Sec B Strategic Management Flashcards

1
Q

1Which of the following steps in the strategic management process should be completed first?
A. Translate objectives into goals.
B. Determine actions to achieve goals.
C. Develop performance measures.
D. Create a mission statement.

A

Answer (D) is correct.
A mission statement is a formal, written document that defines an organization’s ultimate purposes in
society in general terms. After a situational analysis is performed, the entity develops a group of
strategies for achieving the mission.

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2
Q

2A firm’s statement of broad objectives or mission statement should accomplish all of the
following except
A. Outlining strategies for technological development, market expansion, and product differentiation.
B. Defining the purpose of the company.
C. Providing an overall guide to those in high-level, decision-making positions.
D. Stating the moral and ethical principles that guide the actions of the firm.

A

Answer (A) is correct.
The determination of organizational objectives is the first step in the planning process. A mission
statement is a formal, written document that defines the organization’s purpose in society, for example,
to produce and distribute certain goods of high quality in a manner beneficial to the public, employees,
shareholders, and other constituencies. Thus, a mission statement does not announce specific operating
plans. It does not describe strategies for technological development, market expansion, or product
differentiation because these are tasks for operating management.

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2
Q

3Intensity of rivalry among existing firms in an industry increases when
I. Products are relatively undifferentiated
II. Consumer switching costs are low
A. I only.
B. II only.
C. Both I and II.

A

Answer (C) is correct.
The degree of product differentiation and the costs of switching from one competitor’s product to
another increase the intensity of rivalry and competition in an industry. Less differentiation tends to
heighten competition based on price, with price cutting leading to lower profits. Low costs of
switching products also increase competition.

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3
Q

4Structural considerations affecting the threat of substitutes include all of the following except
A. Relative prices.
B. Brand identity.
C. Cost of switching to substitutes.
D. Customers’ inclination to use a substitute.

A

Answer (B) is correct.
Substitutes are types of goods and services that serve the same purpose. All products that can replace a
good or service should be considered substitutes. For example, bicycles and cars are substitutes for
public transportation. Structural considerations determine the effect substitutes have on one another.
However, because substitutes are types (not brands) of goods and services that have the same purposes,
brand identity is not a structural consideration affecting the threat of substitutes.

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4
Q

5A corporation is performing research to determine the feasibility of entering the truck rental industry.
The decision to enter the market is most likely to be deterred if
A. The fixed costs are high in relation to variable costs in the truck rental industry.
B. Buyers view the product as differentiated.
C. The market is dominated by a small consortium of buyers.
D. Buying firms enjoy large profit margins on their end products.

A

Answer (C) is correct.
When purchasing power is concentrated in a few buyers or when buyers are well organized, their
bargaining power is greater. This effect is reinforced when sellers are in a capital-intensive industry,
such as trucking.

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5
Q

6Which industry factor does not contribute to competitive rivalry?
A. Price-cutting, large advertising budgets, and frequent introduction of new products.
B. A firm’s growth must come from winning other firms’ customers.
C. High costs of customers switching suppliers.
D. High fixed costs relative to variable costs.

A

Answer (C) is correct.
If it is expensive to switch suppliers, customers will be less motivated to respond to competitor
advances.

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6
Q

7Which condition does not increase the threat of new competitor entry into the industry?
A. Strong brand identity.
B. Existing firms do not enjoy the cost advantages of vertical integration.
C. Few proprietary product differences.
D. Low capital requirements

A

Answer (A) is correct.
Strong brand identity decreases the threat that new competitors will enter an industry. New competitors
have difficulty because potential customers are loyal to established firms in the industry.

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7
Q

8The concurrent action of basic competitive forces as defined by Porter’s model determines the
A. Long-term profitability and the competitive intensity of the industry.
B. Entrance barriers that potential players must face to get into the industry.
C. Rivalry inside the industry.
D. Nonvalue-adding activities that should be eliminated.

A

Answer (A) is correct.
Porter developed a model of the structure of industries and competition. It includes an analysis of the
five competitive forces that determine long-term profitability measured by long-term return on
investment. This analysis results in an evaluation of the attractiveness of an industry.

