REM C LVL 3

Question 1

External forces directly affect all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Management structure of organization
B. Market segmentation strategies
C. Types of products/services offered
D. Choice of businesses to acquire or sell

Answer 1

A. Management structure of organization

Question 2

______ are instances when engineer managers make decisions that will have implications in the future.

A. Forecasting
B. Network Models
C. Inventory Models
D. Queuing Theory

Answer 2

A. Forecasting

Question 3

Management must foster the morale of its employees. This principle emphasizes on the need for teamwork and the importance of communication in obtaining it.

A. Equity
B. Order
C. Initiative
D. Esprit de corps

Answer 3

D. Esprit de corps

Question 4

What does PERT stands for?

A. Product Evaluation Review Technique
B. Price Evaluation Review Technique
C. People Evaluation Review Technique
D. Program Evaluation Review Technique

Answer 4

D. Program Evaluation Review Technique

Program Evaluation Review Technique (PERT) is a technique that enables engineer managers to schedule, monitor, and control large and complex projects by employing three time estimates for each activity.

Question 5

A staff specialist’s right to give advice to a superior.

A. Line authority
B. Head authority
C. Functional authority
D. Staff authority

Answer 5

D. Staff authority

Question 6

What is the most widely used chart in management of scheduling and controlling of projects?

A. CPM
B. Gantt Chart
C. Smith Chart
D. PERT

Answer 6

B. Gantt Chart

Question 7

It is determining the scope of work and how it is combined in a job.

A. Division of labor
B. Departmentation
C. Span of control
D. Delegation of authority

Answer 7

A. Division of labor

Division of labor - determining the scope of work and how it is combined in a job

Question 8

The linking of activities in the organization that serves to achieve a common goal or objective.

A. Division of labor
B. Delegation of authority
C. Departmentation
D. Coordination

Answer 8

D. Coordination

Coordination linking of activities in the organization that serves to achieve a common goal or objective

Question 9

What network model enables engineer managers to schedule, monitor, and control large and complex projects by employing three time estimate for each activity?

A. Program Evaluation Review Technique (PERT)
B. Life Cycle Model
C. Critical Path Method (CPM)
D. Forecasting

Answer 9

A. Program Evaluation Review Technique (PERT)

Question 10

To determine a qualified applicant, the engineer manager will subject the applicant to a test that is used to measure a person’s current knowledge of a project?

A. personality test
B. aptitude test
C. interest test
D. performance test

Answer 10

D. performance test

Question 11

The process of assigning various degrees of decision-making authority to subordinate.

A. Departmentation
B. Span of control
C. Delegation of authority
D. Division of labor

Answer 11

C. Delegation of authority

Delegation of authority - process of assigning various degrees of decision-making authority to subordinate

Question 12

A specialist’s right to oversee lower level personnel involved in that specialty, regardless of where the personnel are in the organization.

A. Head authority
B. Staff authority
C. Functional authority
D. Line authority

Answer 12

C. Functional authority

Question 13

It implies an understanding of proficiency in a specific kind of activity, particularly one involving methods, processes, procedures or techniques.

A. Managerial skill
B. Human skill
C. Technical skill
D. Conceptual skill

Answer 13

C. Technical skill

Question 14

_______is an inventory model used for planned shortages.

A. Quantity discount model
B. Economic order quantity model
C. Back order inventory model
D. Production order quantity model

Answer 14

C. Back order inventory model

Back order inventory model - an
inventory model used for planned shortages

Question 15

Which of the following is not a content of the production plan?

A. How much material must be purchased
B. Situational analysis and target market
C. How many employees are required
D. The amount of capacity the company must have

Answer 15

B. Situational analysis and target market

Situational analysis and target market is a content for the marketing plan.

Question 16

Models where large complex tasks are broken into smaller segments that can be managed independently.

A. Queuing Theory
B. Inventory Models
C. Network Models
D. Forecasting

Answer 16

C. Network Models

Question 17

This describes how to determine the number of services units that will minimize both customer waiting time and cost of service.

A. Forecasting
B. Queuing Theory
C. Network Models
D. Inventory Models

Answer 17

B. Queuing Theory

Question 18

FOX Company has a ratio of (total debt/total assets) that is above the industry average, and a ratio of (long term debt/equity) that is below the industry average. These ratios suggest that the firm:

A. utilizes assets effectively
B. has a relatively low dividend payout ratio
C. has too much equity in the capital structure
D. has relatively high current liabilities

Answer 18

D. has relatively high current liabilities

Total debt includes both current and long-term debt; the above relationships could occur only if FOX Company has a higher-than- average level of current liabilities.

