REM C LVL 2 Flashcards
1
Q
Stranded steel wires in a group which generally is not part of the conducting system, its primary function being to support wires or cables of the system.
A. guy
B. messenger
C. support
D. conduit
A
B. messenger
2
Q
Define as wires or cables entering the building, terminated to the main cross connecting point within the building
from the nearest telephone facility.
A. local loop
B. service entrance
C. drop wire
D. subscribers loop
A
B. service entrance
3
Q
A smoke detector, using sampling tubes, that senses smoke in the air circulating within air-conditioning or ventilating ducts.
A. Duct Detector
B. Multi-criteria Detector
C. Flame Detector
D. Beam Detector
A
A. Duct Detector
4
Q
The minimum voltage value that is
considered hazardous is:
A. 50 V RMS AC
B. 45 V RMS AC
C. 24 V RMS AC
D. 12V RMS AC
A
B. 45 V RMS AC
5
Q
An opening underground run or system
into which workers reach, but do not
enter.
A. handhole
B. rathole
C. finger hole
D. manhole
A
A. handhole
6
Q
A detector that detects abnormally high
temperature, abnormally fast rate of
temperature rise, or both.
A. Duct Detector
B. Carbon Monoxide Detector
C. Heat Detector
D. Smoke
A
C. Heat Detector
7
Q
A general term applied to the whole or
portion of the physical property of a
communication company which contributes to the furnishing of communication service.
A. division
B. plant
C. zone
D. area
A
B. plant
8
Q
What refers to as linkage by wire, radio,satellite or other means, of two or more telecommunications carrier or operators with one another for the purpose of
allowing or enabling the subscriber of
one carrier or operator to access or
reach the subscribers of the other
carrier or operator?
A. Interconnection
B. Outside plant sharing
C. Gateway
D. Toll patching
A
A. Interconnection
9
Q
An undertaking the object of which is to
transmit audio, video, text, images or
other signal or messages for reception of a broad audience in a geographical area via wired or wireless means.
A. Communications
B. Broadcasting
C. Telecommunications
D. Transmission Engineering
A
B. Broadcasting
10
Q
“Powers, Functions and Responsibilities of the CPD Councilrdquo; is provided in what section of RA 10912?
A. Section 8
B. Section 6
C. Section 7
D. Section 5
A
A. Section 8
11
Q
“Separability Clause” is provided in what
section of RA 10912?
A. Section 18
B. Section 19
C. Section 17
D. Section 16
A
C. Section 17
12
Q
RA9292 defines ____ as “shall include but not be limited to office buildings, hotels, motels, hospitals,condominiums, stores, apartments,
supermarkets, schools, studios, stadia,parking areas, memorial chapels/parks,watercraft and aircraft used for business or profit, and any other building/s or area/s for business purposes, where electronic or electronically-controlled machinery or equipment are installed and/or are
being used, sold, maintained,
assembled, manufactured or operated.”
A. Consulting Services
B. Commercial Establishment
C Industrial Plant
D. Communications
A
B. Commercial Establishment
13
Q
RA9292 defines ____ as “shall include services requiring adequate technical expertise, experience and professional capability in undertaking advisory and review, pre-investment or feasibility studies, design, planning,
construction, supervision, management and related services, and other technical studies or special studies in the field of electronics engineering.”
A. Communications
B. Industrial Plant
C. Consulting Services
D. Commercial Establishment
A
C. Consulting Services
14
Q
Within_ years after the effectivity of
RA 9292, the Board shall issue
Certificate of Registration and
Professional Identification Cards
without examination to all applicants for
registration as Electronics Technicians
who comply to all the requirements
stated in section 20.
A. 5 (five)
B. none of these choices
C. 7 (seven)
D. 3 (three)
A
A. 5 (five)
15
Q
To pass the licensure examination, a candidate for Electronics Engineer or Electronics Technician must obtain a passing rating of seventy percent (70%) in each subject given during the
examination. However, if a candidate
who obtains a passing rating in the
majority of the subjects but obtains a
rating in the other subject/s below
seventy percent (70%) but not lower
than sixty percent (60%), shall be allowed to take one removal examination on the subject/s where he/she failed to obtain the passing rating:Provided, finally, that should the examinee fail to obtain a passing rating in the removal examination, he/she shall be considered as having failed the entire licensure examination. In which section of RA 9292 can this rule be found?
