Van Amstel Final Flashcards

1
Q

You are presented with an 8 month old Boer goat selected for breeding showing the following signs: Intermittent straining, vocalization and dribbling urine for at least past 2 days. The goat had been fed 4 pounds of sweet feed/day. The owner wants to keep the goat for breeding purposes. Which of the following actions is most critical.

a. Ultrasound the kidneys
b. Look for pitting edema in perineal area
c. Cut urethral process
d. Do blood potassium

A

b. Look for pitting edema in perineal area
* Palpate abdomen and feel for distended abdomen* à ruptured urethra; chances that he will be a successful stud are low, recommend keeping as pet
* Next step: C (looking for struvite stones) then D for pre-op evalution*

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2
Q

Which one of the following should you do first to expedite a diagnosis and prognosis for a 12 month old blocked goat which lives on pasture/browse showing some abdominal distention. No palpable perineal swelling.

a. Do ventral abdominal stab and drain fluid
b. Check blood BUN & Creat
c. Do centesis and measure UN in fluid
d. Do emergency laparotomy.
e. Take a xray to check for calcium stones in urethra

A

e. Take a xray to check for calcium stones in urethra

Ca stones likely due to diet, want to look for stones and determine how many.

  • Many stones + ruptured bladder -> euthanasia? Few stones = lithotripsy or endoscopic removal possible.*
  • If it was a ruptured bladder, this is not an emergency in ruminants (rupture location = dorsal aspect) and can resolve spontaneously. However here laparotomy required to drain, if this was a camelid fenestrated drape works because omentum doesn’t clog the drain like it does in ruminants.*
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3
Q

Which of the following is false:

  1. The gastrocnemius muscle extends the hock and flex the stifle.
  2. Overextension of the hock may indicate peroneus tertius rupture
  3. Stall rest is a viable treatment for gastrocnemius rupture in small goats and antelopes
  4. Boer goats are more susceptible to urethral stone formation than Anglo Nubian goats
  5. Ammonium chloride may cause a hyperchloremic metabolic alkalosis
A

e. Ammonium chloride may cause a hyperchloremic metabolic alkalosis

  • Chloride will cause an ACIDOSIS!*
  • Anglo Nubian goats have the LOWEST risk of Ca stone formation*
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4
Q

Which one of the following is the best treatment for urolithiasis caused by struvite obstruction

a. Retrograde flushing of the urethra using walpoles solution
b. Cutting the urethral process followed by oral ammonium chloride
c. Marsupialize the bladder
d. Do a vesico-preputial anastomosis
e. Do tube cystotomy

A

e. Do tube cystotomy

To remove stones from the bladder + normograde flushing to remove from urethra; B is not a long-term option; D ok if not breeding goat

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5
Q

Which of the following is the best treatment for multiple calcium stone obstruction?

a. Do urine diversion surgery
b. Do a tube cystotomy
c. Flush the bladder repeatedly with Walpoles solution
d. Do lithotripsy
e. Do urethral process amputation

A

a. Do urine diversion surgery

Can do vesico-prepucial anastomosis or modified perineal urethrostomy (NOT distal urethrostomy, will stricture)

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6
Q

Which of the following is NOT a complication of chronic urethral obstruction?

a. Bladder atony
b. Bladder rupture
c. Hydronephrosis
d. Urethral rupture
e. Hypernatremia

A

e. Hypernatremia
* Causes hyponatremia (also hypochloridemia and hyperkalemia)*

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7
Q

Which of the following is a viable option for a goat with struvite obstruction and a tube cystotomy that did not become unblocked after 3 weeks of care?

a. Do marsupialization
b. Do low perineal urethrostomy
c. Do a second tube cystotomy
d. Do long term tube cystotomy
e. Do contrast urethrogram to check for stricture

A

d. Do long term tube cystotomy

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8
Q

Which of the following is False

a. Fusobacterium can survive in wet conditions for a prolonged period
b. Dichelobacter can only survive away from the carrier animal for a short period <14 days
c. Dichelobacter can live in infected horn for prolonged periods
d. Dichelobacter is the cause of foot rot in cattle
e. Interdigital dermatitis is a polybacterial condition from which several species of bacteria including spirochetes can be cultured in cattle

A

d. Dichelobacter is the cause of foot rot in cattle

This is the cause in small ruminants, in cows it’s polybacterial (Spirochetes + Fusobacerium + Bacteriodes) (extending up digital tissues)

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9
Q

Which of the following is false?

a. Differentials for hard bag include mastitis and spontaneous milker
b. CAE is an oncogenic retro virus
c. CAE can be neutralized by heating milk to 56 C for 30 minutes
d. The virus can be spread through injections using the same needle
e. Carpal joints are commonly affected in CAE

A

b. CAE is an oncogenic retro virus

BLV in cattle = oncogenic retrovirus, CAE is not oncogenic but it is a retrovirus

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10
Q

Which is the best control method for Foot rot in small ruminants.

a. Vaccinate every 3 weeks during spring and summer
b. Cull the chronic sheep
c. Treat all affected sheep with Tulathramycin for 7 days

d, Trim all sheep

e. Footbath all sheep once a week with formaldehyde

A

b. Cull the chronic sheep

Those non-responsive to foot baths, ABs, and trimming.

