Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Step 1 > Renal > Flashcards

Renal Flashcards

(87 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

When is the ureteric bud fully canalized?

A

10wk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What do the
pronephros
mesonephros
metanephros become?

A

Pronephros- degenerates
Mesonephros- male gential system (interim kidney for 1st trimester)
Metanephros- filtration portion of kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Where does the ureteric bud start?

A

collecting duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What presents as limb deformities, facial anomalies, low-set ears, retrognathia

A

Potter sequence (oligohydramnios)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What vessel does a horeshoe kidney get trapped under?

A

IMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the cause of multicystic dysplastic kidney?

A

abnormal interaction between ureteric bud and metanephric mesenchyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What percentage of body weight is

  • total body water
  • ICF
  • ECF?
A

60% total body water
40% ICF
20% ECF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are is used to measure plasma volume? ECF?

A

plasma volume- radiolabeled albumin

ECF- inulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How is clearance calculated?

A

Cx=UxV/Px

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a normal GFR?

A

100ml/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is used to calculate GFR? RPF?

A

GFR- inulin, creatinine clearance

RPF- PAH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is FF? What is a normal value?

A

FF=GFR/RPF

normal= 20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the effect of Ang II on RPF/GFR/FF? Why is this?

A

Ang II preferentially restricts efferent arteriole

decr RPF, incr GFR, incr FF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the effect of prostaglandin on RPF/GFR/FF? Why is this?

A

prostaglandins dilate afferent arterioles

incr RPF, incr GFR, FF constant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the threshold of glucosuria? When are transporters fully saturated?

A

threshold- 200mg/dL

saturated- 375 mg/dl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What presents as a pellagra-like disease with neutral amminoaciduria?

A

Hartnup disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the treatment of Hartnup disease?

A

High protein diet and nicotinic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does effect does Ang II have on kidney absorption?

A

PCT- stimulates Na/H exchange- incr abs Na, H20, HCO3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What do loop diuretics work on?

A

NaKCC of thick ascending loop of Henle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How do loop diuretics affect absorption of Mg, Ca?

A

diminish + potential in thick ascending limb

Mg2+, Ca2+ no longer diffuse down gradient (decr reabsorption)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the effects of PTH on the kidney?

A

inhibit Na/PO4 cotransport in PCT

incr Ca/Na exchange in DCT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What renal tubular defect presents as metabolic acidosis, glucosuria, amnioaciduria?

A

Fanconi syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is defective in Fanconi syndrome?

A

Reabsorptive defect in PCT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What renal tubular defect presents as hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, and hypercalciuria?