Question 19

What is the Unit of Production Method?

A. The amount of depreciation each year is fixed and equal.
B. System of recording larger depreciation expenses during the earlier years.
C. Way to work out the loss of value of an asset over time.
D. Method of calculating the depreciation of the value of an asset over time.

Answer 19

D. Method of calculating the depreciation if the value of an asset over time.

Question 20

The ratio of quick assets to current liabilities is known as the:

A. profit margin
B. acid-test ratio
C. net margin
D. debt

Answer 20

B. acid-test ratio

Question 21

What is Capital Market?

A. A market structure is defined by a large number of small firms competing against each other.
B. Market in which securities are bought and sold.
C. A financial market in which long- term debt or equity-backed securities are bought and sold.
D. Entrepreneurs in one country copy an existing market.

Answer 21

C. A financial market in which long- term debt or equity-backed securities are bought and sold.

Capital business sectors are the place where reserve funds and ventures are diverted between providers-individuals or establishments with cash-flow to loan or contribute-and those out of luck.

Question 22

Raising more money than profitable used causes?

A. Capitalization
B. Over-Capitalization
C. Excess Share Capital
D. Dividend

Answer 22

B. Over-Capitalization

Over-capitalization results from raising more money than can be profitably used. Over- capitalization takes place when a company raises more money by the issue of shares and debentures than can be profitably used.

Question 23

What refers to the additional cost that results from increasing the output of a system and is often associated with a “go-no-go” decisions?

A. variable cost
B. fixed cost
C. incremental cost
D. opportunity cost

Answer 23

C. incremental cost

Question 24

What is Objectivity Principle?

A. The concept that the financial statements of an organization
B. The underlying accounting principle that the dollar will remain constant across fiscal periods
C. Accounting principle for recording revenues and expenses
D. Every business transaction requires recordation in two different accounts

Answer 24

A. The concept that the financial statements of an organization

The objectivity principle is the idea that the financial reports of an association be founded on strong proof. The purpose behind this rule is to keep the supervisory group and the bookkeeping division of a substance from delivering budget reports that are skewed by their viewpoints and predispositions.

Question 25

Which of the following would best explain a situation where the ratio of (net income/total equity) of a firm is higher than the industry average, while the ratio of (net income/total assets) is lower than the industry average? A. The firm's debt ratio is higher than the industry average. B. The firm's equity multiplier must be lower than the industry average. C. The firm's asset turnover is higher than the industry average. D. The firm's net profit margin is higher than the industry average.

Answer 25

A. The firm's debt ratio is higher than the industry average. Assets are financed either by debt or equity. The situation described above could occur only if the firm is financing more assets with debt than are industry competitors.

Question 26

In exchange for hosting a platform for business to be conducted, the ______ receives compensation. A. Bundling B. Freemium C. Marketplace D. Affiliate

Answer 26

C. Marketplace Marketplaces are somewhat straight-forward: in exchange for hosting a platform for business to be conducted, the marketplace receives compensation. Although transactions could occur without a marketplace, this business models attempts to make transacting easier, safer, and faster.

Question 27

________ is responsible for sourcing raw materials and producing finished products by leveraging internal labor, machinery, and equipment. A. Retailer B. Subscription C. Manufacturer D. Fee-of-service

Answer 27

C. Manufacturer A manufacturer is responsible for sourcing raw materials and producing finished products by leveraging internal labor, machinery, and equipment. A manufacturer may make custom goods or highly replicated, mass- produced products. A manufacturer can also sell goods to distributors, retailers, or directly to customers.

Question 28

A patent is granted for a specified amount of time because of the assumption: A. That during this time firm will cover its development costs B. That firm will earn a sufficient profit during this period C. To limit the monopoly of the firm D. That it will stimulate idea and development of a better product

Answer 28

D. That it will stimulate idea and development of a better product

Question 29

How can a member resign from a cooperative society? A. Withdrawing his capital B. Transferring his share to another person C. Transfer his shares to a fellow member. D. None of these choices

Answer 29

A. Withdrawing his capital A member of a co-operative society can leave the society by withdrawing his capital from the society.