A. Section 18
B. Section 19
C. Section 17
D. Section 16
A
D. Section 16
16
Q
RA9292 defines ____ as “any transmission, emission or reception of voice, data, electronic messages, text,written or printed matter, fixed or
moving pictures or images, words
music or visible or audible signals or
sounds, or any information, intelligence
and/or control signals of any design/
format and for any purpose, by wire,radio, spectral, visual/optical/light, or other electronic, electromagnetic and technological means.”
A. Telecommunications
B. Broadcasting
C. Information and Communications
Technology
D. Communications
A
A. Telecommunications
17
Q
RA 9292 interprets ____ as “all
manufacturing establishments and
other business endeavors where
electronic or electronically-controlled
machinery or equipment are installed
and/or are being used, sold, maintained,
assembled or operated.”
A. Telecommunications
B. Commercial Establishment
C. Industrial Plant
D. Electronics
A
C. Industrial Plant
18
Q
Section 31 of RA 9292 refers to
A. Qualifications for Examinations
B. Practice of the Profession
C. Continuing Professional Education
(CPE)
D. Repealing Clause
A
C. Continuing Professional Education
(CPE)
19
Q
In handling unsolicited or unwanted
commercial and promotional
advertisement and surveys,
complainants who are not satisfied with the action of the Public Telecom Entities or Content Providers may bring the
matter to the NTC in writing within ____
from receipt of the alleged text spam.
A. 3 months
B. 1 month
C. 5 months
D. 7 months
A
A. 3 months
20
Q
As provided in ACT 3846, the
construction of a radio station shall
begin only when
A. The NTC has already issued a Permit to
construct.
B. the firm applying for the construction permit has submitted to the NTC its application for the same.
C. the technical documents has already been
signed and sealed by the PECE.
D. A personnel of NTC has conveyed through telephone that the application has already been approved.
A
A. The NTC has already issued a Permit to
construct.
21
Q
According to NTC Memorandum
Circular 4-2-92, this is a certificate or
written authority issued by the NTC to a
person, firm, company, association or
corporation authorizing the holder
thereof to operate during the period
specified in said authorization a mobile
station in the maritime mobile service
located on board a vessel.1
A. Cargo Ship Safety Radio Certificate
B. Ship Radio Station License
C. Ship Earth Station License
D. Exemption Certificate
A
B. Ship Radio Station License
22
Q
What government agency was
designated as the chairman of the
Electronic Commerce Promotion
A. DOTC
B. NEDA
C. NTC
D. DTI
A
D. DTI
23
Q
This memorandum circular shall cover
all wireless data networks and devices
operating within 2400MHz to 2483 MHz,5150MHz to 5350MHz and 5470MHz to 5850MHz bands
A. NTC Memorandum Circular 4-2-92
B. NTC Memorandum Circular 08-07-200
C. NTC Memorandum Circular 09-09-2003
D. NTC Memorandum Circular 04-06-2007
A
C. NTC Memorandum Circular 09-09-2003
24
Q
In accordance with Radio Laws and
Regulations, a base station in the Land Mobile Service must maintain entry in its logbook, for a period of ____ if emergency signal is received.
A. 2 years
B. 1 year
C. 3 years
D. 4 years
A
A. 2 years
25
It is an operator input device which
consists of a large, smooth board and an electronic tracking device which can be moved over the surface to follow
existing lines.
A. Digitizers
B. Cursor control
C. Keyboard terminals
D. None of these choices
A. Digitizers
The digitizer is an operator input device which consists of a large, smooth board (the appearance is similar to a mechanical drawing board) and an electronic tracking device which can be moved over the surface to follow
existing lines. It is a common technique
in CAD systems for taking x, y coordinates from a paper drawing.
26
A text string that usually indicates the
measurement value.
A. Center Text
B. Center Mark
C. Arrowheads
D. Dimension Text
D. Dimension Text
Dimension text is a text string that
usually indicates the measurement
value. The text can also include prefixes,
suffixes, and tolerances.
