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GEAS > REM A LVL 2 > Flashcards

REM A LVL 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following statement is
FALSE?

A. In general, as reaction products are
formed, they react with each other and
reform reactants
B. The different rate is the mathematical expression that shows how the rate of a reaction depends on volume
C. The net rate at which a reaction proceeds
from left to right is equal to the forward
rate minus the reverse rate
D. In general, as reaction products are
formed, they react with each other and
reform reactants

A

B. The different rate is the mathematical expression that shows how the rate of a reaction depends on volume

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2
Q

Which one of the following conditions
would always result in an increase in the
internal energy of a system?

A. The system gains heat and has work
done on it by the surroundings.
B. The system loses heat and has work done
on it by the surroundings.

A

A. The system gains heat and has work
done on it by the surroundings.

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3
Q

Atoms containing radioactive nuclei are
called

A. radionuclides.
B. nucleons.
C. radioisotopes.

A

C. radioisotopes.

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4
Q

The following statements concerning
petroleum are all true except:

A. All of its hydrocarbon chains contain
the same number of carbon atoms
B. It was probably formed from the remains
of ancient marine organisms

A

A. All of its hydrocarbon chains contain
the same number of carbon atoms

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5
Q

What is a phosphor?

A. an oxide of phosphorus
B. a substance that emits light when
excited by radiation
C. a bioluminescent substance

A

B. a substance that emits light when
excited by radiation

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6
Q

What type of reaction is known as a
thermonuclear reaction?

A. transmutation
B. beta emission
C. fusion
D. fission

A

C. fusion

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7
Q

A compound of a metal from which metal can be extracted profitably is called

A. Alloy
B. Ore
C. Mixture

A

B. Ore

A compound of a metal from which metal can be extracted profitably is called ore.
Ore is a type of rock that contains minerals with important elements including metals.

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8
Q

Which of the following is a statement of
Hess’s law?

A. If a reaction is carried out in a series of steps, the △H for the reaction will equal the sum of the enthalpy changes for the individual steps.
B. The △H for a process in the forward
direction is equal in magnitude and
opposite in sign to the △H for the process
in the reverse direction.

A

A. If a reaction is carried out in a series of steps, the △H for the reaction will equal the sum of the enthalpy changes for the individual steps.

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9
Q

The overall shape of a molecule is
described by which two properties?

A. Bond distance and bond size
B. Bond distance and bond angle
C. Bond angle and bond size

A

B. Bond distance and bond angle

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10
Q

Which components of an automobile
are envisioned to be coated with
zirconia?

A. Liners
B. Tyres
C. Brakes
D. Spark plugs

A

A. Liners

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11
Q

In order to drive off carbon dioxide in a
carbonate ore, one can use ___

A. calcination
B. diffraction
C. filtration

A

A. calcination

Calcination refers to heating a solid to high temperatures in absence of air or oxygen, generally for the purpose of
removing impurities or volatile
substances.

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12
Q

It is the energy change accompanying a mole of electrons being added to a mole of a gaseous atoms or ions.

A. electronic affinity
B. bingling energy

A

A. electronic affinity

Electron affinity - describes the ability
of an atom to accept an electron.

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13
Q

What refers to the measure of how fast
a substance dissolves?

A. Rate of solubility
B. Rate of dissolution
C. Rate of agitation

A

B. Rate of dissolution

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14
Q

A group of reactions where chain
carriers are produced which by further reacting with the reactant produce back the chain carriers.

A. Chain reaction
B. Consecutive reaction
C. Multiple reaction

A

A. Chain reaction

A chemical chain reaction is a series of chemical reactions where the products of the reaction contribute to the reactants of another reaction.

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15
Q

What type of bond occurs when the
difference in electronegativity is greater
than or equal to 2?