Question 30

_______ business models attract customers by introducing them to basic, limited-scope products. A. Marketplace B. Bundling C. Affiliate D. Freemium

Answer 30

D. Freemium Freemium business models attract customers by introducing them to basic, limited-scope products. Then, with the client using their service, the company attempts to convert them to a more premium, advance product that requires payment. Although a customer may theoretically stay on freemium forever, a company tries to show the benefit of what becoming an upgraded member can hold.

Question 31

Which of the following is not one of the criteria of the behavioural segmentation base used for consumer markets? A. Media usage B. Consumption C. Life stage D. Product usage

Answer 31

C. Life stage The behavioural segmentation base consists of the following criteria: purchase/transaction; consumption/ usage; product usage; media usage.

Question 32

To be effective, the process of market segmentation must meet which of the following basic requirements? A. The market segment must reflect the population's changing attitudes and lifestyles. B. The firm must avoid focusing on non- variables such as profitability and volume. C. The market segment must have measurable purchasing power and size. D. The company must expand beyond its marketing capabilities to capture growing markets.

Answer 32

C. The market segment must have measurable purchasing power and size. To evaluate market segments uses a rating approach for different segment attractiveness factors, such as market growth, segment profitability, segment size, competitive intensity within the segment, and the cyclical nature of the industry (e.g. whether or not the business is seasonal).

Question 33

The operations strategy which refers to service firms distributing their products in many different forms and places is called A. Ubiquitization B. Servitization C. Globalization D. Mass customization

Answer 33

A. Ubiquitization The operations strategy which refers to service firms distributing their products in many different forms and places is called Ubiquitization

Question 34

To segment consumer good and service markets we use market information we have collected classified as segmentation bases. These bases include profile, behavioural, and psychological criteria. Examples of profile criteria include A. media usage, transaction history, age, and geographics. B. demographic, life stage, geographic, and geo-demographic criteria. C. gender, age, occupation, life stage, and benefits sought criteria. D. occupation, income, product usage, and lifestyle (psychographics).

Answer 34

B. demographic, life stage, geographic, and geo-demographic criteria. Gender, age and occupation are examples of profile criteria; life stage and benefits sought are examples of psychological criteria. Occupation and incomes are examples of profile criteria; product usage is an example of behavioural criteria and lifestyle is an example of psychological criteria. Media usage and transaction history are examples of behavioural criteria; age and geographics are examples of profile criteria.

Question 35

Set of forces and conditions that originate with suppliers, customers and competitors. A. General environment B. External environment C. Task Environment D. Internal environment

Answer 35

C. Task Environment

Question 36

The value of what should be done and what should not be done for the business point of view. A. Unitarian view of ethics B. Business Ethics C. Separatist view of ethics D. Integrated view of ethics

Answer 36

B. Business Ethics

Question 37

What refers to the rational way to conceptualize, analyze and solve problems in situations involving limited information about the decision environment? A. Simulation B. Sampling theory C. Decision theory D. Queuing theory

Answer 37

C. Decision theory

Question 38

What describes how to determine the number of service unit that will minimize both customer's waiting time and cost of service? A. Sampling theory B. Queuing theory C. Waterfall model D. Network model

Answer 38

B. Queuing theory

Question 39

What contains the rules regarding the activities of a company? A. Article of Association B. Memorandum of Association C. None of these choices D. Partnership Deed

Answer 39

B. Memorandum of Association A Memorandum of association of a firm contains rules regarding the constitution and activities of the company. A Memorandum of Association (MOA) is a legal document that specifies the scope of business activities of the company and information about the shareholding of the company.

Question 40

Partnership Firm Agreement is known as? A. Agreement B. Partnership Contract C. Partnership Deed D. Partnership Act

Answer 40

C. Partnership Deed A partnership deed is an understanding between the accomplices of a firm that traces the agreements of association among the accomplices. It indicates the different terms like benefit/misfortune sharing, pay, interest on capital,drawings, affirmation of another accomplice.

Question 41

Create a customer is a valid definition of? A. Factory Purpose B. Entrepreneur C. Business Purpose D. None of these choices

Answer 41

C. Business Purpose A valid definition of a business purpose is to Create a customer. The customer is a foundation of a business and keeps it in existence.