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8
Q

9Which factor most likely encourages entry into an existing market?
A. Governmental subsidies for new investors.
B. High product differentiation, principally produced by trademarks.
C. Knowledge of the industry, with high investments in development.
D. Low fixed exit costs.

A

Answer (A) is correct.
Subsidies for new firms lower entry barriers. Thus, new firms may enter the industry and intensify
competition. Government policy also may affect competition by means of regulations that encourage
or discourage substitutes or affect costs, that govern competitive behavior, or that limit growth.
Government also may be a buyer or supplier.

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9
Q

10Which of the following is a favorable condition for a firm competing in a profitable, expanding
industry?
A. The firm does not have a strong customer base.
B. A few suppliers who can restrict supply.
C. Competitors find it difficult to acquire the firm’s customers
D. The firm has high costs relative to other firms in the industry.

A

Answer (C) is correct.
A firm that has successfully differentiated its products through developing a desirable image, better
services, cost leadership, the features of the product, or other means is in a favorable competitive
position. Competitors find it difficult to acquire the firm’s customers, for example, by price cutting.
The reason is that the firm’s products are perceived to have few substitutes, and brand loyalty is high.
Furthermore, barriers to entry are favorable to the firm. These barriers deter competitors from entering
the market. Existing firms can increase market share and emphasize cutting costs and increasing value.

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10
Q

11Michael E. Porter’s competitive strategies model includes an analysis of the competitive forces that
determine the attractiveness of an industry. These forces include
I. The stage of the industry life cycle
II. Threats of, and barriers to, entry
III. Threat of substitutes
IV. The threat of suppliers’ bargaining power
A. I and II only.
B. I and III only.
C. II, III, and IV only.

A

Answer (C) is correct.
Michael E. Porter has developed a model of the structure of industries and competition. It includes an
analysis of the five competitive forces that determine long-term profitability measured by long-term
return on investment. This analysis results in an evaluation of the attractiveness of an industry. The
five forces are (1) the degree of rivalry among existing firms; (2) threats of, and barriers to, entry; (3)
the threat of substitute products or services; (4) the threat of buyers’ bargaining power; and (5) the
threat of suppliers’ bargaining power.

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11
Q

12Which factor increases the threat of entry into an industry?
A. Economies of scale are significant.
B. Capital requirements are high.
C. An industry leader may retaliate against a new entrant.
D. Exit barriers are low.

A

Answer (D) is correct.
The most favorable condition for the attractiveness of an industry is the existence of high entry barriers
and low exit barriers. When the threat of new entrants is minimal and exit is not difficult, returns are
high, and risk is reduced in the event of poor performance. Low entry barriers keep long-term
profitability low because new firms can enter the industry, increasing competition and lowering prices
and the market shares of existing firms. Exit barriers are reasons for a firm to remain in an industry
despite poor (or negative) profits.

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12
Q

13A manufacturing company produces plastic utensils for a particular segment at the lowest possible
cost. The company is pursuing a cost
A. Leadership strategy.
B. Focus strategy.
C. Differentiation strategy.
D. Containment strategy.

A

Answer (B) is correct.
Cost focus is the generic strategy that seeks competitive advantage through lower costs but with a
narrow competitive scope (e.g., a regional market or a specialized product line). The reason for a costfocus
strategy is that the narrower market can be better served because the firm knows it well.

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13
Q

14What operations strategy is most likely to be adopted when the product sold by an organization is a
commodity and the market is very large?
A. Flexibility strategy.
B. Quality strategy.
C. Service strategy.
D. Cost strategy.

A

Answer (D) is correct.
An operations strategy formulates a long-term plan for using entity resources to reach strategic
objectives. A cost strategy is successful when the entity is the low-cost producer. However, the product
(e.g., a commodity) tends to be undifferentiated in these cases, the market is often very large, and the
competition tends to be intense because of the possibility of high-volume sales.