A. Nonpolar covalent
B. Either nonpolar covalent or polar covalent
C. lonic

A

C. lonic

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16
Q

When a substance is oxidized, it

A. acts as an oxidizing agent
B. acts as a reducing agent
C. loses protons

A

B. acts as a reducing agent

Oxidizing agent - a chemical substance
that gives up oxygen or takes on
electrons from another substance.

Reducing agent - a chemical substance
that takes on oxygen or gives up
electrons to another substance.

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17
Q

It is tiny cylinders only a few
nanometers in diameter that are
constructed of rolled sheets of a
graphite-like array of atoms. Carbon and
boron nitride are the most extensively
studied.

A. Nanotubes
B. Nanocrystal
C. Nanosheets

A

A. Nanotubes

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18
Q

Which property of nanoparticles
provides a driving force for diffusion?

A. High surface area to volume ratio
B. Optical Properties
C. There is no such property

A

A. High surface area to volume ratio

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19
Q

Which of the following is an example of
Bottom Up approach?

A. Colloidal dispersion
B. Attrition
C. Etching

A

A. Colloidal dispersion

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20
Q

Which components of an automobile
are envisioned to be coated with
zirconia?

A. Liners
B. Brakes
C. Spark plugs
D. Tyres

A

A. Liners

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21
Q

On both ends of the CNTs, which carbon
nanostructure is placed?

A. C60
B. Graphite
C. Diamond
D. Benzene

A

B. Graphite

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22
Q

Three-dimensional clusters of
semiconducting materials, such
cadmium selenide (CdSe), containing
10 to 10^5 atoms

A. Nanosheets
B. Nanotubes
C. Quantum Dots

A

C. Quantum Dots

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23
Q

Compounds found in fossil fuels that
contain ____ are primarily responsible for acid rain.

A. carbon
B. hydrogen
C. phosphorus
D. sulfur

A

D. sulfur

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24
Q

The brown color of photochemical
smog over a city is mainly due to

A. N204
B. SO2
C. NO2

A

C. NO2

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25
Q

Sulfur dioxide is not released into the atmosphere in any significant amount by ___

A. volcanic eruption
B. internal combustion engines
C. burning of coal

A

B. internal combustion engines

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26
Q

Radiation in the infrared portion of the
spectrum is absorbed by ___ found in the atmosphere.

A. 02
B. Ar
C. CO2

A

C. CO2

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27
Q

Which of the following is arranged
correctly in order of increasing distance
from Earth’s surface?

A. troposphere < stratosphere<
mesosphere < thermosphere
B. troposphere < mesosphere < thermosphere
< stratosphere
C. mesosphere < troposphere < stratosphere
< thermosphere

A

A. troposphere < stratosphere<
mesosphere < thermosphere

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28
Q

What is the experimental science of
determining the arrangement of atoms
in solids?

A. Metallurgy
B. Archeology
C. Alchemy
D. Crystallography

A

D. Crystallography

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29
Q

What are the major classes of
engineering materials?

A. Polymers, metals and composites
B. Metals, ceramics, polymers and
semiconductors
C. Metals, ceramics, polymers,
semiconductors and composites

A

C. Metals, ceramics, polymers,
semiconductors and composites

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30
Q

What is a polymer production process that involves forming a polymer chain containing two different monuments?

A. Alloying
B. Copolymerization
C. Blending

A

B. Copolymerization

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31
Q

These are the important considerations relative to the process of slip and that is the mechanism by which the metals plastically deform

A. All of these choices
B. Miller indices
C. linear and planar densities
D. Hexagonal crystal systems

A

C. linear and planar densities

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32
Q

What dimensional property of a material
refers to a wavelike variation from a
perfect surface, generally much wider in
spacing and higher in amplitude than
surface roughness?

A. surface finish
B. Waviness
C. Lay

A

C. Lay

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33
Q

The maximum stress that may be
developed during a simple tension that
the stress is a linear function of strain.

A. elastic limit
B. proportional limit
C. rupture point

A

B. proportional limit

Proportional Limit is the point on the stress-strain curve below which, the stress is proportional to strain.

Elastic Limit is the point at which
permanent deformation occurs, that is,
after the elastic limit, if the force is
taken off the sample, it will not return to
its original size and shape, permanent
deformation has occurred.

Yield Point is a point at which there is
an appreciable elongation or yielding of
the material without corresponding
increase of load.

Rupture or Fracture Point is the point in
the curve at which the failure of the
material takes place.

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34
Q

Resilience can also be termed as ___

A. Stress energy
B. Tenacity
C. Strain energy
D. Modulus

A

C. Strain energy

The capability of a material to absorb
energy when it is deformed elastically
and release that energy upon unloading
is known resilience. This resilience is
also termed as Strain energy.

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35
Q

Which law is also called as the elasticity
law?

A. Hooke’s law
B. Bernoulli’s law
C. Stress law

A

A. Hooke’s law

The Hooke’s law is valid under the
elastic limit of a body. It itself states
that stress is proportional to the strain
within elastic limit.

36
Q

The elastic deformation of a material is:

A. inversely proportional to the modulus
of elasticity of material
B. inversely proportional to the force acting
on the material
C. directly proportional to cross-sectional
area of the material

A

A. inversely proportional to the modulus
of elasticity of material

A temporary shape change that is selfreversing after the force is removed, so that the object returns to its original
shape, is called elastic deformation. In
other words, elastic deformation is a
change in shape of a material at low
stress that is recoverable after the
stress is removed.

37
Q

Q: Strain is a fundamental behaviour of
material.
R: Strain does not have a unit.

A. Both Q. and R. are true but R. is not the
correct explanation of Q
B. Both Q. and R. are true and R. is the
correct explanation of Q
C. R. is true but Q. is false
Both Q. and R. are true but R. is not the
correct explanation of Q
D. Q. is true but R. is false

A

B. Both Q. and R. are true and R. is the
correct explanation of Q

Strain is measured in laboratory that is why it is called a fundamental quantity.Also since it is the ratio of dimension of length to the dimension of length, it is dimensionless.

38
Q

The Portland cement is manufacture
from the following elements except:

A. lime
B. alumina
C. asphalt
D. silica

A

C. asphalt

39
Q

Major load carrier in dispersion-
strengthened composites

A. Fiber
B. Matrix
C. Matrix and Fiber

A

B. Matrix

40
Q

These are multiphase materials that are artificially made, as opposed to one that occurs or forms naturally.

A. Polymers
B. Composites
C. Ceramics

A

B. Composites

41
Q

Composite materials are classified
based on:

A. Type of matrix
B. Type of matrix and Size-and-shape of
reinforcement
C. Size-and-shape of reinforcement

A

B. Type of matrix and Size-and-shape of
reinforcement

42
Q

Usually softer constituent of a
composite is

A. Reinforcement
B. All of these
C. Matrix

A

C. Matrix

43
Q

Which of the following is an example of
composite material?

A. Fiber glass
B. Copper wire
C. Salt
D. Diamond

A

A. Fiber glass

44
Q

A member which does not regain its original shape after removal of load producing deformation is said

A. Rigid
B. Plastic
C. Elastic

A

B. Plastic

A plastic material does not regain its
original shape after removal of load. An elastic material regain its original shape after removal of load.

45
Q

Lead compounds such as load sulfide,selenide and telluride may be used for which application?

A. Infrared detectors
B. Thermoelectric applications
C. All of these choices

A

C. All of these choices

46
Q

Stresses arising when a change in
temperature affects the original length
of a body

A. Thermal stress
B. Hydraulic stress
C. Kelvin stress
D. Humid stress

A

A. Thermal stress

Thermal stress is stress created by any
change in temperature to a material.
These stresses can lead to fracture or
plastic deformation depending on the
other variables of heating, which include
material types and constraints.

47
Q

This element is used in modern, super strong permanent magnets because of their high coercivities.

