Ruminants/food animal (French) Flashcards
(92 cards)
1
Q
In a heavily gravid cow the uterus displaces the rumen _______ and the abomasum ______.
A
Dorsally
Cranially
2
Q
What prevents milk from entering the rumen in a suckling calf?
A
Esophageal groove
3
Q
When is the rumen functional in a calf?
A
Once grain is introduced
4
Q
For how long should you auscult the rumen?
A
2 minutes
5
Q
What is the primary purpose of the primary rumen contraction? Secondary rumen contraction?
A
1- Mixing 2- Eructation (gas expulsion)
6
Q
How is cud returned to the mouth from the reticulum for re-mastication?
A
Reverse peristalsis of the esophagus
7
Q
T/F: A cow can ruminate while standing if she is leaning against a solid structure.
A
False, must lie down to ruminate/chew the cud
8
Q
How is the strength of rumen contractions measured?
A
Observing/feeling movement, Auscultating the loudness of the sounds
9
Q
How does hypocalcemia affect the primary rumination cycle?
A
Can cause hypomotility or atony (complete absence of reticuloruminal motility)
10
Q
What is prevented when foam or fluid are in contact with the cardia?
A
Sphincter will remain close, not allowing for eructation
11
Q
What is the purpose of chewing the cud?
A
Addition of bicarb allowing for further breakdown of food
12
Q
From dorsal to ventral, what are the stratifications of the ruminal content?
A
Gas Fibrous mat Fluid Heaviest particles
13
Q
What about the rumen can be assessed by internal palpation?
A
Volume and consistency of content
14
Q
What is the most accurate method of rumen fluid examination?
A
Rumenocentesis
15
Q
What is used to allow for the passage of an ororuminal tube?
A
Frick speculum
16
Q
Why must you minimize exposure to cool temperatures, air and light to a sample of rumen fluid?
A
Exposure kills protozoa
17
Q
If you need to transport a sample of ruminal fluid for a long distance, how do you need to secure it?
A
In a double jacket container
18
Q
What is the normal color of rumen fluid in a cow that is fed mostly hay?
A
Olive to brownish-green
19
Q
What does black/green rumen fluid indicate?
A
Ruminal stasis
20
Q
What does milky rumen fluid indicate?
A
Lactic acidosis
21
Q
What is the color of the ruminal fluid of a typical dairy cow? Why?
A
Yellowish Due to TMR feeding which contains lots of grain
22
Q
What does a rotting odor of rumen fluid indicate?
A
Rumen putrefaction
23
Q
What is the normal consistency of rumen fluid?
A
Slightly viscous
24
Q
What does it indicate if rumen fluid is watery?
A
Anorexia
25
What does it indicate when a rumen fluid sedimentation activity test shows the sample sedimenting very rapidly (\<3 min)?
Inactive micoflora (Ruminal acidosis)
26
What is the normal pH of rumen fluid from a dairy cow? What about a beef cow?
Dairy: \>5.5-6 (TMR fed) Beef: 6-7 (Grass fed)
27
What does a rumen pH \<5.5 indicate?
Lactic acidosis
28
What test is used to analyze anaerobic fermentation in the rumen?
Methylene blue reduction test
29
What test is used to analyze fiber digestion in the rumen?
Cellulose digestion test
30
What test is used to analyze carbohydrate digestion in the rumen?
Glucose fermentation test
31
What test is used to analyze protein digestion in the rumen?
Nitrate reduction test
32
How many protozoa per 40x field should you see when making a qualitative analysis of rumen fluid?
\>40
33
What test is used to definitively diagnose a LDA? What is a positive result?
Liptak test (Abdominocentesis of abomasum) + = Acidic pH
34
What form of abomasal displacement is common after parturition?
Left
35
What are the 2 true cow emergency conditions (surgical)?
RDA Uterine prolapse
36
How many mammary glands does a cow have? Doe?
Cow- 4 Doe- 2
37
What does it mean to dry off a cow?
Stop milking her
38
Udder quarter:
You know what to do
39
How many WBCs per mL can be present in a healthy gland? Infected gland? What types of cells?
Healthy: \<100,000; Mononuclear cells
Infected: 200,000-1mil+; PMNs (polymorphonuclear leukocytes )
40
List a few defences against mastitis in the udder.