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11
Q

Which of the following is False

a. Delaying castration will prevent urolithiasis
b. Marsupialization can cause severe urine scald
c. Ammonium chloride will reduce urine pH after a lag phase of several days
d. Anabolic steroids predispose to stone formation
e. Hyperkalemia cause dropped P waves and tented T waves on ECG

A

a. Delaying castration will prevent urolithiasis

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12
Q

Which of the following is False?

a. The success of long term indwelling Foley is largely dependent on owner compliance
b. Overfilled bladder can often be diagnosed on external abdominal palpation
c. Pitting edema is one way to identify water belly
d. A sheep with chronic foot rot should not be trimmed
e. Fusobacterium is a gram negative anaerobe

A

d. A sheep with chronic foot rot should not be trimmed

Do not trim unaffected sheep alongside affected sheep; trim affected at the end and sterilize equipment and clean shoots, spray with phenol to kill bugs (remember cannot live away from host for >14d)

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13
Q

All of the statements are true except

a. Open mouth breathing in alpacas represents a severe problem since they are obligate nasal breathers
b. BCS of 3 in a lactating goat is normal
c. IM injections in the back of the leg in goats should not be used as a routine
d. The correct site for tail amputation in sheep to prevent rectal prolapse is sacro-coccidial
e. Both the infratrochlear and cornual nerves should be blocked for disbudding in goats

A

d. The correct site for tail amputation in sheep to prevent rectal prolapse is sacro-coccidial

Thisn location predisposes to rectal prolapse. Correct location = between C1 and C2. Tail docking is necessary dye to fly strike, esp in sheep.

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14
Q

All of the statements are false except

a. True floppy kid syndrome is characterized by hypoglycemia and lactic acidosis
b. True floppy kid syndrome is usually associated with prematurity
c. Hypoglycemia in goats occurs when the blood glucose drops to below 120
d. Administration of bicarb intravenously is a correct form of treatment for true floppy kid syndrome
e. True floppy kid results from lactic acidosis from anaerobic metabolism muscle tissue

A

d. Administration of bicarb intravenously is a correct form of treatment for true floppy kid syndrome

  • Given to reverse acidosis. Also administer vit E selenium and antibiotics.*
  • Floppy kid = depression, weakness, flaccid paralysis, abdominal distension. Caused by overconsumption of milk and infectious agent (clostridium, E.coli)*
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15
Q

All statements are true except

a. Isotonic bicarb is indicated as the fluid of choice in cases where blood pH is less than 7.2
b. Leucopenia/degenerative left shift/high fibrinogen are often associated with sepsis
c. In case of sepsis neonates are often unable to maintain blood glucose
d. New born goat kids usually only have enough brown fat for 5 hours to maintain their blood glucose
e. Subcutaneous dextrose is an acceptable treatment for acute hypoglycemia (glucose < 50)

A

e. Subcutaneous dextrose is an acceptable treatment for acute hypoglycemia (glucose < 50)

Tx= IV or IP dextrose

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16
Q

All statements are true except

a. Lepto, Clostridium, copper cause anemia through intravascular hemolysis
b. A PCV of <12 is one of the indications for a blood transfusion
c. Amprolium may predispose to polioencephalomalacia because it acts a thiamine analog
d. A goats blood volume is equal to 12% of its body weight
e. Fetal manipulation is not indicated until 30 minutes after onset of labor in goat

A

d. A goats blood volume is equal to 12% of its body weight

Blood volume = 7% BW

17
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect

a. Low ionized calcium concentration in pregnancy toxemia in sheep is partly caused by the increased blood pH
b. Hypocalcemia in cows commonly occur during the first 2 weeks post calving
c. Hyperglycemia in pregnancy toxemia in sheep is associated with insulin resistance due to high endogenous steroid release
d. Induction of pregnancy with steroids and prostaglandin is not the best treatment option for a sheep suffering from severe ketoacidosis
e. Pregnancy toxemia in sheep typically occurs in the last 3-4 weeks prior to lambing

A

a Low ionized calcium concentration in pregnancy toxemia in sheep is partly caused by the increased blood pH

Pregnancy toxemia = ACIDOSIS

18
Q

Which of the following cannot be used as a precursor of glucose in ruminants

a. Amino acids

b Non esterified fatty acids

c. Glycerol
d. Propionic acid
e. Propylene glycol

A

b. Non esterified fatty acids

Must go through acetyl coenzyme A (so not a direct precursor)

19
Q

Which of the following does not cause lipolysis through activation of hormone sensitive lipase?

a. Insulin
b. Growth hormone
c. Endogenous glucocorticoids
d. Glucagon
e. Injectable semisynthetic steroids

A

a. Insulin

Is protective, causes lipogenesis (converts back to triglycerides)

20
Q

A low “physiologic” level of ketone bodies is always present in the bloodstream of a cow. These ketone bodies are mainly derived from which of the following (multiple answers)?

a. Propionic acid
b. Lactic acid
c. Acetic acid & Buteric acid
d. Betahydroxybuterate & Acetone
e. Non esterified fatty acids

A

c. Acetic acid & Buteric acid
e. Non esterified fatty acids
* A and B are glucose, D are ketones*

21
Q

What is the main beneficial effect of steroids as part of the treatment of ketosis in cattle?

a. It stimulates food intake
b. It induces gluconeogenesis
c. It reduces milk production
d. It stimulates NEFA production
e. It activates hormone sensitive lipase

A

c. It reduces milk production

These are all effects of steroids but due to the negative energy balance ketosis causes decreasing milk production is really important

22
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a. The dietary cation/anion difference of dairy cows on primarily forage during the dry period will increase the incidence of milk fever
b. Addition of anions to the diet will increase the absorption of calcium from both the gut and bone
c. Ionized calcium levels will decrease in the face of a metabolic alkalosis
d. PTH does not play a role in the conservation of magnesium
e. Subclinical hypocalcemia may play a significant role in the pathogenesis of abomasal displacement

A

d. PTH does not play a role in the conservation of magnesium
* PTH causes resorption of Mg in kidneys*
* A is true because:* Forage is high in Na and K (cations), mainly forage diet = more cations than anions = inclined to alkalosis
* B: Due to osteoclast and Ca-binding receptors in gut and bones affinity increasing with acidic blood*
* C: Ionized Ca binds Ca, releases H+
* E:
HypoCa = Decrease in abomasal tone

23
Q

From the following select why cows are more prone to the development of fatty liver.

Their liver has:

a. Not enough Oxaloacetate
b. Too much Acetyl-coenzyme A
c. Low ketone production capacity
d. Insufficient apo-lipoprotein production capacity
e. Relatively small size

A

d. Insufficient apo-lipoprotein production capacity

In horses and camelids the liver can wrap triglycerides into ransport fats with low density lipoproteins, cows suck at making lipoprotein

24
Q

Ketosis is often a secondary problem associated with subacute rumen acidosis. Signs include decrease in both milk production and milk fat. From the following select the reason for the decreased milk fat:

a. There is a progressive decrease in acetate production in the rumen
b. Ketone bodies blocks the role of butyric acid in lactogenesis
c. There is a linear relationship between milk production and the amount of butter fat in the milk
d. It is a protective mechanism to prevent the cow from losing too much weight
e. Dietary fat content in the ration is too low

A

a. There is a progressive decrease in acetate production in the rumen

Less acetate = Less milk fat (linear relationship)

25
Q

Regarding the treatment of pregnancy toxemia which of the following combinations would be best for a ewe still moving around but not eating

a. C-section; IV glucose; oral propylene glycol
b. Induce with steroids; IV glucose; rumen fluid
c. Induce with steroids; IV glucose; oral propylene glycol
d. C section; IV insulin; oral propylene glycol
e. C-section; IV insulin; IV glucose; rumen fluid

A

e. C-section; IV insulin; IV glucose; rumen fluid

C-section and insulin are REQUIRED (and cannot give insulin without IV glucose)

26
Q

Which of the following is the best diagnostic test/procedure for fatty liver in cattle or sheep

a. GGT
b. AST
c. BUN
d. Biopsy
e. Bilirubin

A

d. Biopsy

If cannot biopsy do bilirubin + GGT

27
Q

You are presented with a down cow in the field. Which of the following signs will be most indicative of milk fever?

a. Complete rumen atony
b. Rectum filled with feces
c. Rapid (>100) and soft heart sounds
d. Extremities cold to the touch
e. Reduced lower jaw tone

A

c. Rapid (>100) and soft heart sounds

28
Q

Which of the following is most correct

a. Feeding alfalfa prior to calving will reduce the amount of calcium in the blood at calving
b. Grass hay is a good source of calcium
c. Magnesium act as a calcium canal blocker in the body
d. Low blood magnesium is associated with low intracellular calcium
e. Nitrogen fertilizer on pasture will not reduce the amount of bioavailable magnesium in the rumen