A. Neodymium
B. Yttrium
C. Alnico

A

A. Neodymium

48
Q

When a body is resistant to heat, it is
called

A. Thermoduric
B. Thermoscopic
C. Thermoplastic

A

A. Thermoduric

49
Q

Which of the following fluids conducts
electricity?

A. Water
B. Electrolyte
C. Acid

A

B. Electrolyte

50
Q

Which of the following substances has
the least average coefficient of linear
thermal expansion?

A. Steel
B. Concrete
C. Copper

A

B. Concrete

THE COEFFICIENT OF LINEAR thermal expansion is a material property that is indicative of the extent to which a material expands upon heating.Different substances expand by different amounts

51
Q

Which one of the following lakes has
minimum productivity?

A. Senescent lake
B. Mesotrophic lake
C. Oligotrophic lake

A

C. Oligotrophic lake

Oligotrophic lake has minimum
productivity due to the presence of low
phosphorous, nitrogen and other
nutrients in the lake.

52
Q

___ represents the bacterial density
that is most likely to be present in water.

A. MPN
B. Coliform index
C. BOD

A

A. MPN

Most Probable Number is a number that
indicates the bacterial density present
in water.BOD and COD are the terms
related to the oxygen required by
microorganism to oxidize organic and
inorganic matter.

53
Q

Which of the following is a viable
particulate?

A. Smoke
B. Dust
C. Mist
D. Moulds

A

D. Moulds

Viable particulate matter consists of
miniscule living organisms that float in
the atmosphere.

54
Q

The species restricted to be present in
one region are called

A. Keystone species
B. Endemic species
C. Edge species
D. Endangered species

A

B. Endemic species

55
Q

___ is a group of species exploits the biotic and abiotic resources in the same way.

A. Biomes
B. Guild
C. Community

A

B. Guild

A guild is a collection of organisms that
share resources or exploit diverse
resources in similar ways. Sharing an
ecological niche is not a requirement of
the guild.

56
Q

Biosphere is

A. The thin shell of organic matter on the surface of the earth comprising of all the living things
B. The solid shell of inorganic materials on
the surface of the earth
C. All of these choices
D. The sphere which occupies the maximum
volume of all the spheres

A

A. The thin shell of organic matter on the surface of the earth comprising of all the living things

57
Q

Mass of living matter at a trophic level
in an area at any given time is called

A. Standing crop
B. Humus
C. Detritus
D. Standing state

A

A. Standing crop

58
Q

The upright pyramid of numbers is
absent in

A. Forests
B. Pond
C. Lake

A

A. Forests

59
Q

Which of the following are major environmental issues involved in mining?

A. soil degradation
B. water pollution
C. all of these choices
D. air pollution

A

C. all of these choices

60
Q

Below which of the following pH is rain
regarded as ‘acid rain’?

A. 7.3
B. 5.6
C. 6

A

B. 5.6

Though the pH of neutral water is 7, rain
water is acidic due to mixing up with
atmospheric carbon dioxide and is said to have a 5.6 pH. Hence acid rain has a pH less than 5.6.

61
Q

Which of the following is the cause of
tobacco addiction?

A. Nicotine
B. Cocaine
C. Histamine
D. None of these choices

A

A. Nicotine

When Nicotine is taken in small
amounts, it causes pleasant feelings
and distracts the user from the
unpleasant feelings. This makes the
user wants to use tobacco more.

62
Q

Which of the following gas destroys the
chlorophyll present in the plant leaves?

A. H2S
B. SO3
C. SO2
D. CO2

A

C. SO2

Sulpur dioxide (SO2) is the pollutant
that causes the bleaching of plants. The chlorophyll pigment which is present in the plant leaves is destroyed due to the presence of a high amount of sulfuric acid.

63
Q

What is the region of mild and irregular
wind in the equatorial region known as?

