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LAM 2 scs RUSVM > Ruminants/food animal (French) > Flashcards

Ruminants/food animal (French) Flashcards

1
Q

In a heavily gravid cow the uterus displaces the rumen _______ and the abomasum ______.

A

Dorsally

Cranially

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2
Q

What prevents milk from entering the rumen in a suckling calf?

A

Esophageal groove

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3
Q

When is the rumen functional in a calf?

A

Once grain is introduced

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4
Q

For how long should you auscult the rumen?

A

2 minutes

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5
Q

What is the primary purpose of the primary rumen contraction? Secondary rumen contraction?

A

1- Mixing 2- Eructation (gas expulsion)

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6
Q

How is cud returned to the mouth from the reticulum for re-mastication?

A

Reverse peristalsis of the esophagus

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7
Q

T/F: A cow can ruminate while standing if she is leaning against a solid structure.

A

False, must lie down to ruminate/chew the cud

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8
Q

How is the strength of rumen contractions measured?

A

Observing/feeling movement, Auscultating the loudness of the sounds

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9
Q

How does hypocalcemia affect the primary rumination cycle?

A

Can cause hypomotility or atony (complete absence of reticuloruminal motility)

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10
Q

What is prevented when foam or fluid are in contact with the cardia?

A

Sphincter will remain close, not allowing for eructation

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11
Q

What is the purpose of chewing the cud?

A

Addition of bicarb allowing for further breakdown of food

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12
Q

From dorsal to ventral, what are the stratifications of the ruminal content?

A

Gas Fibrous mat Fluid Heaviest particles

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13
Q

What about the rumen can be assessed by internal palpation?

A

Volume and consistency of content

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14
Q

What is the most accurate method of rumen fluid examination?

A

Rumenocentesis

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15
Q

What is used to allow for the passage of an ororuminal tube?

A

Frick speculum

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16
Q

Why must you minimize exposure to cool temperatures, air and light to a sample of rumen fluid?

A

Exposure kills protozoa

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17
Q

If you need to transport a sample of ruminal fluid for a long distance, how do you need to secure it?

A

In a double jacket container

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18
Q

What is the normal color of rumen fluid in a cow that is fed mostly hay?

A

Olive to brownish-green

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19
Q

What does black/green rumen fluid indicate?

A

Ruminal stasis

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20
Q

What does milky rumen fluid indicate?

A

Lactic acidosis

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21
Q

What is the color of the ruminal fluid of a typical dairy cow? Why?

A

Yellowish Due to TMR feeding which contains lots of grain

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22
Q

What does a rotting odor of rumen fluid indicate?

A

Rumen putrefaction

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23
Q

What is the normal consistency of rumen fluid?

A

Slightly viscous

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24
Q

What does it indicate if rumen fluid is watery?

A

Anorexia

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25
Q

What does it indicate when a rumen fluid sedimentation activity test shows the sample sedimenting very rapidly (<3 min)?

A

Inactive micoflora (Ruminal acidosis)

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26
Q

What is the normal pH of rumen fluid from a dairy cow? What about a beef cow?

A

Dairy: >5.5-6 (TMR fed) Beef: 6-7 (Grass fed)

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27
Q

What does a rumen pH <5.5 indicate?

A

Lactic acidosis

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28
Q

What test is used to analyze anaerobic fermentation in the rumen?

A

Methylene blue reduction test

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29
Q

What test is used to analyze fiber digestion in the rumen?

A

Cellulose digestion test

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30
Q

What test is used to analyze carbohydrate digestion in the rumen?

A

Glucose fermentation test

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31
Q

What test is used to analyze protein digestion in the rumen?

A

Nitrate reduction test

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32
Q

How many protozoa per 40x field should you see when making a qualitative analysis of rumen fluid?

A

>40

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33
Q

What test is used to definitively diagnose a LDA? What is a positive result?

A

Liptak test (Abdominocentesis of abomasum) + = Acidic pH

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34
Q

What form of abomasal displacement is common after parturition?

A

Left

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35
Q

What are the 2 true cow emergency conditions (surgical)?

A

RDA Uterine prolapse

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36
Q

How many mammary glands does a cow have? Doe?

A

Cow- 4 Doe- 2

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37
Q

What does it mean to dry off a cow?

A

Stop milking her

38
Q

Udder quarter:

You know what to do

A
39
Q

How many WBCs per mL can be present in a healthy gland? Infected gland? What types of cells?

A

Healthy: <100,000; Mononuclear cells

Infected: 200,000-1mil+; PMNs (polymorphonuclear leukocytes )

40
Q

List a few defences against mastitis in the udder.