Question 42

_ is a time draft drawn by a seller upon a purchase payable to the seller as payee and accepted by the purchaser as evidence that the goods shipped are satisfactory and that the price is due and payable. A. None of these choices B. Promissory note C. Trade acceptance D. Trade creditors

Answer 42

C. Trade acceptance Trade creditors refers to suppliers extending credit to a buyer for use in marketing, processing, or reselling goods for profit. The trade acceptance is a time draft drawn by a seller upon a purchase payable to the seller as payee and accepted by the purchaser as evidence that the goods shipped are satisfactory and that the price is due and payable. A promissory note is an unconditional promise in writing made by one person to another, signed by the maker, engaging to pay, on demand or at a fixed or determinable future time.

Question 43

What factor is used in selecting a target market? A. The number of competitors serving the market B. The size of the market C. None of these choices D. Both of these choices

Answer 43

D. Both of these choices Both factors are taken into consideration when selecting a target market.

Question 44

An unconditional promise in writing made by one person to another, signed by the maker, engaging to pay, on demand or at a fixed or determinable future time is called A. Trade creditors B. None of these choices C. Promissory note D. Trade acceptance

Answer 44

C. Promissory note Trade creditors refers to suppliers extending credit to a buyer for use in marketing, processing, or reselling goods for profit. The trade acceptance is a time draft drawn by a seller upon a purchase payable to the seller as payee and accepted by the purchaser as evidence that the goods shipped are satisfactory and that the price is due and payable. A promissory note is an unconditional promise in writing made by one person to another, signed by the maker, engaging to pay, on demand or at a fixed or determinable future time.

Question 45

If multiple inheritance is implemented, which upcasting will be correct? A. Upcast to any base class B. Upcast to send base class listed in inheritance C. Upcast is not possible D. Upcast to first base class listed in inheritance

Answer 45

A. Upcast to any base class The upcasting of derived class object is possible to any base class. This is because the base class object can represent any of its derived classes using upcasting.

Question 46

What is called when an object is created in Perl? A. Constructor B. Variable C. Destructor D. All of these choices

Answer 46

D. All of these choices The constructor of a class is the first subroutine to be called when an object of that class is initiated.

Question 47

Perl Programming language is A. General purpose programming language B. All of these choices C. High-level interpreted programming language D. Dynamic programming language

Answer 47

B. All of these choices Perl is a general-purpose, high-level interpreted, and dynamic programming language.

Question 48

What is the standard i/o header file in which Input/output functions are declared? A. stdio.h B. stdlib.h C. string.h D. conio.h

Answer 48

A. stdio.h stdio.h - This is is the standard i/o header file in which Input/output functions are declared conio.h - This is the console input/ output header file string.h - All string related functions are defined in this header file stdlib.h -This header file contains general functions math.h -All maths related functions are defined in this header file

Question 49

If two index are given as argument to substring function then A. String starting from first index and ending at second index position B. String starting from first index and of length equal to send argument C. String starting from first index and of length equal to sum of two arguments D. String of length equal to sum of two arguments is returned

Answer 49

A. String starting from first index and ending at second index position A value of string type is returned from this function. The returned string is a substring that starts from the first argument position, till the second index position. The indices must be less than the length of actual string.

Question 50

What does dynamic_cast return after successful type casting? A. Doesn't return any address B. Address of object that is used for conversion C. Address of object which is converted D. Address of object that is mentioned in the syntax

Answer 50

C. Address of object which is converted The address of the object which is converted is returned by the dynamic_cast operator. This is done to safely convert the subtype to supertype.This ensures the proper assignment and conversion from one type to another.

Question 51

Downcasting ____ A. Can't result in unexpected result B. Can't result in any error C. Can result only in out of memory error D. Can result in unexpected results

Answer 51

D. Can result in unexpected results The result of downcasting can be unexpected. This is because downcasting is done on the objects into the objects which doesn't contain any information of data in lateral object.

Question 52

If two arguments are passed to the indexOf() function then A. Second argument indicates the occurrence number of specified character from starting B. Second argument indicates the index of the character in first argument C. Second argument indicates the index of the character from the last of the string D. Second argument indicates the occurrence number of specified character from end

Answer 52

A. Second argument indicates the occurrence number of specified character from starting The string may have more than one occurrence of a character. We use this function to get the index at which the specified number of times a specific character has occurred in a string. For example, we can get the index of 5th occurrence of character "j" in a string

Question 53

If only one parameter is passed to substring function then A. It returns the string from specified index till the end B. It returns the character at the specified position C. It returns the string of length 1 from the specified index D. It returns the string from starting of string till the specified index

Answer 53

A. It returns the string from specified index till the end The substring function returns a string value. The string is the substring starting from the specified index till the end. The substring function has to be called with the object of string class.

Question 54

Which is the proper syntax of dynamic_cast? A. dynamic*_cast(object) B. dynamic_cast new (object) C. dynamic*cast(object) D. dynamic_cast(object)

Answer 54

D. dynamic_cast(object) The dynamic_cast is the name of the operator, which is followed by the new type in which the object have to be converted. Then the object name is given. This object name is then used after the type conversion.

Question 55

How to prevent the ClassCastExceptions? A. By using is-a check B. By using arrow operator with check function C. By using instanceof D. By checking type of conversion

Answer 55

C. By using instanceof The instanceof operator can be used to check the compatibility of the conversion. This has to be done to check whether the casting would be safe or not.

Question 56

When is the downcasting used? A. To separate inherited class from base class B. To disable one class in inheritance C. To write a more complex code D. To compare two objects

Answer 56

D. To compare two objects The downcasting can be used whenever there is a need to compare one object to another. Equals() function can be used to compare whether the objects were of same age. We can use getClass() function too.

Question 57

A label control's ____ property determines whether the control automatically sizes to fit its current contents. A. AutoSize property B. Control property C. Autoformat property D. Auto control property

Answer 57

A. AutoSize property The label control's autosize property determines whether the control automatically sizes to fit its current contents. The appropriate settings depend on the label's purpose. Label control that identifies other control,uses the default setting that is true.

Question 58

Designers at times use colour as the means of ____ a user interface. A. Exquisite B. Charming C. Fascinating D. Identification

Answer 58

D. Identification Designers at times want to identify a special element, using colour. But it should not be the only means to identify an element. Each element should have an identifying level.

Question 59

Designers generally use ____ colour for the background, and ____ for the text. A. White, black B. Black, white C. Black, white D. Blue, pink

Answer 59

A. White, black Designers generally use white colour for the background and black colour for the text, because dark colour as background is hard for eyes and light colour as text may appear blurry.

Question 60

An object's ___ is used to display the type, style, and size of the font, used to display the object's text. A. Size property B. Style property C. Text property D. Font property

Answer 60

D. Font property An object's font property is used to display the type, style and size of font. The type of the font includes- regular, bold, italics or underlined. The size is 8,10, 14, etc and the style is 'Times new Roman', 'Sans Serif' etc.

Question 61

Designers generally avoid using ____ and ___ in an interface. A. Underline and bold B. Regular and bold C. Bold and italics D. Italics and underline

Answer 61

D. Italics and underline Designers generally avoid using italics and underline in a text, because they make difficult to read; since in some font style italics is too difficult to read,and underline in some font style looks as if an error has occurred, thus distracting the user.

Question 62

What will happen if you activate the Bottom 3D view? A. It will plot a mirrored image of your 2D drawing B. None of these choices C. It will convert .dwg to raster image D. Automatic adjustment of annotation objects

Answer 62

A. It will plot a mirrored image of your 2D drawing The quickest way to plot a mirrored image of your 2D drawing is to activate Bottom 3D view.

Question 63

What keyboard key is used for toggling the grid mode? A. F5 B. F7 C. F10 D. F11

Answer 63

B. F7 F5 - Toggle Isoplane F7 - Toggle Grid Mode F10 - Toggle Polar Mode F11 - Toggle Object Snap Tracking

Question 64

It guides cursor movement to specified angles. A. F10 B. F9 C. F12 D. F11

Answer 64

A. F10 F9 - Restricts cursor movement to specified grid intervals F10 - Guides cursor movement to specified angles. F11 - Tracks the cursor horizontally and vertically from object snap locations. F12 - Displays distances and angles near the cursor and accepts input as you use Tab between fields.

Question 65

To select a set of objects in the workspace, what should be done? A. By a crossing window drawn from right to left. B. By a crossing window drawn left to right. C. None of these choices D. Shift + clicking on the objects

Answer 65

B. By a crossing window drawn left to right. By a crossing window drawn left to right selects the objects present in the design space.