A

Bartter syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What renal tubular defect presents as hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, no hypercalciuria?
Gitelman syndrome
26
What renal tubular defect presents as hypertension, hypokalemia, metabolic acidosis, decr aldost?
Liddle syndrome
27
What is the treatment of Liddle syndrome?
Amiloride
28
What is defective in Bartter syndrome?
Na/K/CC in thick ascending loop of Henle
29
What is defective in Liddle syndrome?
Incr Na+ reabsorption in distal and collecting tubules (aut dom- incr ENac activity)
30
What is defective in Gitelman syndrome?
Reabsorptive defect of NaCl in DCT
31
What is the autonomic stimulation of the kidney?
Incr sympathetic tone (B1 receptors) | incr renin secretion
32
What effect does AT II have on baroreceptor reflect?
limits reflex bradycardia
33
What is the stimulus and effect of ANP?
stimulus- incr volume in atria | effect- relaxes smooth muscle via cGMP- incr GFR, decr renin
34
What cells secrete EPO?
interstitial cells in peritubular capillary bed
35
What is the effect of insulin on K+ levels? What is the mechanism?
Shifts K+ into cell via incr activity of Na/K ATPase (INsulin, K+ IN cell)
36
What is the effect of digitalis on K+?
shifts out of cell- causes hyperkalemia
37
What is the effect of B-adrenergic stimulus on K+ levels?
B-adrenergic antag- K+ out of cell | B-adrenergic agonist- K+ into cell
38
What does a wide QRS and peaked T wave indicate?
Hyperkalemia
39
What does U waves and flattened T waves indicate?
Hypokalemia
40
Alteration in what electrolyte causes tetany and torsades de pointes?
hypomagnesemia
41
Alteration in what electrolyte causes decr DTRs, bradycardia, hypotension, hypocalcemia?
Hypermagnesemia
42
Alteration in what electrolyte causes irritability, stupor, coma?
high serum Na
43
Alteration in what electrolyte causes nausea, malaise, stupor, coma?
low serum Na
44
Alteration in what electrolyte causes tetany, seizures, prolonged QT?
low serum Ca
45
What is the henderson-hasselbach equation?
pH=6.1+ log[HCO3]/0.03PCO2
46
What is Winter's formula?
PCO=1.5[HCO3]+8+/-2 | predicts mixed acid base disorder
47
How is an anion gap calculated?
AG=Na-(Cl+HCO3) | Normal=8-12
48
What are the effects of salicylates on arterial pH?
early- respiratory alkalosis | late-anion gap metabolic acidosis
49
Compare Type 1, 2, and 4 renal tubular acidosis
Type 1- distal, pH > 5.5 defect in ability of a-intercalatd cells to secrete H+ Type 2- proximal, pH<5.5 defect in proximal tubule HCO3- reabsoprtion Type 4- hypoaldosteronism, aldost resistance or K+ sparing diuretic
50
What do fatty casts indicate?
Nephrotic syndrome
51
What do granular casts indicate?
acute tubular necrosis
52
What do waxy casts indicate?
advanced renal disease/ chronic renal failure
53
What do hyaline casts indicate?
Can be normal | often seen in concentrated urine
54
Describe findings for nephrotic syndrome vs nephritic syndrome
nephortic- massive proteinuria, hyperlipidemia, fatty casts, edema nephritic- hematuria, RBC casts in urine (inflammatory process)
55
Nephrotic syndrome that presents with segmental sclerosis and hyalinosis
focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
56
Nephrotic syndrome that presents with diffuse capillary and GBM thickening, spike and dome appearance with subepithelial deposits
Membranous nephropathy
57
Nephrotic syndrome that shows apple-green birefringence with Congo-red stain
Amyloidosis
58
Nephrotic or nephritic syndrome that shows subendothelial immune complexes, tram-track appearance
Type I membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
59
Nephrotic or nephritic syndrome that shows intramembranous IC deposits ("dense deposits")
Type II membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
60
Nephrotic syndrome that shows mensangial expansion, GBM thickening, eosinophilic nodular glomerulosclerosis
Diabetic glomerulonephropathy
61
What is the pathogenesis of diabetic glomerulonephropathy (2 parts)
NEG of GBM: incr permeability/thickening | NEG of efferent arterioles: mesangial expansion (incr GFR)
62
What kidney syndrome is associated with HBV and HCV?
Type I MPGN
63
What kidney syndrome is associated with C3 nephritic factor?
Type II MPGN
64
What is the etiology of Goodpasture syndrome?
Type II hypersensitivity | Ab against GBM, alveolar BM
65
What type of immune reaction is acute poststreptococcal GN?
Type III hypersensivity
66
Presents with peripheral and periorbital edema, dark urine, hypertension
acute poststreptococcal GN
67
Presents with a cresent-moon shape in glomerulus
RPGN
68
What is the defect in Alport syndrome?
Type IV collagen defect
69
What presents as glomerulonephritis, deafness, eye problems
Alport syndrome
70
What is the treatment of Uric acid kidney stones?
alkalinization of urine
71
What is the treatment of cystine kidney stones?
alkalinization of urine
72
What type of calcium kidney stones are associated with incr, decr pH?
Incr pH- CaPO4 | decr pH- Caoxalate
73
What type of kidney stones are envelope or dumbell shape?
Calcium
74
What type of kidney stones are coffin lid shape?
Ammonium magnesium phosphate
75
What type of kidney stones are rhomboid or rosette shape?
Uric acid
76
What type of kidney stones are hexagonal?
Cystine
77
How does renal cell carcinoma metastasize? What are common sites?
hematogenously | lung and bone
78
What gene deletion is associated with renal cell carcinoma?
deletion on chromosome 3 | hereditary=VHL
79
What is the underlying cause of squamous cell carcinoma of bladder?
chronic iritation-- squamous cell metaplasia | schistosoma hematobium, smoking
80
Describe the pathology of renal oncocytoma
large eosinophilic cells with abundant mitochondria, no perinuclear clearing
81
What infection is associated with hemorrhagic cystitis?
adenovirus
82
What areas are spared in acute glomerulonephritis?
glomeruli and vessels
83
Presents as thyroidization of the kidney
chronic pyelonphritis
84
What areas of the kidney (specifically) are most susceptible to ischemic vs nephrotoxic damage?
ischemic: proximal tubule, thick ascending limb nephrotoxic: proximal tubule
85
Compare BUN/Cr and FENa for Prerenal, intrinsic renal, and postrenal azotemia
Prerenal: BUN/Cr >20, FENa 2% Postrenal: >15, >1-2%
86
Compare simple vs complex renal cysts
Simple- outer cortex, filled with ultrafiltrate- often benign/incidental complex cysts- septated, enhanced, solid components- require follow up (risk RCC)
87
What is the inheritance and genetic assoc of ADPKD?
Aut Dom PKD1- Chr 16 PKD2- Chr 4

Step 1 (34 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions