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LAM 2 scs RUSVM > Fuselier > Flashcards

Fuselier Flashcards

1
Q

What % of herds in the US have >50 cows?

a. 80%
b. 60%
c. 40%
d. 20%

A

d. 20%
* 80% of cow herds have 50 or less cows = 20% of US cow inventory*

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2
Q

Herd health is

a. adjusting the vaccination shedule
b. monitoring for disease outbreak
c. adjusting management overall
d. assessing welfare standards

A

c. adjusting management overall

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3
Q

Lumpy jaw in deer is caused by

a. Fusobacterium necrophorum
b. Acinomyces bovis
c. Clostridium perfingens
d. Pasteurella multocida

A

a. Fusobacterium necrophorum

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4
Q

What is most commonly the treatment for a deer with a fracture?

a. Splint
b. Cast
c. Leave alone
d. Confinement

A

c. Leave alone

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5
Q

What was biting the farmer’s deer?

a. Ticks
b. Midges
c. Midgets
d. Mosquitoes

A

b. Midges

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6
Q

What is the most common cause of bloat in deer?

A

C. perfringens Type A

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7
Q

T/F: Penicillin would be the best option for treatment of anaplasosis.

A

False

Anaplasmosis = intracellular; Use Oxy_tetracycline_

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8
Q

Which ABx is lipophilic, broad spectrum bacteriostatic, and works against the 30s ribosome?

a. Sulfonamides
b. B-lactams
c. Tetracycline
d. Aminoglycoside

A

c. Tetracycline

Tetracyclines and aminoglycoside are against the 30s ribosome, but aminoglycoside is cidal

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9
Q

T/F: Gentamycin in the best first line treatment of Bovine Respiratory Disease.

A

False

Aminoglycosides are counterindicated! First choice = Macrolides (able to penetrate pulonary macrophages) -Tulathromycin, Draxxin, Azithromycin

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10
Q

Forfenicol works on which ribosomal subunit?

A

50s

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11
Q

T/F: ELDU of FDA approved products is permitted based on AMDUCA guidelines.

A

True

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12
Q

Which of the follwoing drugs has a zero tolerance residue testing limit in cattle?

a. B-lactams
b. Fluroquinolones
c. Aminoglycosides
d. Macrolides

A

c. Aminoglycosides

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13
Q

Cephalosporin restrictions allow for ELDU for

a. Dose
b. Frequency
c. ROA
d. Indication

A

d. Indication

Ceftiofur is most commonly used cephalosporin; Also cannot use for an indication that already has another drug that is labeled for

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14
Q

Which drug class is best used early in respiratory disease?

A

Macrolides

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15
Q

The binding site for which antibiotic class is near that of florfenicol resulting in a possible antagonistic effect if administerd together or close together?

A

Macrolides

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16
Q

Which is the only NSAID approved for food animals in the US?

a. Flunixin Meglumine
b. Ketoprofen
c. Meloxicam
d. Butorphanol

A

a. Flunixin Meglumine

Approved for fever/inflammation associated with respiratory disease, mastitis, and endotoxemia

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17
Q

Sulfonamides are time/concentration dependent

A

time dependent

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18
Q

sulfonamides are effective against ______

A

gram (+), gram (-) and some protozoa

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19
Q

organisms known to be resistant to sulfonamides

A

Pseudomonas, Bacteroides, and Enterococcus

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20
Q

T/F sulfonamides are bacteriostatic except potentiated sulfas which are bactericidal

A

True

additives increase strenght/effectiveness (i.e TMS)

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21
Q

where are sulfonamides distributed

A

wide distribution

joints via synovial fluid, CNS, prostate, urine etc - esp potentiated

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22
Q

T/F sulfonamides can be given to dairy cattle

A

False!

only sulfadimethoxine

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23
Q

T/F potentiated sulfas are used off label in calves and pigs

A

true

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24
Q

beta-lactams are time/concentration dependent

A

time dependent

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25
Q

beta lactams are bactericidal/static

A

bactericidal

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26
Q

what are some examples of beta lactams

A

penicillins and cephalosporins

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27
Q

what is the action of beta-lactams

A

bind penicillin-binding proteins

PBP-1 (panems) cause immediate cell lysis

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28
Q

T/F beta-lactams can be combines with a bacteristatic to increase efficacy

A

False!