A. Easterlies
B. Trade winds
C. Doldrums
D. Westerlies

A

C. Doldrums

Doldrums are the irregular winds and their exact location is hard to analyze.Ships in the region of doldrums might restrict its movement due to a lack of proper wind.

64
Q

Which of the following statement is
correct?

A. Intermittent water supplies leads to
less water consumption
B. Loss of water is more if the pressure in the
distribution system is less
C. Rich class consumes less water

A

A. Intermittent water supplies leads to
less water consumption

Rich class consumes more water, loss
of water is more if the pressure in
distribution system is more, water
consumption is more in flush system
and b option is the only correct
statement.

65
Q

Environmental impact assessment

A. is a study of bio-physical
characteristics of the environment that
may result from a human action
B. None of these choices
C. Both is the study of feasibility of a project
and is a study of bio-physical
characteristics of the environment that
may result from a human action
D. is the study of feasibility of a project

A

A. is a study of bio-physical
characteristics of the environment that
may result from a human action

66
Q

With respect to environment science,
full form of SPM is

A. Suspended Partial Matter
B. None of these choices
C. Suspended Pollutant Matter
D. Suspended Particulate Matter

A

D. Suspended Particulate Matter

Suspended particulate matters (SPM)
are microscopic solids or liquids that
contain organic and inorganic particles
like; dust, pollen, smoke or liquid
droplets. These particles may be
dispersed through the air from
combustion processes, industrial
activities or natural sources.

67
Q

Which of the following process unit is
used for air pollution control in chemical
plants?

A. Fluidized bed Combustion
B. VPCU
C. Thermal Oxidizer

A

C. Thermal Oxidizer

Thermal Oxidizer used in many
chemical plants to control air pollution.
It helps to destroy hazardous air
pollutants and volatile organic
compounds at a high temperature and
releases them into the atmosphere.

68
Q

What are the factors affecting per
capita demand?

A. Cost of water, quality of water, size of city
B. Size of city, habit of people
C. Size of city
D. Cost of water, quality of water, size of
city, habit of people

A

D. Cost of water, quality of water, size of
city, habit of people

Increase in cost of water, quality of
water and size of the city will result in
more consumption of water. Poor habits
of people in the utilization of water will
also cause greater consumption.

69
Q

Which of the following is a
disadvantage of a separate water
carriage system?

A. Provision of the automatic flushing tank is
not required
B. No loads on treatment units
C. Lesser air contact with small sized
sewer

A

C. Lesser air contact with small sized
sewer

In a separate water carriage system,
because of lesser air contact with small sized sewer, foul smell is formed due to the formation of sewage gas.

70
Q

Which of the following air pollution
control device has maximum efficiency?

A. Dynamic precipitator
B. Wet cyclonic scrubber
C. Electrostatic precipitator

A

C. Electrostatic precipitator

Electrostatic precipitator has the
maximum efficiency among the rest
with a value of 99%.

71
Q

Which of the following is an advantage
of a separate water carriage system?

A. Get choked easily
B. Difficult to clean the sewer
C. The more uniform character of sewage

A

C. The more uniform character of sewage

The sewage in the separate water
carriage system will be of more uniform
character and it will lend itself more
easily to purification.

72
Q

In which sewer joint, bituminous
compounds are added?

A. Collar joint
B. Flexible joint
C. Simplex joint
D. Mechanical joint

A

B. Flexible joint

When cement mortar is added in the
joints of sewer, they get easily cracked,
so bituminous compound is added to
overcome this problem and the joint is
called as Flexible or Bituminous joint.

73
Q

Formation of aerosols by nucleation
produces particles of size_

A. Less than 1 micron
B. Greater than 1 micron
C. Greater than 0.1 micron
D. Less than 0.1 micron

A

D. Less than 0.1 micron

Aerosol formation by molecular
nucleation leads to the production of
particles with size less than 1 micron.

74
Q

Which of the following device is used to
prevent the clogging of sewer pipes?