27
It is also called projection lines or
witness lines.
A. Arrowheads
B. Extension lines
C. Dimension line
D. Centerlines
B. Extension lines
Extension lines, also called projection lines or witness lines, extend from the feature to the dimension line.
28
The functionality areas of CAD application can be grouped into ____ categories.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 1
D. 3
B. 4
The four categories are geometric
modelling, engineering analysis, design review and evaluation and automated drafting.
29
What are broken lines that mark the
center of a circle or arc.
A. Centerlines
B. Extension Lines
C. Arrowheads
D. Center Mark
A. Centerlines
Centerlines are broken lines that mark
the center of a circle or arc.
30
The text contained in the identifying
label is entered using ____
A. Book title capitalization
B. Character capitalization
C. Word capitalization
D. Sentence capitalization
D. Sentence capitalization
Sentence capitalization is a
phenomenon in which the first character of every word in the sentence should be in capital letter. The text contained in is entered using this phenomenon.
31
What is the full form of CNC?
A. Computer number control
B. Computer network control
C. Computer numbers count
D. Computer numerical control
D. Computer numerical control
Computer numerical control is the full
form of CNC. If we provide software-
based numerical control then it is called
as computer numerical control. The
other three options are not the perfect
choice for the full form of CNC.
32
What does CNC machine use to control
motion and speed?
A. Programs, as well as computer
keyboard, Graphical user interface
B. GUI
C. Feedback system
D. Numerical
A. Programs, as well as computer
keyboard, Graphical user interface
CNC machine uses the program to
control motion and speed. The feedback system is used to record data from the sensor and compare it with input data.The graphical user interface provides a facility to understand the position of the tool according to the input program.
33
In a GUI, the window that is currently in
use is called the
A. Framed window
B. Biggest window
C. Active window
D. Top window
C. Active window
The window that is currently in use is
called the active window.
34
What is the function of the GUI
(Graphical user interface)?
A. To record the data from the sensor
B. To control motion and speed
C. Converts program into the action of the
driver
D. To understand the position of the tool
according to the input program
D. To understand the position of the tool
according to the input program
To understand the position of the tool
according to the input program is the
function of GUI. CNC programs are used
to control motion and speed. Machine
control unit converts the program into the action of the driver. The feedback system is to record the data from the sensor and compare it with input data.
35
It is a checked exception that occurs
while executing queries on a database
for Structured Query Language syntax.
A. ClassNotFoundException
B. SQLException
C. IlegalArgumentException
D. IllegalStateException
B. SQLException
SQLException is a checked exception
that occurs while executing queries on a
database for Structured Query
Language syntax.
ClassNotFoundException is a checked
exception that occurs when the required
class is not found -- either due to a
command-line error, a missing CLASS
file or an issue with the classpath.
IllegalStateException is an unchecked
exception that occurs when an
environment's state does not match the
operation being executed.
IllegalArgumentException is an
unchecked exception that occurs when
an incorrect argument is passed to a
method.
36
What does CLR stands for?
A. Continued length run
B. Common length run
C. Continued language runtime
D. Common language runtime
D. Common language runtime
CLR stands for Common Language
Runtime.
37
What is file handling in java?
A. It is creating, deleting, and modifying
files using a java program.
B. Creating new method
C. All of these choices
D. Filing method to different file to extract
them better
A. It is creating, deleting, and modifying
files using a java program.
File handling is used for creating,
deleting, and modifying files using a
java program.
38
Which is valid C expression?
A. int my_num = 100000;
B. int $my_num= 10000;
C. int my_num = 100,000;
D. int my num= 1000;
A. int my_num = 100000;
Space, comma and $ cannot be used in
a variable name.
39
Which is correct with respect to the size
of the data types in C?
A. int < chat > float
B. char > int > float
C. int < char < float
D. char < int< float
D. char < int< float
The correct order of the data types as
per the size is: char < int > float.
40
Property which allows to produce different executable for different platforms in C is called?
A. Selective inclusion
B. File inclusion
C. Conditional compilation
D. Recursive macros
C. Conditional compilation
Conditional compilation is the
preprocessor facility to produce a
different executable.