Bacteria has to have 1 replication cycle for the beta-lactams to be cidal, combining with -statics make them useless

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30
Q

T/F penicillins generally need more time than cephalosporins

A

False

cephalosporins generally need more time than penicillins

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31
Q

______ require more exposure than ______

A

gram (-) require more exposure than gram (+)

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32
Q

how to organisms become resistant/avoid beta-lactams

A

production of beta-lactamase or alter PBP to prevent binding

3rd Generation Cephalosporins are usually unaffected by beta-lactamases

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33
Q

what is the spectrum of natural penecillins

A

gram (+), anaerobes, select gram (-): Listeria; and spirochetes

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34
Q

spectrum of aminopenicillins

A

more gram (-), some stains of E. coli and Salmonella

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35
Q

how does the spectrum of Cephalosporins differ from penicillins

A

similar but more gram (-) coverage as generation increases

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36
Q

T/F beta lactams have poor intracellular activity

A

True

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37
Q

what are some indications for tetracyclines

A

Anaplasma

wooden tongue (Actinobacillus)

lumpy jaw (Actinomycosis)

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38
Q

tetracyclines are ______ dependent

A

AUC/MIC dependent

AUC has to be about 120x MIC to be effective

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39
Q

what is the mechanism of tetracyclines

A

bind to 30s ribosomes, prevents protein synthesis

minimal affinity for mammalian ribosomes

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40
Q

routes of administration of tetracyclines

A

IV, IM, SQ, PO

poor ora absorption - except doxy

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41
Q

distribution of tetracycline

A

lipophillic (intracellular)

wide distribution (most tissues)

accumulate intracellularly, even leukocytes - posible anti-inflammatory effects

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42
Q

how are tetracycline eliminated

A

60% via glomerular filtration

40% through feces

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43
Q

there is increasing concern about ________ with tetracyclines

A

RESISTANCE!

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44
Q

examples of aminoglycosides

A

neomycin and gentamicin

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45
Q

aminoglycocides are bacteristatic/cidal and are concentration/time dependent

A

bactericidal

concentration dependent

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46
Q

aminoglycoside spectrum

A

primarily aerobic

gram (-)

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47
Q

T/F aminoglycosides and tetracyclines are both lipid soluble and act on the 30s ribosome

A

False!

aminoglycosides are highly water soluble and poorly lipid soluble

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48
Q

what is meant by post antibiotic effect see with aminoglycocides

A

accumulate in lysosomes and mitochondria

PAE - having effect in the desired area but no longer found in plasma at significant concentrations

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49
Q

why is there a long withdrawel period with aminoglycosides

A

chemically attracted to phospholipids

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50
Q

what toxicities are seen with aminoglycosides

A

nephrotoxic

ototoxic

these tissues have more phosphatidylinositol in their membranes than other body tissues (mainly gentamicin), this is also there is a concern about residue (kidney)

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51
Q

T/F gentamicin is recommended for use in cattle

A

FALSE!

not labeled for cattle! Aminoglycosides are a zero tolerance drugs!

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52
Q

what is the current withdrawel time for gentamicin in cattle

A

18 months per single injection for meat

5 days for milk following IV, IM or SQ

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53
Q

practictioners are stongly urged to refrain from using aminoglycosides in food animals except ______

A

neonatal pigs

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54
Q

what is thought to prevent bacterial inactivation of Florfenicol

A

fluorine at the 3’ carbon position

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55
Q

T/F florenfenicol is always bacteriostatic by nature

A

False

  • blocks 50s ribsome, time dependent = static*
  • at peak concentrations = cidal; always cidal for Fusabacterium necroforum*
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56
Q

spectrum for florfenicol

A

broad gram (-) → espcially BRD pathogens

some gram (+)

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57
Q

indications for florfenicol

A

BRD

keratoconjunctivitis

bovine interdigital phlegmon (aka foot rot)

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58
Q

distribution of florfenicol

A

lipid soluble, wide tissue distribution

concentrates in tear film (pinkeye)

CNS - H. somni (above MIC for 20hrs)

diseased lung

high urine concentrates

mammary (mastitis)

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59
Q

is extra-label use of florfenicol permitted

A

yes

  • prolonged withdrawal for different than labeled production class*
  • (ex. IM dose in lactating dairy cow has 60 day withdrawal)*
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60
Q

examples of macrolides

A

Azalides = Azithromycin, Tulathromycin, Gamithromycin, and Tildipirosin

61
Q

spectrum of macrolides

A

fairly broad

gram (+)

select gram (-) → BRD pathogens

62
Q

Azalides have activity against ________

A

mycoplasma

63
Q

MOA of macrolides

A

inhibit protein synthesis by binding at 50s ribosomal subunit

64
Q

why is there a possible antagonistic effect between macrolides and florfenicol

A

binding sites are close to each other

65
Q

T/F tissue concentrations of macrolides are higher than serum concentrations

A

True

concentrate in cells more acidic than plasma, accumulate in lysosomes of leukocytes

66
Q

macrolides have good absorption through ______

A

the gut

67
Q

lincosamides are primarily used in ______

A

swine

avoid in hindgut and foregut fermenters- clostridial overgrowth

68
Q

MOA of lincosamides

A

inhibit protein synthesis by binding 50s ribosome

69
Q

lincosamides have essentially the same spectrum of activity as _____

A

macrolides

70
Q

what common adverse effect is seen with lincosamides

A

swelling of the anus

71
Q

lincosamides are used to treat

A

Mycoplasma pneumonia

bacterial arthritis caused by Strep, Erysipelothrix, or Mycoplasma

73
Q

what is a highly restricted class of antibiotic that ELDU is strictly forbidden with

A

fluoroguinolones

74
Q

enrofloxacin is approved for use in _______

A

cattle

swine

75
Q

fluoroquinolones are bacteriostatic/cidal and time/concentration dependent

A

bactericidal

concentration dependent

76
Q

spectrum of fluoroquinolones

A

most gram (-)

gram (+) variable susceptibilty - have higher MIC than gram (-)

77
Q

MOA of fluoroguinolones

A

Inhibit bacterial DNA replication & transcription by binding the A subunit of DNA gyrase

78
Q

like beta-lactams, fluoroquinolones should not be paired with a bacteriostatic anitbiotic

A

False

kill bacteria whether they are replicating or not

79
Q

distribution of fluoroquinolones

A

wide

lipid soluble

80
Q

what is the concern with use of fluoroquinolones in food animals

A

concern about transfer of resistance from animals to people

81
Q

what are the bacteria of concern with fluoroquinolones

A

campylobacter

salmonella typhimurium type DT-104

83
Q

tetracyclines are ______ dependent

A

AUC/MIC dependent

AUC has to be about 120x MIC to be effective

84
Q

what is the mechanism of tetracyclines

A

bind to 30s ribosomes, prevents protein synthesis

minimal affinity for mammalian ribosomes

85
Q

routes of administration of tetracyclines

A

IV, IM, SQ, PO

poor ora absorption - except doxy

86
Q

distribution of tetracycline

A

lipophillic (intracellular)

wide distribution (most tissues)

accumulate intracellularly, even leukocytes - posible anti-inflammatory effects

87
Q

how are tetracycline eliminated

A

60% via glomerular filtration

40% through feces

88
Q

there is increasing concern about ________ with tetracyclines

A

RESISTANCE!