A

Antibacterial enzymes

Lactoferrin

Cytotoxic lymphocytes

Low O2 tension

Complement

Immunoglobulins (IgG2)

41
Q

What is the predominant form of mastitis?

A

Subclinical

42
Q

The test performed cow side to evaluate individual quarters for siubclinical mastitis is…

a. Mastitis Test
b. California Test
c. California Mastitis Test
d. Juan’s Test

A

c. California Mastitis Test

Abbreviated as CMT

43
Q

What does color indicate when performing a CMT? What happens if there are many somatic cells?

A

Color = pH (Deep purple = Alkaline)

Sample will become viscous

44
Q

What is the upper acceptable limit for somatic cells in milk ?

A

300,000

45
Q

What is the somatic cell range for a CMT score of 1? 2? 3?

A

1: 400,000-1,200,000 / 400k-1.2mil
2: 1,200,000-5,000,000 /1.2mil-5mil
3: >5,000,000/ >5mil

46
Q

What is the reservoir for contagious mastitis? Environmental mastitis?

A

Contagious: Mammary gland

Environmental: Environment

47
Q

Contagious mastitis is usually…

a. Persistent and subclinical
b. Transient and subclinical
c. Persistent and clinical
d. Transient and clinical

A

a. Persistent and subclinical

48
Q

Environmental mastitis is usually…

a. Persistent and subclinical
b. Transient and subclinical
c. Persistent and clinical
d. Transient and clinical

A

d. Transient and clinical

49
Q

What hormone is released from where to initiate milk letdown?

A

Oxytocin from posteror pituitary

50
Q

What is done before a cow is milked?

A

Each teat is stripped

Teats are sanitized

Teats are thoroughly dried (new towel per cow, each teat has own space on towel)

51
Q

What causes milk to be removed from the udder when using a milking cluster?

A

Vaccum (& air alternating pulsation)

52
Q

How long is milking time ideally if you are getting good milk ejection and milking machine function?

a. 7-10 min
b. 5-7.5 min
c. 2-4 min
d. 3.5- 5.5 min

A

b. 5-7.5 min

53
Q

What is the BTSCC limit for grade A milk in the USA?

A

750,000/mL

54
Q

What are the 3 mahor mastitis pathogens?

A
  • Strep agalacae*
  • Straph aureus*
  • Mycoplasma bovis*
55
Q

Match the test result with either Strep agalatiae or Staph aureus. (some of the listed do not apply to either)

Catalase negative

Catalase postive

CAMP negative

CAMP positive

Esculin negative

Esculin positive

Coagulase negative

Coagulase positive

A
  • S. agalactiae:* Catalase negative, Esculin negative, CAMP positive
  • S. aureus:* Catalase positive, Coagulase positive
56
Q

What is the minor mastitis pathogen? Is it catalase positive or negative?

A

Corynebacterium bovis

Catalase postive

57
Q

Which 2 contagious mastitis pathogens are the most difficult to cure? Which one is not at all resposive to treatment?

A
  • S.aureus* and M.bovis
  • M.bovis* is not treatable
58
Q

What is the best treatment option for mastitis caused by S.aureus?

A

Treating with intramammary antibiotics (B-lactams) at dry off

59
Q

What pathogen that causes mastitis can also cause polyarthritis, respiratory disease, and otitis media?

A

Mycoplasma bovis

60
Q

What are the most common pathogens that cause environmental mastitis?

A

Coliform bacteria: Streptococci other than agalactiea (S.uberis, S.bovis, S. dysgalactiae), E.coli

61
Q

When is the mammary gland most suscpetible to environmental masitits? When is another time when cows are more susceptible to this?

A

During dry period (Milk accumulates)

  • Early dry= Involution*
  • Late dry = Colostrogenesis*

Early lactation (immunosuppresion)

62
Q

What can be done to decrease the risk of environmental mastitis when cows are most susceptible?

A

Antibiotics during dry period

Vaccination (Except against Streptoccocal mastitis)

Teat sealant during dry period (external or internal)

63
Q

Which of the following s ot a typical environmental mastitis pathogen?

a. E.coli
b. Klebsiella
c. Strep uberis
d. Staph aureus

A

d. Staph aureus

64
Q

What are the 2 options for definitively diagnosing environmental mastitis?

A

Culture

Molecular diagnostic tests

65
Q

Control of environmental mastitis does not include

a. Antibiotics
b. Bedding
c. Cleanliness
d. Pre-post dipping techniques

A

a. Antibiotics

66
Q

What is the term for producing a detectable immune response through vaccination?

A

Immunization

Does not imply protection

67
Q

What are the 2 options for vaccination sites in cows?