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14
Q

15A company is trying to decide which competitive strategy it should try to implement. Since the
company has recently started producing Halloween products and selling them in its Halloween stores a few months
prior, it is trying to focus on low costs. The company believes that this will give it a competitive advantage since
much of the competition across the nation is selling more expensive Halloween products. Which competitive
strategy should the company most likely try to implement?
A. Cost leadership.
B. Differentiation.
C. Cost focus.
D. Focused differentiation.

A

Answer (A) is correct.
Cost leadership seeks a competitive advantage through lower costs that have a broad competitive
scope. Since the company is selling its products at low costs and it has many competitors across the
nation, it has a broad competitive scope.

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15
Q

16A bowling alley has identified three revenue streams with the following income statements.
Bowling Equipment Rental Food Sales
Revenues $9,000,000 $300,000 $1,200,000
Variable costs 1,100,000 150,000 1,150,000
Direct employee salaries 250,000 40,000 120,000
Common costs 6,400,000 35,000 365,000
Income (loss) $1,250,000 $ 75,000 $ (435,000)
The most important consideration in determining whether to discontinue its food sales is
A. Employee morale.
B. Its interrelationships with other products.
C. The ability to increase food sales.
D. The ease of implementing activity-based costing to better assign costs.

A

Answer (B) is correct.
The service line food sales could impact the sales of both bowling and equipment rental. Discontinuing
the food sales line might negatively affect the other two service lines, and the bowling alley should
further investigate the matter.

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16
Q

17A strategic business unit (SBU) has a high relative market share (RMS) and a low market growth
rate (MGR). According to the growth-share matrix for competitive analysis created by the Boston Consulting Group,
such an SBU is considered a
A. Star.
B. Question mark.
C. Cash cow.
D. Dog.

A

Answer (C) is correct.
The annual MGR reflects the maturity and attractiveness of the market and the relative need for cash to
finance expansion. The RMS reflects an SBU’s competitive position in the market segment. A high
RMS signifies that the SBU has a strong competitive position. Cash cows have high RMS and low
MGR. They are strong competitors and cash generators in low-growth markets.

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17
Q

18In the Boston Consulting Group (BCG) growth-share matrix, which strategic business units are
strong competitors in high growth markets but usually have modest net cash flow?
A. Cash cows.
B. Question marks.
C. Dogs.
D. Stars.

A

Answer (D) is correct.
A star is a strong competitor in a high growth industry. It is profitable but needs large amounts of cash
for expansion, R&D, and meeting competitors’ attacks.

18
Q

19A strategic business unit (SBU) has a low relative market share (RMS) and a high market growth
rate (MGR). According to the portfolio model for competitive analysis (the growth-share matrix) created by the
Boston Consulting Group, the SBU is considered a
A. Star.
B. Question mark.
C. Cash cow.
D. Dog.

A

Answer (B) is correct.
Question marks (low RMS, high MGR) are weak competitors and poor cash generators in high-growth
markets. They need large amounts of cash not only to finance growth and compete in the market but
also to increase RMS. If RMS increases significantly, a question mark may become a star. If not, it
becomes a dog.

19
Q

20According to the growth-share matrix approach developed by the Boston Consulting Group, a
harvest strategy is most likely to be used for SBUs that are
A. Question marks that may become stars.
B. Strong cash cows.
C. Weak cash cows.
D. Dogs that reduce the firm’s profits.

A

Answer (C) is correct.
Each SBU should have objectives, a strategy should be formulated to achieve those objectives, and a
budget should be allocated. A harvest strategy maximizes short-term net cash inflow. Harvesting
means zero-budgeting R&D, reducing marketing costs, not replacing facilities, etc. This strategy is
used for weak cash cows and possibly question marks and dogs.

20
Q

21According to the Boston Consulting Group’s portfolio model for competitive analysis, the strategy
for a strong cash cow should be
A. Harvest.
B. Divest.
C. Hold.
D. Build.

A

Answer (C) is correct.
A hold strategy is used for strong cash cows. It is necessary if the business is to continue to generate
large net cash inflows. Harvesting might impair a strong cash cow’s ability to generate long-term
positive net cash inflows.

21
Q

22A typical life cycle progression for a successful firm within the Boston Consulting Group’s growthshare
matrix is
A. Star, question mark, cash cow, dog.
B. Question mark, star, cash cow, dog.
C. Star, cash cow, question mark, dog.
D. Question mark, cash cow, star, dog.

