits to the present value of costs? A. Benefit-Cost Ratio B. Sensitivity Analysis C. Regression Analysis
A. Benefit-Cost Ratio