A

c. Magnesium act as a calcium canal blocker in the body

  • HypoMg = channels open and Ca moves intracelllar = blood Ca drops*
  • Phosphorpus has a similar effec*
29
Q

Which clinical sign from the list below is most indicative of hypomagnesemia

a Loud, rapid heart sounds; muscle tremors

b Rapid breathing with upper respiratory stridor

c Rumen atony and mild free gas bloat

d Increased rectal temp, hypersensitivity

e Seizure activity, opisthotonus; normal heart rate

A

a Loud, rapid heart sounds; muscle tremors

  • Spring pastures and fall patures; also causes hyperesthesia, incoordinaion, bellowing, extensor rigidity, opisthotonus, and increased TPR*
  • For bellowing R/O rabies*
30
Q

From the following select the most effective treatment to prevent pregnancy toxemia in sheep

a. Identify triplet carrying sheep and feed separately
b. Feed only roughage prior to lambing
c. Determine liver Mg levels and supplement Mg
d. Feed extra potassium
e. Make sure all sheep body condition score is 4.5 – 5.0

A

a. Identify triplet carrying sheep and feed separately

BCS=3 ideal

31
Q

Which of the following is not a consistent sign of hypomagnesemia

a. Bellowing
b. Incoordination
c. Opisthotonus
d. Tongue paralysis
e. Loud fast heart beat

A

d. Tongue paralysis

32
Q

How many bottles of 500ml of 50% dextrose needs to be added to 20liters saline to make a 5% solution

a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
e. 10

A

b. 4
* Dilution ratio = 1:9*
* Need 100mL 50% dextrose per 1L fluid = 5%*
* 100x20= 2000*
* 2000/500= 4*

33
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect

a. Diagnosis of hypomanesemia can be confirmed on necropsy by measuring mg levels in ocular fluid
b. Decreased blood Ca levels may also be associated with hypomagnesemia
c. Frequent urination is often a sign of subacute hypomagnesemia
d. Sheep and goats are very resistant to hypomagnesemia
e. Lush spring pasture predispose to hypomagnesemia

A

d. Sheep and goats are very resistant to hypomagnesemia

34
Q

Which metabolic profile is most indicative of severe fatty liver in a cow

a. Hyperglycemia; elevated NEFAs; low VLDL
b. Hypoglycemia; low insulin; low endogenous steroids
c. Ketonemia; hypoglycemia; elevated VLDL
d. Ketonemia; elevated ammonia; elevated NEFAs
e. Fermentation failure; rumen atony; diarrhea

A

d. Ketonemia; elevated ammonia; elevated NEFAs

Elevated NEFA, low VLDL, huhg ketone (BHB), high ammonia, low BUN

35
Q

What combination of clinical signs is most indicative of milk fever

a. Deviation of neck posture; Rumen atony; tachycardia
b. Cold extremities; Subnormal temp; Reduced anal tone
c. General muscle flaccidity; soft rapid heart sounds; cold extremities
e. Down with head on side; absent tail tone; reduced jaw tone

A

c. General muscle flaccidity; soft rapid heart sounds; cold extremities

Suspended rumen contractions, reduced anal tone, normal to subnormal temp,

36
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect

a Relative metabolic alkalosis increases the affinity of osteoclast receptors for PTH

b PTH will decrease the renal excretion of Mg in cases of hypomagnesemia

c One reason why older cows are more susceptible to develop milk fever is reduction in osteoclast receptors

d The DCAD diet can indirectly stimulate PTH activity by causing a slight metabolic acidosis

e Calcium is primarily absorbed through the duodenum via calcium binding protein

A

d The DCAD diet can indirectly stimulate PTH activity by causing a slight metabolic acidosis

High blood pH decreaes osteoclast receptor affinity for PTH

37
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect

a Mg is the bodies natural Ca channel blocker

b Bone act as a reservoir for magnesium

c Young pasture is low in magnesium

d Loose watery stool caused by spring pasture is a predisposing cause of hypomagnesemia

e Hypermagnesemia can cause cardiac arrest

A

b Bone act as a reservoir for magnesium

38
Q

Which of the following does not play a role in the development of a negative energy balance

a High milk production

b Estrogen

c Reduced rumen volume

d Transition ration

e Subclinical hypocalcemia

A

e Subclinical hypocalcemia

39
Q

What factor will not influence the activity of PTH in the body

a Blood glucose level

b The cows age

c Blood pH

d Level of potassium in the feed

e Calcium loss in the milk

A

a Blood glucose level