89
Q

examples of aminoglycosides

A

neomycin and gentamicin

90
Q

aminoglycocides are bacteristatic/cidal and are concentration/time dependent

A

bactericidal

concentration dependent

91
Q

aminoglycoside spectrum

A

primarily aerobic

gram (-)

92
Q

T/F aminoglycosides and tetracyclines are both lipid soluble and act on the 30s ribosome

A

False!

aminoglycosides are highly water soluble and poorly lipid soluble

93
Q

what is meant by post antibiotic effect see with aminoglycocides

A

accumulate in lysosomes and mitochondria

PAE - having effect in the desired area but no longer found in plasma at significant concentrations

94
Q

why is there a long withdrawel period with aminoglycosides

A

chemically attracted to phospholipids

95
Q

what toxicities are seen with aminoglycosides

A

nephrotoxic

ototoxic

these tissues have more phosphatidylinositol in their membranes than other body tissues (mainly gentamicin), this is also there is a concern about residue (kidney)

96
Q

T/F gentamicin is recommended for use in cattle

A

FALSE!

not labeled for cattle! Aminoglycosides are a zero tolerance drugs!

97
Q

what is the current withdrawel time for gentamicin in cattle

A

18 months per single injection for meat

5 days for milk following IV, IM or SQ

98
Q

practictioners are stongly urged to refrain from using aminoglycosides in food animals except ______

A

neonatal pigs

99
Q

what is thought to prevent bacterial inactivation of Florfenicol

A

fluorine at the 3’ carbon position

100
Q

T/F florenfenicol is always bacteriostatic by nature

A

False

  • blocks 50s ribsome, time dependent = static*
  • at peak concentrations = cidal; always cidal for Fusabacterium necroforum*
101
Q

spectrum for florfenicol

A

broad gram (-) → espcially BRD pathogens

some gram (+)

102
Q

indications for florfenicol

A

BRD

keratoconjunctivitis

bovine interdigital phlegmon (aka foot rot)

103
Q

distribution of florfenicol

A

lipid soluble, wide tissue distribution

concentrates in tear film (pinkeye)

CNS - H. somni (above MIC for 20hrs)

diseased lung

high urine concentrates

mammary (mastitis)

104
Q

is extra-label use of florfenicol permitted

A

yes

  • prolonged withdrawal for different than labeled production class*
  • (ex. IM dose in lactating dairy cow has 60 day withdrawal)*
105
Q

examples of macrolides

A

Azalides = Azithromycin, Tulathromycin, Gamithromycin, and Tildipirosin

106
Q

spectrum of macrolides

A

fairly broad

gram (+)

select gram (-) → BRD pathogens

107
Q

Azalides have activity against ________

A

mycoplasma

108
Q

MOA of macrolides

A

inhibit protein synthesis by binding at 50s ribosomal subunit

109
Q

why is there a possible antagonistic effect between macrolides and florfenicol

A

binding sites are close to each other

110
Q

T/F tissue concentrations of macrolides are higher than serum concentrations

A

True

concentrate in cells more acidic than plasma, accumulate in lysosomes of leukocytes

111
Q

macrolides have good absorption through ______

A

the gut

112
Q

lincosamides are primarily used in ______

A

swine

avoid in hindgut and foregut fermenters- clostridial overgrowth

113
Q

MOA of lincosamides

A

inhibit protein synthesis by binding 50s ribosome

114
Q

lincosamides have essentially the same spectrum of activity as _____

A

macrolides

115
Q

what common adverse effect is seen with lincosamides

A

swelling of the anus

116
Q

lincosamides are used to treat

A

Mycoplasma pneumonia

bacterial arthritis caused by Strep, Erysipelothrix, or Mycoplasma

118
Q

what is a highly restricted class of antibiotic that ELDU is strictly forbidden with