41
Conditional statements are also known
as ____ statements
A. Array
B. None of these choices
C. List
D. Decision-making
D. Decision-making
Conditional statements, also known as decision-making statements, are used to make decisions. In programming, we want to be able to control the flow of
execution of our program, and we want
to be able to execute a specific set of
statements only if a specific condition is
met, and a different set of statements
only if the condition is not met. As a
result, we use conditional statements to
determine whether or not a specific
block of code should be executed based
on a given condition.
42
If the function returns no value then it is
called
A. Data type function
B. Calling function
C. Void function
D. Main function
C. Void function
Void (NonValue-Returning) functions:
Void functions are created and used just
like value-returning functions except
they do not return a value after the
function executes.
43
Jay is considering adding a repetition
statement within his Java programming
final project. Jay is unsure of the
number of times each loop needs to
execute. Analyze the conditional
statements below and select which
statement best fits the need identified
by Jay within his programming.
A. For loop
B. While loop
C. If-Else
D. Switch statement
B. While loop
44
Which is the correct format specifier for
double type value in C?
A. %f
B. %d
C. %LF
D. %If
D. %If
The %If is used to represent a double
type value in C programming language.
45
What is a friend member function in C+
+?
A. Member function which doesn't have
access to private members
B. Member function which can access all the
members of a class
C. Member function which can modify any
data of a class
D. Non-member functions which have access to all the members (including private) of a class
D. Non-member functions which have access to all the members (including private) of a class
A non-member function of a class
which can access even the private data
of a class is a friend function. It is an
exception on access to private
members outside the class. It is
sometimes considered as a member
functions since it has all the access that
member functions in general have.
46
It is used to depict how packages and
their elements have been organized.
A. Deployment Diagram
B. Package Diagram
C. Component Diagram
D. Object Diagram
B. Package Diagram
Package Diagram - We use Package
Diagrams to depict how packages and their elements have been organized. A package diagram simply shows us the dependencies between different packages and internal composition of packages. Packages help us to organise UML diagrams into meaningful groups
and make the diagram easy to
understand. They are primarily used to
organise class and use case diagrams.
47
The feature by which one object can
interact with another object is
A. Data binding
B. Message reading
C. Message passing
D. Data transfer
C. Message passing
The interaction between two objects is
called the message passing feature.
Data transfer is not a feature of 00P as
well as message reading.
48
The most widely use UML diagram and
is the building block of all object
oriented software systems.
A. Composite Structure Diagram
B. Object Diagram
C. Class Diagram
D. Component Diagram
C. Class Diagram
Class Diagram - The most widely use
UML diagram is the class diagram. It is the building block of all object oriented software systems. We use class
diagrams to depict the static structure
of a system by showing system's
classes, their methods and attributes.
Class diagrams also help us identify
relationship between different classes
or objects.
49
How to overcome diamond problem?
A. Using alias name
B. Using separate derived class
C. Can't be done
D. Using virtual keyword with same name
function
D. Using virtual keyword with same name
function
To overcome the ambiguity and conflict
we can use keyword virtual. This will
help us to differentiate the functions
with same name that came to last
derived class in diamond problem.
50
It can be referred to as a screenshot of
the instances in a system and the
relationship that exists between them.
A. Class Diagram
B. Composite Structure Diagram
C. Component Diagram
D. Object Diagram
D. Object Diagram
Object Diagram - An Object Diagram can
be referred to as a screenshot of the
instances in a system and the
relationship that exists between them. Since object diagrams depict behaviour when objects have been instantiated,
we are able to study the behaviour of the system at a particular instant. An object diagram is similar to a class diagram except it shows the instances of classes in the system. We depict
actual classifiers and their relationships
making the use of class diagrams. On
the other hand, an Object Diagram
represents specific instances of classes
and relationships between them at a
point of time.
51
Which of the following is a behavior
diagram?
A. Sequence Diagram
B. Composite Structure Diagram
C. Component Diagram
D. Package Diagram
A. Sequence Diagram
State Machine Diagrams, Activity
Diagrams, Use Case Diagrams,
Sequence Diagram, Communication
Diagram, Timing Diagram and
Interaction Overview Diagram are the
behavior diagrams in a Unified Modeling
Language. While Class Diagram,
Composite Structure Diagram, Object
Diagram, Component Diagram,
Component Diagram, Package Diagram
are the Structural UML Diagrams.
52
The function scanf() is used to
A. Input a set of values
B. To take logical decisions
C. Print a set of values
D. Do mathematical manipulations
A. Input a set of values
Within C Programming language,
scanf() is a commonly used function for
receiving user input. The scanf()
function scans formatted data from
conventional input devices like
keyboards.
53
Which of the following is structural UML
diagram?
A. Object Diagram
B. Activity Diagrams
C. Sequence Diagram
D. Communication Diagram
A. Object Diagram
State Machine Diagrams, Activity
Diagrams, Use Case Diagrams,
Sequence Diagram, Communication
Diagram, Timing Diagram and
Interaction Overview Diagram are the
behavior diagrams in a Unified Modeling
Language. While Class Diagram,
Composite Structure Diagram, Object
Diagram, Component Diagram,
Component Diagram, Package Diagram
are the Structural UML Diagrams.
54
What is encapsulation in 00P?
A. It is a way of combining various data
members into a single unit
B. It is a way of combining various data
members and member functions into a
single unit which can operate on any data
C. It is a way of combining various member
functions into a single unit
D. It is a way of combining various data members and member functions that operate on those data members into a single unit
D. It is a way of combining various data members and member functions that operate on those data members into a single unit
It is a way of combining both data
members and member functions, which operate on those data members, into a single unit. We call it a class in OOP generally.
55
If the interest rate on debt is lower than
ROA, then a firm will ____ by
increasing the use of debt in the capital
structure.
A. decrease the ROE
B. increase the ROE
C. change the ROE in an indeterminable
manner
D. not change the ROE
B. increase the ROE
If ROA is higher than the interest rate,
then ROE will increase by an amount
that depends on the debt to equity ratio
56
What is Bank Overdraft?
A. A negotiable instrument similar to a bill of
exchange.
B. A document used by a company's
accounts payable department containing
the supporting documents for an invoice.
C. A negotiable instrument where payment is
guaranteed by the issuing bank.
D. A line of credit that covers your
transactions if your bank account
balance drops below zero.
D. A line of credit that covers your
transactions if your bank account
balance drops below zero.
An overdraft facility linked to your everyday transaction account is an unsecured line of credit designed to cover short-term cash flow shortfalls
57
The Expenses, Profit & Loss of an organisation are recorded in which account?
A. Current Account
B. Nominal Account
C. Personal Account
D. None of these choices
B. Nominal Account
The nominal account records all the
transactions of a business for one fiscal
year.
58
It is when an investor or a lender gives a
business funds to assist with starting,
growing, and managing day-to-day
operations.
A. Market planning
B. None of these choices
C. Raising capital
D. Financing
C. Raising capital
Raising capital is when an investor or a lender gives a business funds to assist with starting, growing, and managing day-to-day operations. Some entrepreneurs consider raising capital to
be a burden, but most consider it a
necessity. Regardless of their stance on the matter, raising capital is an essential step for entrepreneurs, founders,
business owners, or anyone looking to
start a company.
59
It involves the borrowing of money and
paying it back with interest.
A. None of these choices
B. Equity financing
C. Debt financing
D. Raising capital
C. Debt financing
Debt financing involves the borrowing of money and paying it back with interest.The most common form of debt
financing is a loan. Debt financing
sometimes comes with restrictions on
the company's activities that may
prevent it from taking advantage of
opportunities outside the realm of its
core business. Creditors look favorably upon a relatively low debt-to-equity ratio,which benefits the company if it needs to access additional debt financing in the future.
60
Which Ratio protects the Creditors?
A. Higher Inventory Ratio
B. Lower Debt Equity Ratio
C. Return on Investment Ratio
D. Liquidity Assets
B. Lower Debt Equity Ratio
Lower the Debt Equity ratio higher is the protection to creditors. Creditors usually like a low debt to equity ratio because a low ratio (less than 1) is the indication of greater protection to their money.
