Revision notes: 9. Microbiology Flashcards

(54 cards)

1
Q

Examples of gram negative bacteria

A
Clostridium
Corynebacterium
Listeria
Bacillus
Actinomycetes
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2
Q

Gram negative bacilli examples

A
Haemophilus
Klebsiella
Legionella
Pseudomonas
E.  Coli
Proteus
Helicobacter
Salmonella
Campylobacter
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3
Q

Group B strep conditions?

A

Chorioamnionitis
Neonatal sepsis
Endometritis

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4
Q

Group A strep otherwise known as

A

Strep pyogenes

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5
Q

What is maternal carriage percentage of GBS

A

20-35%

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6
Q

Neonatal mortality from early onset GBS

A

6%

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7
Q

Definition of prolonged rupture of membranes at term

A

> 18 hours

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8
Q

Fetal mortality rate from Listeriosis

A

50%

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9
Q

Treatment of uncomplicated gonorrhoea

A

Either:

1g IM Ceftriaxone single dose

OR

Spectinomycin 2g IM single dose (excreted in breast milk - caution)

OR

Azithromycin 2g oral single dose

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10
Q

Follow up after gonorrhoea treatment

A

Test of cure 3 days after treatment

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11
Q

Gonorrhoea complications

A

Gonococcal ophthalmia neonatorum
Neonatal vaginitis
Disseminated gonococcal disease

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12
Q

Amsel criteria for diagnosis of BV

A

Vaginal discharge
Clue cells
pH >4.5
Fishy odour with alkali on a wet mount (whiff test)

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13
Q

Treatment of BV

A

Metronidazole 400mg BD 7 days

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14
Q

Features of secondary syphilis

A

Symmetrical non-itchy rash on trunk

Condylomata latum

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15
Q

Tertiary syphilis features

A

Gummas
Neurosyphilis - tabes dorsalis, generalised paresis of the insane, Argyll robertson pupil
De Musset’s sign (from syphilitic aortitis)

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16
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis is what type of organism

A

obligate intracellular gram negative organism

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17
Q

Test of cure in chlamydia?

A

Only in pregnant or breast-feeding women

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18
Q

Chlamydia treatment

A

Amoxicillin 500mg TDS 7 days

Or

Erythromycin 500mg BD 14 days

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19
Q

What causes type 2 nec fasc

A

Group A strep

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20
Q

what is fitz-hugh-curtis syndrome

A

RUQ pain, perihepatitis, PID

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21
Q

complications of PID

A

Ectopic pregnancy
Tubal infertility (12%, 20%, 50% after 3rd episode)
Fitz-hugh-curtis
Chronic pelvic pain

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22
Q

OP treatment of PID

A

Oral ofloxacin 400mg BD AND metronidazole 400mg BD 14 days

OR

IM ceftriaxone 250mg or IM cefoxitin 2g STAT with oral probenecid 1g, followed by doxy 100mg BD and metronidazole 400mg BD for 14 days

23
Q

IV treatment of PID

A

IV cefoxitin 2g TDS AND IV doxy 100mg BD

followed by oral doxy 100mg BD + metro 400mg BD for total of 14 days

24
Q

Triad of Reiter’s syndrome

A

Urethritis
Arthritis
Uveitis

25
Diagnosis of Trichomonas vaginalis
Wet prep PCR Culture
26
congenital defects associated with CMV
``` Sensorineural hearing loss Retinitis Hepatosplenomegaly Cerebral palsy Intrauterine FGR Microcephaly ```
27
Treatment of maternal varicella infection
Aciclovir
28
Parvovirus B19 otherwise known as
Slapped cheek syndrome Fifth disease Erythema infectiosum Causes hydrops fetalis in 3%
29
HPV alpha subtypes inducing malignant changes
16, 18, 31, 33, 45
30
What stage of syphilis are gummas seen
Tertiary
31
Which chlamydia subtype causes lymphogranuloma venereum
Chlamydia trachomatis L1-L3
32
Which Immunoglobulin crosses the placenta
IgG
33
What type of fungus is candida albicans
Yeast-like
34
Condylomata latum occur at what syphilis stage
Secondary
35
Quadrivalent HPV vaccine - which subtypes
6, 11, 16, 18
36
In which cells does CMV lie dormant?
Monocytes
37
Which organisms contain ribosomes, do not have a rigid cell wall but cannot be grown on inanimate culture?
Chlamydia
38
What is the incubation period for varicella infection?
10-20 days
39
Which pathogen is commonly responsible for cellulitis?
Streptococcus pyogenes
40
Which organism is associated with clue cells?
Gardnerella vaginalis
41
A pregnant woman is diagnosed with toxoplasmosis. What is the drug of choice for reducing the risk of fetal infection?
Spiramycin
42
A 30-year-old woman presents to the antenatal clinic after a visit to her home country in Africa. She is suffering from flu-like symptoms, myalgia and her posterior cervical lymph nodes are found to be enlarged. Her temperature is 38.4°C
Toxoplasmosis WCC, ESR and CRP usually normal
43
A 29-year-old woman who is 39 weeks pregnant presents to the delivery suite in labour. Her previous child was affected by group B streptococcus (GBS) infection. She is allergic to penicillin. Which antibiotic should be prescribed for her as a prophylaxis for GBS?
Clindamycin
44
MRSA infections may respond to which antibiotic?
Vancomycin
45
What is the incubation period of rubella?
13-20 days
46
A pregnant woman at 18 weeks of gestation presents with bloody diarrhoea. Stool microscopy and culture identifies Gram-negative, facultative anaerobic rods. Which organism is most likely to be responsible?
Salmonella
47
In genito-urinary medicine clinics, a technique where the microscope condenser causes the bacteria to appear brightly lit is especially useful for visualising very thin organisms such as treponema pallidum. Which microscopic technique fits this description?
Darkfield microscopy
48
Treatment of asymptomatic non-pregnant woman with incidental finding of BV
No treatment
49
Herpes transmission rate during delivery with primary genital lesions present
41%
50
VDRL test positive other than syphilis?
Yaws Bejel Pinta
51
What is trichomonas vaginalis
An anaerobic, flagellated protozoan parasite and the causative agent of trichomoniasis, an STI causing fishy smelling vaginal discharge, genital itching and painful urination Treatment: metro 400mg BD 7 days
52
glycopeptide mechanism of action e.g. vancomycin
cell wall synthesis inhibition
53
Ciprofloxacin mechanism of action
Interferes with DNA replication
54