A

Neck

Costochrondral junction

68
Q

What is the typical withdrawal time for beef cows after a vaccination?

A

28 days

69
Q

On a vaccine label, what does “…for the prevention of infection with…” mean?

a. Prevents all colonization and replication
b. Efficacy >80% at 95% CI
c. Produces a clinically significant effect in preventing disease in challenged animals
d. Alleviates disease severity or duration

A

a. Prevents all colonization and replication

70
Q

On a vaccine label, what does “…as an aid in the prevention of disease due to…” mean?

a. Prevents all colonization and replication
b. Efficacy >80% at 95% CI
c. Produces a clinically significant effect in preventing disease in challenged animals
d. Alleviates disease severity or duration

A

c. Produces a clinically significant effect in preventing disease in challenged animals

71
Q

On a vaccine label, what does “…for the prevention of disease due to…” mean?

a. Prevents all colonization and replication
b. Efficacy >80% at 95% CI
c. Produces a clinically significant effect in preventing disease in challenged animals
d. Alleviates disease severity or duration

A

b. Efficacy >80% at 95% CI

72
Q

What are the 6 “F” vaccine rules?

A

Frequent disease

eFfective

Functional and practical

Financially sound

Federal mandates

Fatal disease

73
Q

What is the most common bovine vaccine claim?

a. Prevention of infection
b. Prevention of disease
c. Aid in the prevention of disease
d. Aid in the control of disease

A

c. Aid in the prevention of disease

74
Q

When do maternal antibodies decrease in calfs?

A

3 months

75
Q

Which vaccine type typically gives you a longer, stronger, and cheaper protections?

a. Killed/Inactive
b. Modified Live

A

b. Modified Live

76
Q

What increases more quickly, CRE or BUN, in a cow with impaired kidney function?

A

CRE

Due to rumiant’s ability to recycle urea through rumen

77
Q

What bacteria are associated with pyelonephritis?

A

E.coli (environmental)

C. renale (infectious)

78
Q

Which of these are not CS associated with UTI/pyelonephritis?

Ill thrift

Fever

Vague colic signs

Severe colic signs

Stranguria

Polyuria

Anuria

Purulent or bloody urine

A

Severe colic signs

Polyuria

Anuria

Note: Stranguria was stressed

79
Q

What antibiotics are usually good choices for food animals withb UTI/pyelonephritis? For how long?

A

Penicillin

B-lactams

4+ week

80
Q

What causes contagious bovine pyelonephritis? Upon palpation, what may you feel?

A

Corynebacterium renale

Thickened bladder wall

Ascending UTI in cows

81
Q

What is the treatment for contagious bovine pyelonephritis?

A

High dose penicllin 1 at least 2 weeks

Cull may be more cost/labor-efficient

82
Q

Why are Angoras and Merinos worse off when they get ulcerative posthitis or vulviti? What causes this disease and the clinical signs?

A

Have hair at urinary orifice

Caused when animal with high protein diets are infected with C.renale which hydrolyzed urea to form ammonia in urine -> irritates skin

83
Q

What acute disease occurs in bulls and steers due to Fusobacterium necrophorum and wet feedlot pens?

A

Necrotic posthitis

84
Q

T/F: Lepto should be high on your DDx list for any ruminant with a urinary issue.

A

False, repro issues much more typical

85
Q

Is vaccination for lepto cosidered effective? What is the major consideration with this vaccine?

A

Yes

Short duration, must be careful to booster on time

86
Q

Name a few nephrotoxic metals.

A

Arsenic

Copper

Lead

Mercury

Zinc

87
Q

How can you protect a food animal’s kidneys from the nephrotoxic effects of antibiotics, such as aminoglycosides, tetracyclunes and sulfonamides?

A

Give with plenty of fluids

88
Q

What toxic plant causes heath due to hyperkalemia?

A

Pigweed, red root (Amaranthus retroflexus)

Causes perirenal edema and kidney pathology

89
Q

What causes bovine enzootic hematuria? What is an affected animal likely to develop?

A

Bracken fern

TCC (Transitional cell carcinoma)

90
Q

Which plant is hepatotoxic, npehrotoxic and causes precipitation of proteins? What is the toxic prinicple?

A

Oak Both buds and acrorns= toxic

Tannin or Gallotanin

Causes gastroenteritis,hemorhhages, edema, and renal lesions

91
Q

What congential defect commonly occurs following a c-section?

A

Patent urachus

92
Q

What neoplasias commonly affect the external genitalia of males?

A

Fibropapilloma

SCC

LAM 2 scs RUSVM (9 decks)

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