61
The P/E ratio that is based on a firm's
financial statements and reported in the
newspaper stock listings is different
from the P/E ratio derived from the
dividend discount model (DDM)
because
A. The DDM uses different earnings
measures in the denominator
B. The people who construct the ratio from
financial statements have inside
information
C. The prices reported are not accurate
D. The DDM uses a different price in the
numerator
A. The DDM uses different earnings
measures in the denominator
Both ratios use the same numerator-
the market price of the stock. But P/Es from financial statements use the most recent past accounting earnings, while the DDM uses expected future
62
If you write an original story, what type
of intellectual property gives you the
right to decide who can make and sell
copies of your work?
A. Copyright
B. Geographical indications
C. Patents
D. Registered designs
A. Copyright
Copyright gives you the right to decide who can make and sell copies of your work.
63
The creditors' claims against an asset.
A. Lien
B. Contract assignment
C. Bulk transfer
D. Restrictive covenant
A. Lien
64
What does a trademark protect?
A. A secret formula
B. Logos, names and brands
C. A work of art
D. An invention
B. Logos, names and brands
Trademarks protect logos, names and
brands.
65
What protects the intellectual property
created by inventors?
A. Copyright
B. Patents
C. Geographical indications
D. Registered designs
B. Patents
Patents protect the intellectual property
created by inventors.
66
A firm has a higher quick (or acid test)ratio than the industry average, which implies
A. None of these choices
B. Both of these choices
C. The firm is more likely to avoid
insolvency in short run than other firms
in the industry.
D. The firm has a higher P/E ratio than other
firms in the industry.
C. The firm is more likely to avoid
insolvency in short run than other firms
in the industry.
Current assets earn less than fixed
assets; thus, a firm with a relatively high
level of current assets may be less
profitable than other firms. However, its
high level of current assets makes it
more liquid.
67
Market testing studies use ____ to
carry out controlled experiments in
specific country regions, where specific adverts can be shown, before exposing the new feature' (offering, campaign,
distribution, etc.) to a full national or
even international launch.
A. Story boards
B. Analytical information
C. Data mining
D. Test markets
D. Test markets
Market testing studies use test markets
to carry out controlled experiments in
specific country regions, where specific adverts can be shown, before exposing the 'new feature' (offering, campaign,
distribution, etc.) to a full national or
even international launch
68
A marketing research firm contracts
with clients to conduct a complete
marketing research project from data collection, analysis and reporting. It is a ____ firm.
A. Consultant
B. Tabulation agency
C. Full-service agency
D. Field agency
C. Full-service agency
In order to commission market
research, the client must determine
whether or not he or she wants to
commission an agency, a consultant, a
field and tabulation agency, or a data
preparation and analysis agency (who,unlike field and tab, do not undertake the fieldwork). Typically, a consultant might be used for a small job which does not require extensive fieldwork, a
field and tab agency when the
organization can design its own
research but not undertake the data
collection, a data preparation and
analysis agency when it can both design
and collect the data but does not have
the expertise to analyse it, and a fullservice agency when it does not have the expertise to design the research,and collect or analyse the data.
69
Which of the following statements is
false?
A. Market segmentation is a useful process
for small businesses to undertake
B. Selling is essentially a matching process
C. It is a good idea for small businesses
to compete solely on price
D. A benefit is the value of a product feature
to a customer
C. It is a good idea for small businesses
to compete solely on price
70
Good sources of information for an
entrepreneur about competitors can be
obtained from
A. Product information leaflets
B. All of these choices
C. Websites
D. Company reports and published accounts
B. All of these choices
71
Marketers usually decide whether to
conduct marketing research study
internally or through an outside
organization based on certain criteria Which of the following criterion is not used?
A. The size of the agency.
B. The likelihood that the research design will
provide insights into the management
problem.
C. The agency's reputation.
D. Whether the study offers value for money.
A. The size of the agency.
The criteria used to evaluate the
agencies' suitability, once they have
submitted a proposal, might include the
following:
- The agency's reputation;
- The agency's perceived expertise;
- Whether the study offers value for money;
- The time taken to complete the study,
- The likelihood that the research design will provide insights into the management problem.