Antibacterial enzymes
Lactoferrin
Cytotoxic lymphocytes
Low O2 tension
Complement
Immunoglobulins (IgG2)
41
What is the predominant form of mastitis?
Subclinical
42
The test performed cow side to evaluate individual quarters for siubclinical mastitis is...
a. Mastitis Test
b. California Test
c. California Mastitis Test
d. Juan's Test
c. California Mastitis Test
## Footnote
*Abbreviated as CMT*
43
What does color indicate when performing a CMT? What happens if there are many somatic cells?
Color = pH *(Deep purple = Alkaline)*
Sample will become viscous
44
What is the upper acceptable limit for somatic cells in milk ?
300,000
45
What is the somatic cell range for a CMT score of 1? 2? 3?
1: 400,000-1,200,000 / **400k-1.2mil**
2: 1,200,000-5,000,000 /**1.2mil-5mil**
3: \>5,000,000/ **\>5mil**
46
What is the reservoir for contagious mastitis? Environmental mastitis?
Contagious: Mammary gland
Environmental: Environment
47
Contagious mastitis is usually...
a. Persistent and subclinical
b. Transient and subclinical
c. Persistent and clinical
d. Transient and clinical
a. Persistent and subclinical
48
Environmental mastitis is usually...
a. Persistent and subclinical
b. Transient and subclinical
c. Persistent and clinical
d. Transient and clinical
d. Transient and clinical
49
What hormone is released from where to initiate milk letdown?
Oxytocin from posteror pituitary
50
What is done before a cow is milked?
Each teat is stripped
Teats are sanitized
Teats are thoroughly dried (new towel per cow, each teat has own space on towel)
51
What causes milk to be removed from the udder when using a milking cluster?
Vaccum (& air alternating pulsation)
52
How long is milking time ideally if you are getting good milk ejection and milking machine function?
a. 7-10 min
b. 5-7.5 min
c. 2-4 min
d. 3.5- 5.5 min
b. 5-7.5 min
53
What is the BTSCC limit for grade A milk in the USA?
750,000/mL
54
What are the 3 mahor mastitis pathogens?
* Strep agalacae*
* Straph aureus*
* Mycoplasma bovis*
55
Match the test result with either *Strep agalatiae* or *Staph aureus*. (some of the listed do not apply to either)
Catalase negative
Catalase postive
CAMP negative
CAMP positive
Esculin negative
Esculin positive
Coagulase negative
Coagulase positive
* S. agalactiae:* Catalase negative, Esculin negative, CAMP positive
* S. aureus:* Catalase positive, Coagulase positive
56
What is the minor mastitis pathogen? Is it catalase positive or negative?
*Corynebacterium bovis*
Catalase postive
57
Which 2 contagious mastitis pathogens are the most difficult to cure? Which one is not at all resposive to treatment?
* S.aureus* and *M.bovis*
* M.bovis* is not treatable
58
What is the best treatment option for mastitis caused by *S.aureus?*
Treating with intramammary **antibiotics** (B-lactams) at **dry off**
59
What pathogen that causes mastitis can also cause polyarthritis, respiratory disease, and otitis media?
*Mycoplasma bovis*
60
What are the most common pathogens that cause environmental mastitis?
Coliform bacteria: Streptococci other than agalactiea (*S.uberis, S.bovis, S. dysgalactiae)*, *E.coli*
61
When is the mammary gland most suscpetible to environmental masitits? When is another time when cows are more susceptible to this?
During **dry period** *(Milk accumulates)*
* Early dry= Involution*
* Late dry = Colostrogenesis*
**Early lactation** (*immunosuppresion)*
62
What can be done to decrease the risk of environmental mastitis when cows are most susceptible?
**Antibiotics** during dry period
**Vaccination** *(Except against Streptoccocal mastitis)*
**Teat sealant** during dry period (external or internal)
63
Which of the following s ot a typical environmental mastitis pathogen?
a. E.coli
b. Klebsiella
c. Strep uberis
d. Staph aureus
d. Staph aureus
64
What are the 2 options for definitively diagnosing environmental mastitis?
Culture
Molecular diagnostic tests
65
Control of environmental mastitis does not include
a. Antibiotics
b. Bedding
c. Cleanliness
d. Pre-post dipping techniques
a. Antibiotics
66
What is the term for producing a detectable immune response through vaccination?
Immunization
## Footnote
*Does not imply protection*
67
What are the 2 options for vaccination sites in cows?
Neck
Costochrondral junction
68
What is the typical withdrawal time for beef cows after a vaccination?
28 days
69
On a vaccine label, what does "...for the prevention of infection with..." mean?
a. Prevents all colonization and replication
b. Efficacy \>80% at 95% CI
c. Produces a clinically significant effect in preventing disease in challenged animals
d. Alleviates disease severity or duration
a. Prevents all colonization and replication
70
On a vaccine label, what does "...as an aid in the prevention of disease due to..." mean?
a. Prevents all colonization and replication
b. Efficacy \>80% at 95% CI
c. Produces a clinically significant effect in preventing disease in challenged animals
d. Alleviates disease severity or duration
c. Produces a clinically significant effect in preventing disease in challenged animals
71
On a vaccine label, what does "...for the prevention of disease due to..." mean?
a. Prevents all colonization and replication
b. Efficacy \>80% at 95% CI
c. Produces a clinically significant effect in preventing disease in challenged animals
d. Alleviates disease severity or duration
b. Efficacy \>80% at 95% CI
72
What are the 6 "F" vaccine rules?
Frequent disease
eFfective
Functional and practical
Financially sound
Federal mandates
Fatal disease
73
What is the most common bovine vaccine claim?
a. Prevention of infection
b. Prevention of disease
c. Aid in the prevention of disease
d. Aid in the control of disease
c. Aid in the prevention of disease
74
When do maternal antibodies decrease in calfs?
3 months
75
Which vaccine type typically gives you a longer, stronger, and cheaper protections?
a. Killed/Inactive
b. Modified Live
b. Modified Live
76
What increases more quickly, CRE or BUN, in a cow with impaired kidney function?
CRE
## Footnote
*Due to rumiant's ability to recycle urea through rumen*
77
What bacteria are associated with pyelonephritis?
E.coli *(environmental)*
C. renale (*infectious)*
78
Which of these are not CS associated with UTI/pyelonephritis?
Ill thrift
Fever
Vague colic signs
Severe colic signs
Stranguria
Polyuria
Anuria
Purulent or bloody urine
Severe colic signs
Polyuria
Anuria
*Note: Stranguria was stressed*
79
What antibiotics are usually good choices for food animals withb UTI/pyelonephritis? For how long?
Penicillin
B-lactams
4+ week
80
What causes contagious bovine pyelonephritis? Upon palpation, what may you feel?
Corynebacterium renale
Thickened bladder wall
*Ascending UTI in cows*
81
What is the treatment for contagious bovine pyelonephritis?
High dose penicllin 1 at least 2 weeks
## Footnote
*Cull may be more cost/labor-efficient*
82
Why are Angoras and Merinos worse off when they get ulcerative posthitis or vulviti? What causes this disease and the clinical signs?
Have **hair** at urinary orifice
Caused when animal with high protein diets are infected with *C.renale* which hydrolyzed **urea** to form **ammonia** in urine -\> **irritates skin**
83
What acute disease occurs in bulls and steers due to *Fusobacterium necrophorum* and wet feedlot pens?
Necrotic posthitis
84
T/F: Lepto should be high on your DDx list for any ruminant with a urinary issue.
False, repro issues much more typical
85
Is vaccination for lepto cosidered effective? What is the major consideration with this vaccine?
Yes
Short duration, must be careful to booster on time
86
Name a few nephrotoxic metals.
Arsenic
Copper
Lead
Mercury
Zinc
87
How can you protect a food animal's kidneys from the nephrotoxic effects of antibiotics, such as aminoglycosides, tetracyclunes and sulfonamides?
Give with plenty of fluids
88
What toxic plant causes heath due to hyperkalemia?
Pigweed, red root (Amaranthus retroflexus)
## Footnote
*Causes perirenal edema and kidney pathology*
89
What causes bovine enzootic hematuria? What is an affected animal likely to develop?
Bracken fern
TCC *(Transitional cell carcinoma)*
90
Which plant is hepatotoxic, npehrotoxic and causes precipitation of proteins? What is the toxic prinicple?
Oak *Both buds and acrorns= toxic*
Tannin or Gallotanin
*Causes gastroenteritis,hemorhhages, edema, and renal lesions*
91
What congential defect commonly occurs following a c-section?
Patent urachus
92
What neoplasias commonly affect the external genitalia of males?
Fibropapilloma
SCC