Question 66

Which command in CAD transforms a discrete item into a polyline? A. Merge B. Add C. Union D. Join

Answer 66

D. Join Objects can be converted into discrete objects in polyline with the help of the join command.

Question 67

According to Memorandum circular No. 03-06-2016, TANKERS at bay, river, harbor and lakes or engaged on a coastwise voyage are required to have A. VHF, MF/HF SSB Radio installation (20-100 Watts Power Output), GPS (150 GT and above) & AIS (500 GT and above) B. VHF,MF/HF SSB Radio installation (20-100 Watts Power Output), GPS C. VHF, MF/HF SSB Radio installation(20-100 Watts Power Output), GPS regardless of size D. VHF, MF/HF SSB Radio installation (20-100 Watts Power Output), GPS (150 GT and above) & AIS (300 GT and above)

Answer 67

C. VHF, MF/HF SSB Radio installation(20-100 Watts Power Output), GPS regardless of size

Question 68

According to NTC MC 03-06-2016 or the amendment of NTC MC 04-09-1988 PRESCRIBED EQUIPMENT FOR SHIP STATIONS OF VARIOUS VESSELS PLYING DOMESTIC ROUTES AND OTHER REQUIREMENT under Regulation 16 of SOLAS convention, 4125 and 6215 KHz is used for A. PCG/Harbormaster B. Internship and Safety C. Alternate HF/SSB International Distress Channel D. HF/SSB International Distress Channel

Answer 68

C. Alternate HF/SSB International Distress Channel

Question 69

What is the prime time block for FM radio in Metro Manila? A. 7:00 AM to 7 PM B. 6:00 AM to 6 PM C. 6:00 AM to 8 PM D. 7:00 AM to 8 PM

Answer 69

C. 6:00 AM to 8 PM

Question 70

The acquisition, production, transformation, storage and transmission/reception of data and information by electronic means in forms such as vocal, pictorial, textual,numeric or the like; also refers to the theoretical and practical applications and processes utilizing such data and information. A. Information and Communications Technology B. Communications C. Telecommunications D. Broadcasting

Answer 70

A. Information and Communications Technology

Question 71

Based on Memorandum Circular No. 4-09-88 (Prescribed Equipment for Ship Stations of Various Vessels Plying Domestic Routes and Other Requirements) what is the prescribed radio installation for passenger vessels below 350 GT and less than 5 hour of navigation? A. VHF with capability on 156.2/156.8/156.6 MHz B. VHF with capability on 156.8/156.6/156.3 MHz C. VHF with capability on 156.6/156.5/156.3 MHz D. Radio installation optional

Answer 71

B. VHF with capability on 156.8/156.6/156.3 MHz

Question 72

Which law states that those who passed the BAR and BOARD examinations shall be automatically considered as civil service eligible A. EO 467 B. RA 1080 C. RA 5734 D. PD 223

Answer 72

B. RA 1080

Question 73

What is the title of Section 8 of RA 10912? A. Secretariat B. CPD as Mandatory Requirement in the Renewal of Professional License and Accreditation System for the Practice of Professions C. Career Progression and Specialization D. Powers, Functions and Responsibilities of the CPD Council

Answer 73

D. Powers, Functions and Responsibilities of the CPD Council

Question 74

Section 5 of RA 9292. A. Powers and Functions of the Board B. Categories of Practice C. Composition of the Board D. Nature and Scope of Practice of Electronics Engineering and Electronics Technician Professions

Answer 74

D. Nature and Scope of Practice of Electronics Engineering and Electronics Technician Professions

Question 75

When is the effectivity date of the implementing Rules and Regulation of R.A. 9292? A. October 2, 2007 B. May 27,2007 C. April 17,2004 D. May 24,2004

Answer 75

A. October 2, 2007

Question 76

According to Republic Act 10912, ____ refers to learning that occurs in daily life assessed, through the recognition, validation and accreditation process, and which can contribute to a qualification A. Informal learning B. Self-directed learning. C. Lifelong learning D. Online learning activities

Answer 76

A. Informal learning

Question 77

According to Republic Act 10912, ____ refers to a status gained after a person has been assessed to have achieved learning outcomes or competencies in accordance with the standard specified for a qualification title, and is proven by a document issued by a recognized agency or body. A. Skill Set B. Competence C. Qualification D. Experience

Answer 77

C. Qualification

Question 78

What is the title of Section 12 of RA 10912? A. CPD as Mandatory Requirement in the Renewal B. Recognition of Credit Units C. Career Progression and Specialization D. Role of Concerned Government Agencies and the Private Sector