72
Organization that produces goods and services that are similar to a particular organizations goods and services.
A. Customers
B. Distributors
C. Competitors
D. Suppliers
C. Competitors
73
Organizations that helps other
organizations sells their goods and
services to customers.
A. Suppliers
B. Distributors
C. Customers
D. Competitors
B. Distributors
74
Online fraud and scammers are
punished with a minimum fine of one
hundred thousand pesos (PHP 100,000)
and mandatory imprisonment of
A. six (6) months to six (6) years
B. three (3) months to three (3) years
C. six (6) months to three (3) years
D. three (3) months to six (3) years
C. six (6) months to three (3) years
75
Set of forces and conditions outside the
organization that can influence its
performance.
A. Demographic forces
B. Global forces
C. Internal environment
D. External environment
D. External environment
76
A typical inventor is usually
A. Does not encourage change
B. Willing to modify the invention
C. Highly creative & in love with the
invention
D. Not enthusiastic
C. Highly creative & in love with the
invention
77
A mode of extinguishing obligations when a creditor abandons his right to collect is ____
A. all of these choices
B. invalidity
C. forfeiture
D. void
C. forfeiture
78
A general term applied to the whole or
portion of the physical property of a
communication company which contributes to the furnishing of communication service.
A. plant
B. area
C. division
D. zone
A. plant
79
It is a plan which sets forth the
projected expenditure for a certain
activity and explains where the required
funds will come from
A. Budget
B. Program
C. Project
D. None of these choices
A. Budget
Budget is a plan which sets forth the
projected expenditure for a certain
activity and explains where the required
funds will come from.
A program is a single-use plan designed
to coordinate a large set of activities.
A project is a single-use plan that is
usually more limited in scope than a
program and is sometimes prepared to
support a program.
80
One account appearing in the financial
statement is paired with another to
constitute a ratio
A. Financial ratio analysis
B. Financial ratio
C. Financial analysis
D. None of these choices
A. Financial ratio analysis
81
This refers to the approach that seeks
efficiency of operation through
integration of all material acquisition,
movement, and storage activities in the
firm
A. Material management
B. Production planning
C. Scheduling
D. Product design
A. Material management
82
It is the value which is usually
determined by a disinterested third
party in order to establish a price that is
fair to both seller and buyer.
A. fair value
B. book value
C. salvage value
D. use value
A. fair value
83
Double-taxation means
A. the income is twice as high as it should be
B. corporate income is taxed first as corporate income then taken as personal income then taken as personal income from the individual
payments stock
C. corporate income is taxed at double the
personal income rate
D. the partners in a firm are taxed first at
equal personal income rates
B. corporate income is taxed first as corporate income then taken as personal income then taken as personal income from the individual
payments stock
84
This offers a limited mix of services which results to some economies of scale in operation
A. Service processes
B. Service factory
C. Mass service
D. Service shop
B. Service factory
Service processes - those that refer to
provision of services to persons by hand
or with machinery
Service factory - this offers a limited mix of services which results to some economies of scale in operation
Service shop - provides a diverse mix
of services
Mass service - a company that
provides services to a large number of
people simultaneously
85
It is characterized by the rapid rate at
which items move through the system
A. Continuous flow processing
B. Machine-paced assembly line
C. None of these choices
D. Batch/continuous flow hybrid
A. Continuous flow processing
Machine-paced assembly line - a type of production process produces mostly standard products with machines playing a significant role
Continuous flow processing - is characterized by the rapid rate at which items move through the system
Batch/continuous flow hybrid - a combination of the batch and the continuous flow processing
86
This provides services to a large
number of people simultaneously
A. Service factory
B. Service processes
C. Mass service
D. Service shop
C. Mass service
Service processes - those that refer to
provision of services to persons by hand
or with machinery
Service factory - this offers a limited mix of services which results to some economies of scale in operation
Service shop - provides a diverse mix
of services
Mass service - a company that
provides services to a large number of
people simultaneously
87
It is the process of determining the
physical arrangement of the production
system
A. Inventory control
B. Work-flow layout
C. None of these choices
D. Quality control
B. Work-flow layout
Inventory control is the process of
establishing and maintaining
appropriate levels of reserve stocks of
goods.