A

fluoroguinolones

119
Q

enrofloxacin is approved for use in _______

A

cattle

swine

120
Q

fluoroquinolones are bacteriostatic/cidal and time/concentration dependent

A

bactericidal

concentration dependent

121
Q

spectrum of fluoroquinolones

A

most gram (-)

gram (+) variable susceptibilty - have higher MIC than gram (-)

122
Q

MOA of fluoroguinolones

A

Inhibit bacterial DNA replication & transcription by binding the A subunit of DNA gyrase

123
Q

like beta-lactams, fluoroquinolones should not be paired with a bacteriostatic anitbiotic

A

False

kill bacteria whether they are replicating or not

124
Q

distribution of fluoroquinolones

A

wide

lipid soluble

125
Q

what is the concern with use of fluoroquinolones in food animals

A

concern about transfer of resistance from animals to people

126
Q

what are the bacteria of concern with fluoroquinolones

A

campylobacter

salmonella typhimurium type DT-104

127
Q

how does the government classify a lactating cow

A

female dairy animal that is >/= 20 months of age, whether she ever makes milk or not

128
Q

how does the government classify a non-lactating dairy cow

A

female dairy animal <20 months of age

could have gotten pregnant and calved by 15 months of age but still considered non-lacting becuase of age

129
Q

how does the government classify a dry cow

A

a lactating cow that is pulled off milk string

>20 months of age, not producing/being milked

~1.5-2 months prior to calving

130
Q

FDA approves ______ and ______

A

presciption and OTC

131
Q

EPA approves chemical used as _______

A

pesticides

132
Q

ELDU of _________ approved products is permitted based on _______ guidelines

A

ELDU of FDA approved products is permitted based on AMDUCA guidelines

133
Q

what parameters must be met for ELDU

A

veterinarians only

valid veterinary-client-patient relationship (VCPR)

ingredient needed not in a drug labeled for the production class in question

134
Q

ELDU is not allowed:

A

EPA approved products

fpr production reasons

fluoroquinolones

sulfonamides (mainly adult dairy cattle)

cephalosporins (few exceptions)

cost or convenience

products not FDA approved

non-medical use of sedatives not labeled for food animals (Ace)

135
Q

risk =

A

consumption x risk/ unit of consumption

136
Q

what are the target tissues for residue testing

A

liver, kidney, muscle, pelvic fat

137
Q

what does zero tolerance mean

A

any detectable leven of a drug is a violation

Aminoglycosides!

drugs used extra-label

aprroved drug used in different production class than labeled

138
Q

a carcass with violative residue is ______

A

condemmed by FSIS

139
Q

that constitutes 1st tier testing

A

evaluate approximately 800 samples PER chemical compound class

140
Q

scond teir testing

A

samples at establishment level

undergo KIS testing (kidney inhibition swab)

positive samples submitted for multi-analytic screening

141
Q

third tier

A

target herds and flocks of origin

if one animal test positive, others from herd/flock of origin could be postive

142
Q

cephalosporin restrictions

A

cannot use human labeled cephalosporins

no ELDU outside of labeled production class

143
Q

can cephalosporins be used extra-label in sheep and goats

A

yes

minor use - minor species

144
Q

can cephapirin be use extra-label

A

yes

145
Q

what is FARAD

A

food animal residue avoidance databank

USDA sponsored - minimize residues

withdrawel recommendations for legal ELDU

milk and meat residues

146
Q

what is the veterinary feed directive (VFD)

A

precription for anti-infectives added to feed

must follow label for mixing and feeding

147
Q

T/F ionophores are incuded in VFD

A

false

148
Q

T/F VFD includes oxytetracycline products

A

true

includes CTC, OTC and tylosin

149
Q

who enforces VFD

A

FDA

150
Q

what are the terms of use of VFDs

A

must document need (Dx)

must have a VCPR

drug must be approved for species and production class

dose, duration, route and indication

ELDU and MUMS not allowed

LAM 2 scs RUSVM (9 decks)

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