Answer 78

C. Career Progression and Specialization

Question 79

Revocation and Suspension of Certificate of Registration, Professional Identification Card and Cancellation of Special Permits is what section of RA 9292? A. 23 B. 22 C. 21 D. 24

Answer 79

A. 23

Question 80

In reference to RA10912, it refers to planned and systematic processes that provide confidence in the design, delivery and award of qualifications within an education and training system, and is a component of quality management that is focused on ensuring that quality requirements will be fulfilled A. Professional B. Qualification C. Quality Assurance D. Pathways and Equivalencies

Answer 80

C. Quality Assurance Quality assurance refers to planned and systematic processes that provide confidence in the design, delivery and award of qualifications within an education and training system, and is a component of quality management that is focused on ensuring that quality requirements will be fulfilled.

Question 81

In reference to RA10912, a mechanism that provide access to qualifications and assist professionals to move easily and readily between the different education and training sectors, and between these sectors, and the labor market, through the Philippine Credit Transfer System is referred to as: A. Philippine Qualifications Framework B. Continuing Professional Development C. Pathways and Equivalences D. Assessment Framework

Answer 81

C. Pathways and Equivalences

Question 82

For equipment locations, antenna towers, and all allied installations, the ground resistance must never exceed A. 43 ohms B. 5 ohms C. 3 ohms D. 25 ohms

Answer 82

B. 5 ohms

Question 83

It is a discharge through air, around or over the surface of solid, liquid or other insulation, between parts of different potential of polarity, produced by the application of voltage such that the breakdown path becomes sufficiently ionized to maintain an electric arc. A. Air joint B. Alpeth C. Flashover D. Handhole

Answer 83

C. Flashover

Question 84

Book 1 of the Philippine Electronics Code of 2014 is known as: A. Fire Detection and Alarm System B. Cable Television System C. Distributed Antenna System D. Telecommunications Facilities Distribution System

Answer 84

D. Telecommunications Facilities Distribution System Philippine Electronics Code of 2014 Book 1 - Telecommunications Facilities Distribution System Book 2 - Fire Detection and Alarm System Book 3 - Cable Television System Book 4 - Distributed Antenna System

Question 85

What is the title of the New Philippine Electronics Code Book 1? A. Cable Television System B. Fire Detection and Alarm System C. Telecommunication Facilities Distribution System D. Distributed Antenna System

Answer 85

C. Telecommunication Facilities Distribution System

Question 86

What is the maximum power suggested by KBP on 919? 1312 AM broadcast station in Metro Manila? A. 5 kW B. 15 kW C. 10 kW D. 20 kW

Answer 86

D. 20 kW

Question 87

Individuals who perform physical checks, tests, and procedures to determine whether a system performs as required for acceptance or reacceptance. A. Testing Personnel B. Maintenance and Service Personnel C. Work Personnel D. Inspection Personnel

Answer 87

A. Testing Personnel

Question 88

to the TV broadcast standards, what is the maximum effective radiated power in Metro Manila and Metro Cebu for channels 7-13? A. 500 kW B. 1000 kW C. 1500 kW D. 300 kW

Answer 88

B. 1000 kW

Question 89

It provides certain level of safety to humans and property in case of equipment damages. A. Surge arrester B. Lightning rod C. fuse D. Bonding or grounding

Answer 89

D. Bonding or grounding

Question 90

The heat detector located at the lowest point along the slope shall be installed at a point at A. least 3 meter above the horizontal base of the slope B. least 2 meter above the horizontal base of the slope C. least 1 meter above the horizontal base line of the slope D. least 4 meter above the horizontal base of the slope

Answer 90

C. least 1 meter above the horizontal base line of the slope

Question 91

An FDAS component containing one or more indicator lamp/LED's or alphanumeric display in which each indication provides statues information about an addressable or conventional device, a group of devices, a zone, a circuit, or an LCD and graphic condition. A. Detector B Alarm display C. Enunciator D. Annunciator

Answer 91

D. Annunciator

Question 92

Which of the following is not a useful base for segmenting organizational characteristics? A. By turnover. B. By industry type. C. By organizational size. D. By geographical location.

Answer 92

A. By turnover. There are two main groups of interrelated variables used to segment business-to-business markets. The first set of variables involves organizational characteristics, such as organizational size and location. The second group is based upon the characteristics surrounding the decision-making process of buyer characteristics.