Work-flow layout is the process of
determining the physical arrangement
of the production system.
Quality control refers to the
measurement of products or services
against standards set by the company.
88
It involves developing a game plan to
guide a company as it strives to
accomplish its mission, goals, and
objectives, and to keep it on its desired
course.
A. strategic plan
B. franchise
C. strategic management
D. competitive advantage
A. strategic plan
89
A single-use plan designed to
coordinate a large set of activities
A. None of these choices
B. Project
C. Budget
D. Program
D. Program
Budget is a plan which sets forth the
projected expenditure for a certain
activity and explains where the required
funds will come from.
A program is a single-use plan designed to coordinate a large set of activities.
A project is a single-use plan that is usually more
limited in scope than a program and is
sometimes prepared to support a
program.
90
This measures employee performance
A. Strategic plan
B. Statistical report
C. Performance appraisal
D. Operating budget
C. Performance appraisal
Strategic plan - provides the basic
control mechanism for the organization
Operating budget - indicates the
expenditures, revenues, or profits planned for some future period regarding operations
Performance appraisal - this measures
employee performance
Statistical report - this pertains to those that contain data on various developments within the firm
91
When operations are already ongoing and activities to detect variances are made, ___ is said to be undertaken.
A. Feedback control
B. Control
C. Feedforward control
D. Concurrent control
D. Concurrent control
92
A provision placed in a contract which
indicate the possible adjustment of
material and labor costs is called ___
A. provisionary clause
B. adjustable clause
C. escalatory clause
D. tort
C. escalatory clause
93
This refers to the process of
ascertaining whether organizational
objectives have been achieved; if not,
why not; and determining what activities
should then be taken to achieve
objectives better in the future
A. Marketing
B. Planning
C. Marketing
D. Controlling
D. Controlling
When management anticipates
problems and prevents their occurrence,the type of control measure undertaken is called feedforward control.
When operations are already ongoing and activities to detect variances are made, concurrent control is said to be undertaken.
When information is gathered about a
completed activity, and in order that
evaluation and steps for improvement
are derived, feedback control is
undertaken.
94
A plan that describes the exact series of
actions to be taken in a given situation
A. Procedure
B. Policies
C. Both of these choices
D. None of these choices
A. Procedure
The balance sheet contains information
about the company's assets, liabilities
and capital accounts while the income statement contains information about the company*rsquo;s gross income,
expenses, and profits.
95
This term refers to the process of
determining how specific tasks can best be accomplished on time with available resources
A. Strategic planning
B. Planning
C. Intermediate planning
D. Operational planning
D. Operational planning
Strategic planning refers to the process
of determining the major goals of the
organization and policies and strategies
for obtaining and using resources to
achieve these goals.
Intermediate planning is the process of determining the contributions that subunits can
make with allocated resources.
Operational planning refers to the
process of determining how specific tasks can best be accomplished on time with available resources.
96
An engineer is required to finish a
certain engineering job in 20 days. He is
said to be ____ if he finished the job
within the required period of 20 days.
A. Efficient
B. Effective
C. Qualified
D. Reliable
B. Effective
97
What refers to the needs of the
employees for food, drinks and rest?
A. Security needs
B. Self-actualization needs
C. Esteem needs
D. Physiological needs
D. Physiological needs
98
It is the structure that details lines of
responsibilities, authority and position.
A. None of these choices
B. Organization
C. Formal organization
D. Informal group
C. Formal organization
The formal organization is the structure
that details lines of responsibilities,
authority and position. What is depicted
in the organization chart is the formal
organization.
99
Which of the following is/are the
purpose of a structure?
A. All of these choices
B. It defines the relationships between tasks
and authority
C. It defines the groupings of individuals into
departments and departments into
organizations
D. It defines formal reposting relationships
A. All of these choices
All are purposes of an organizational
structure.
100
This pertains to those that contain data
on various developments within the firm
A. Operating budget
B. Strategic plan
C. Performance appraisal
D. Statistical report
D. Statistical report
Policies refer to the framework within
which objectives must be pursued while a procedure is a plan that describes the exact series of actions to be taken in a given situation.