A

Answer (B) is correct.
The progression is from question mark to star, cash cow, and dog. Accordingly, a firm should consider
a SBU’s current status and its probable progression when formulating a strategy.

22
Q

23A company has developed and implemented a wireless charging feature into one of their
flashlights. No other competitor in the marketplace currently offers this feature. In a marketing research study, the
vast majority of consumers indicated that they would pay a premium for this feature. Which one of the following is
the best strategy to bring this product to the market?
A. Porter’s cost strategy.
B. Porter’s focus strategy.
C. Porter’s differentiation strategy.
D. Porter’s segmentation strategy.

A

Answer (C) is correct.
Differentiation is the generic strategy of entities that seek competitive advantage through providing a
unique product. The company uses the focused differentiation strategy by introducing a wireless
charging feature that no other competitor offers in the marketplace.

23
Q

24Products identified in the BCG growth-share matrix as cash cows possess relatively
A. High market share in a low growth market.
B. Low market share in a high growth market.
C. High market share in a high growth market.
D. Low market share in a low growth market.

A

Answer (A) is correct.
The growth-share matrix has four quadrants. A cash cow is a business unit that has a large market
share in a mature, slow-growing industry.

24
Q

25A company is the leading company in the premium bottled water industry. Its growth is mainly
driven by the negative health publicity on carbonated soft drinks and other sweetened beverages. Extensive
inventory and distribution infrastructure is needed to compete in this industry. Its main packaging materials can be
sourced either locally or easily imported from overseas. With its 60% market share, the company is able to influence
prices and competitive activity. The second biggest competitor holds 20% market share, while the remaining 20% is
shared by many small companies. Supermarkets and other grocery retailers are the largest customer segment,
accounting for approximately 45% of sales. The supermarkets and grocery retailers are driving volume growth and
are undergoing consolidation into larger supermarket conglomerates. Using Porter’s 5 Forces, which one of the
following statements best reflects the industry environment?
A. Low profitability but can increase due to increasing power of buyers.
B. Low profitability due to low threat of substitutes and new entrants.
C. High profitability but can decrease due to increasing power of buyers.
D. High profitability due to high power of buyers and sellers.

A

Answer (C) is correct.
The company is able to achieve high profitability in the growing premium bottled water industry.
However, the supermarkets and grocery retailers are undergoing consolidation into larger supermarket
conglomerates, which will result in stronger buyer bargaining power and puts collective pressure on
the company.

25
Q

26Analyzing a company’s technological capabilities, employee skills, and sales team performance
will provide
A. External factors that identify the company’s strengths and threats.
B. Internal factors that identify the company’s strengths and opportunities.
C. External factors that identify the company’s strengths and weaknesses.
D. Internal factors that identify the company’s strengths and weaknesses.

A

Answer (D) is correct.
Strengths and weaknesses are usually identified by considering the entity’s capabilities and resources
(its internal environment).

26
Q

27Which one of the following describes what an organization wants to accomplish and leads to the
formulation of long-term business objectives?
A. Values.
B. Strategy.
C. Competency.
D. Mission statement.

A

Answer (D) is correct.
The mission statement summarizes the entity’s reason for existing and provides the framework for
formulating the company’s strategies.

27
Q

28What type of plan is formulated at the highest levels of management; takes the broadest view of the
company and its environment; is the least quantifiable; and determines the future nature of the firm, its products,
and its customers?
A. Short-range plan.
B. Long-range plan.
C. Strategic plan.
D. Future plan.

A

Answer (C) is correct.
A strategic plan sets the overall objectives for an entity and guides the process of reaching those
objectives. It has a long-term planning horizon. Strategic planning begins with the mission statement
and focuses on such concerns as which products the company will produce and what customers are to
be served. It is the least quantifiable of the planning techniques.

28
Q

1Which of the following cycles does not have accounting information recorded into the required
general ledger reporting system?
A. Expenditure.
B. Production.
C. Planning.
D. Revenue.

A

Answer (C) is correct.
Planning is the determination of what is to be done and of how, when, where, and by whom it is to be
done. Plans serve to direct the activities that all organizational members must undertake and
successfully perform to move the organization from where it is to where it wants to be. No transactions
that require recording in the general ledger take place during the planning cycle.

29
Q

2What is strategic planning?
A. It establishes the general direction of the organization.
B. It establishes the resources that the plan will require.
C. It establishes the budget for the organization.
D. It consists of decisions to use parts of the organization’s resources in specified ways.

A

Answer (A) is correct.
Strategic planning establishes the general direction of an organization. It embodies the concerns of
senior management and is based specifically on (1) identifying and specifying organizational
objectives; (2) evaluating the organization’s strengths and weaknesses; (3) assessing risk levels;
(4) identifying and forecasting the effect of external (environmental) factors relevant to the
organization; (5) deriving the best strategy for reaching the objectives, given the organization’s
strengths and weaknesses and the relevant future trends; and (6) analyzing and reviewing the capital
budgeting process and capacity planning.

30
Q

3A distinction between forecasting and planning
A. Is not valid because they are synonyms.
B. Arises because forecasting covers the short-term and planning does not.
C. Is that forecasts are used in planning.
D. Is that forecasting is a management activity whereas planning is a technical activity.

A

Answer (C) is correct.
Planning is the determination of what is to be done, and of how, when, where, and by whom it is to be
done. Plans serve to direct the activities that all organizational members must undertake to move the
organization from where it is to where it wants to be. Forecasting is the basis of planning because it
projects the future. A variety of quantitative methods are used in forecasting.

31
Q

4Which of the following is an example of an outcome of strategic planning?
A. A formal statement of the organization’s definition of the fundamental truths that guide its actions.
B. A broad statement of concepts that emphasizes the implementation of organizational objectives over the
long term.
C. A set of general guides for action that channel thinking and allow a certain amount of discretion in
execution.
D. A document specifying a sequence of steps detailing the exact manner in which a certain activity must be
accomplished.

A

Answer (B) is correct.
The strategic plan states the means by which an entity expects to achieve its stated mission. Achieving
the mission is predicated on implementing long-term objectives.

32
Q

5Which one of the following management considerations is usually addressed first in strategic
planning?
A. Outsourcing.
B. Overall objectives of the firm.
C. Organizational structure.
D. Recent annual budgets.

A

Answer (B) is correct.
Strategic planning is the process of setting overall organizational objectives and drafting strategic
plans. Setting ultimate objectives for the firm is a necessary prelude to developing strategies for
achieving those objectives. Plans and budgets are then needed to implement those strategies.

33
Q

6Strategy is a broad term that usually means the selection of overall objectives. Strategic analysis
ordinarily excludes the
A. Trends that will affect the entity’s markets.
B. Target product mix and production schedule to be maintained during the year.
C. Forms of organizational structure that would best serve the entity.
D. Best ways to invest in research, design, production, distribution, marketing, and administrative activities.

A

Answer (B) is correct.
Strategic analysis is the process of long-range planning. Such tasks as setting the target product mix
and production schedule for the current year are short-term activities.

34
Q

7All of the following are characteristics of the strategic planning process except the
A. Emphasis on long run.
B. Analysis of external economic factors.
C. Review of the attributes and behavior of the organization’s competition.
D. Analysis and review of departmental budgets.

A

Answer (D) is correct.
Strategic planning is the process of setting the overall organizational objectives and involves the
drafting of strategic plans. Analysis and review of departmental budgets is an aspect of operational
management.

35
Q

8Strategic planning, as practiced by most modern organizations, includes all of the following except
A. Top-level management participation.
B. A long-term focus.
C. Strategies that will help in achieving long-range goals.
D. Analysis of the current month’s actual variances from budget.

A

Answer (D) is correct.
Strategic planning is the process of setting overall organizational objectives. It is a long-term process
aimed at determining the future course of the organization. Analysis of the current month’s budget
variances is a short-term activity.

36
Q

9An organization’s policies and procedures are part of its overall system of internal controls. The
control function performed by policies and procedures is
A. Feedforward control.
B. Implementation control.
C. Feedback control.
D. Application control.

A

Answer (A) is correct.
Feedforward control anticipates and prevents problems. Policies and procedures serve as feedforward
controls because they provide guidance on how an activity should be performed to best ensure that an
objective is achieved.

37
Q

10The management of an organization has stated that two members of the same family may not be
employed in the same department. Identify the component of organizational planning that is being demonstrated by
management’s action.
A. A strategy.
B. A policy.
C. An objective.
D. A mission statement.

A

Answer (B) is correct.
Top management establishes policies as guides to middle- and lower-management decision making.
Policies are relatively broad guidelines for making routine decisions consistent with overall objectives.
They channel thinking in a certain direction but allow for some managerial discretion

38
Q

11Formal written policies are normally recommended. However, the presence of certain conditions in
an organization minimizes the need for written policies. One condition that minimizes the need for written policies
is a
A. High division of labor.
B. Strong organizational culture
C. Large span of control.
D. Strict unity of command.

A

Answer (B) is correct.
If the culture is strong, the organization’s key values are intensely held and widely shared. Substantial
training has been expended to achieve this high degree of acceptance, minimizing the need for formal,
written policies.

39
Q

12During the strategic planning process, which one of the following is an external factor to be
analyzed?
A. Organizational culture.
B. Societal culture.
C. Employee morale.
D. Organizational structure.

A

Answer (B) is correct.
During the strategic planning process, an organization should analyze the external environment, such
as social, cultural, economic, and political factors.

40
Q

13A company has a compensation system for its managers based on a management-by-objectives
(MBO) approach. The essential premise of MBO is that
A. Compensation should be based on qualitative factors.
B. Employees should be concerned with routine matters, and managers should attend to exceptions.
C. Employees should participate in setting objectives.
D. Managers should establish objectives for their employees.

A

Answer (C) is correct.
The hallmark of MBO is the mutual setting of objectives by the superior and the subordinate as a basis
for performance evaluation.

41
Q

14MBO managers are most likely to believe that employees
A. Dislike their work.
B. Avoid responsibility whenever possible.
C. Work best when threatened with punishment.
D. Are self-motivated.

A

Answer (D) is correct.
MBO managers believe that employees are committed to achieving objectives, working hard to receive
the rewards of achievement, and striving for self-actualization. The MBO view is that employees enjoy
work, need little supervision, seek responsibility, and are imaginative problem solvers.

42
Q

15A company has established a strategic initiative to increase operating income by increasing market
share through being the lower-cost provider. Assuming the total market size remains the same, and based on the
information provided below, has the company achieved the stated objectives?
Current Year Next Year
Revenues $325,000 $325,000
Cost of goods sold 152,000 146,000
Gross margin $173,000 $179,000
Operating costs
Marketing 100,000 100,000
Administrative 50,000 50,000
Operating income $ 23,000 $ 29,000
Units sold 1,000 1,000
A. Yes, because the company was able to lower costs and increase operating income.
B. No, because the company did not reduce marketing and administrative costs.
C. Yes, because the statements show a reduced cost of goods sold.
D. No, because it does not appear that the company has increased market share.

A

Answer (D) is correct.
The company did not meet its goal of increasing operating income by increasing market share through
being the lower-cost provider. This is apparent by observing that the units sold for the current year
equal the units sold for the next year.

43
Q

16A company is anticipating that a major supplier might experience a strike this year. Because of the
nature of the product and emphasis on quality, extra production cannot be stored as finished goods inventory. When
developing a contingency budget that would anticipate a direct materials buildup, the two most significant items that
will be affected are
A. Production volume and direct material.
B. Sales and ending inventory.
C. Production and cash flow.
D. Direct materials and cash flow.

A

Answer (D) is correct.
The most significant items are those that will vary between the contingency budget (a contingency
plan) and the regular budget. The company cannot increase its finished goods inventory, but it can
increase its inventory of the direct materials provided by the supplier. Thus, the items most affected
will be direct materials and cash. The cash budget will be affected because of the need to pay for direct
materials prior to their usage.