A. Drop manhole
B. Lamp hole
C. Flushing tank

A

C. Flushing tank

Flushing tank is used to flush and clean
the sewer to prevent it from clogging.
This is done either by automatic flushing tank or by hand operated flushing tank.

75
Q

Which of the following is a better test to
identify Coliforms?

A. Coliform index
B. Membrane filter technique
C. MPN test

A

B. Membrane filter technique

Membrane filter technique is a better
and simpler technique to identify
Coliforms. Various results are obtained in a shorter time than the multiple tube fermentation technique. MPN test and coliform index are not used now.

76
Q

A market situation where a unique
product or service is available from a
single vendor and that vendor can
prevent the entry of all others into the
market.

A. oligopsony
B. oligopoly
C. monopsony
D. monopoly

A

D. monopoly

77
Q

What do you call a market situation
where there are many sellers and few
buyers?

A. competition
B. oligopsony
C. oligopoly

A

B. oligopsony

78
Q

Under ordinary simple interest, how
many days in one year?

A. 300
B. 360
C. 365

A

B. 360

Ordinary Simple Interest - the interest is computed based on one bankers year.One bankers year is equal to 360 days
or 12 months, each with 30 days.

79
Q

Which of the following statements is
true for decisions under certainty?

A. Risk analysis is required.
B. Perfect knowledge of future outcomes
exists.
C. Decision-makers rely on historical data

A

B. Perfect knowledge of future outcomes
exists.

Decisions under certainty assume
perfect knowledge of future outcomes,
where all relevant information is
available to the decision-maker. There is no uncertainty or need for risk analysis.

Brief explanations for other choices:

Future outcomes are uncertain: This is not true for decisions under certainty, as future outcomes are known without
uncertainty.

Risk analysis is required: Risk analysis
is not necessary in decisions under
certainty since there is no uncertainty or
risk involved.

Decision-makers rely on historical data:
While historical data can be used in
decision-making, it is not the basis for decisions under certainty, which rely on known future outcomes.

80
Q

In this decision-making process, we know the information that is going to happen in the future.

A. Decision Under Risk
B. Decision Under Certainty
C. Decision Under Uncertainty

A

B. Decision Under Certainty

81
Q

Which decision-making technique is commonly used in decisions under certainty?

A. Break-even analysis.
B. Sensitivity analysis.
C. Decision tree analysis.
D. Monte Carlo simulation.

A

C. Decision tree analysis.

82
Q

Which of the following statements is true for decisions recognizing risk and decisions admitting uncertainty?

A. Both require the use of quantitative
analysis.
B. Both have the same decision-making
outcomes.
C. Both rely solely on historical data.

A

A. Both require the use of quantitative
analysis.

83
Q

Which technique is commonly used in
decisions admitting uncertainty to
explore multiple future scenarios and
their possible outcomes?

A. Sensitivity analysis.
B. Scenario analysis.
C. Break-even analysis.
D. Decision tree analysis.

A

B. Scenario analysis.

84
Q

In this decision-making process, we
know the possible outcomes but we do
not know which of them is going to
happen in the future and we can assess
the information with probabilities.

A. Decision Under Risk
B. Decision Under Uncertainty
C. Decision Under Certainty
D. All of these choices

A

A. Decision Under Risk

Declining Balance Method

85
Q

Which decision-making approach involves considering qualitative assessments, expert opinions, and available information when faced with uncertainties?

A. Decisions based on intuition.
B. Decisions admitting uncertainty.
C. Decisions recognizing risk.

A

B. Decisions admitting uncertainty.

86
Q

Which of the following is true for decisions recognizing risk and decisions admitting uncertainty?

A. Both focus on minimizing the potential
impact of uncertainties.
B. Both eliminate all unknown factors.
C. Both involve quantifying and analyzing
uncertainties.

A

C. Both involve quantifying and analyzing
uncertainties.

GEAS (14 decks)

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