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CDCs 2 > Section Three > Flashcards

Section Three Flashcards

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1
Q

What condition permits helicopter rotor blades to droop to within five feet of the ground while they are turning?

A

Droop stop malfunction

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2
Q

The noise intensity of jet aircraft is greatest

A

In the rear of the engines at an angle of 45 degrees on either side

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3
Q

When electromagnetic radiation is absorbed in the tissues if the body

A

Hear is produced

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4
Q

Which form has an entry identifying the types and quantities of munitions loaded on an aircraft?

A

AFTO form 781A, maintenance discrepancy and work document

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5
Q

What is the first step I making sure an aircraft is safe for maintenance?

A

Checking the aircraft forms for the aircraft status

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6
Q

When are aircraft most susceptible to fire?

A

While the engines are running

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7
Q

What hazard is of special concern during aircraft brake fires?

A

Flying debris resulting from tire blowout

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8
Q

Bombs can be expected to detonate within how long after being enveloped in flames?

A

Two to five minutes

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9
Q

When missiles are involved in an aircraft fire, approach the fire, if possible, from

A

The side of the aircraft

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10
Q

On a four person load crew, which member is deemed the primary firefighter?

A

Number three person

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11
Q

Personnel line badges are classified as what as what type of FOD?

A

Metals

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12
Q

Hailstones are classified as what kind of FOD?

A

Misc.

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13
Q

What is the FOD walk?

A

An organized inspection and physical pickup of foreign objects

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14
Q

Aluminum’s formation of a tightly adhering oxide film

A

Provides increased resistance under mild corrosive conditions

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15
Q

In unprotected, ferrous metal surfaces are

A

Easily corroded if moisture is present

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16
Q

Piano binges are prime spots for corrosion because they are natural traps for dirt, salt, and moisture and

A

Dissimilar metal contact between the steel pin and aluminum hinge tangs

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17
Q

An important part of corrosion control I’d detecting and correcting when the corrosion when it is in what stages?

A

Earliest

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18
Q

What corrosion accelerant agent does dust, dirt, acid spills, or waste materials provide?

A

Electrolyte

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19
Q

Which cockpit panel allows electrical power to be distributed throughout the entire aircraft electrical system?

A

Aircraft power panels

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20
Q

The energizing and de energizing of bomb rack solenoid snag selected weapons stations normally is performed through the

A

Main armament control panels

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21
Q

What panel works in conjunction with the special weapons control panels to facilitate all of the functions needed to release s special weapon?

A

Subsystem control panel

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22
Q

What two basic armament system controls are normally found in the pilot’s stick grip?

A

Trigger and armament release switch

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23
Q

Which aircraft use integrates keyboards?

A

B-52, B-1, B-2

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24
Q

The functions of s digital system are initiated by

A

Main computer

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25
Which aircraft employs all three stores management systems?
B-52
26
What aircraft system monsters an aircraft's system and indicates or reports its status to the aircrew or ground maintenance technician?
Fault isolation
27
In a fault isolation system using built in test checks, the results if the test should marks a fault down to a
Subsystem or system
28
Normally, the advanced computer fault isolation system narrows malfunctions down to a single line replaceable unit
95 percent of the time
29
Before release firing pulses are allowed access to an installed nuclear weapon, an aircraft's nuclear weapons system must be properly
Enabled
30
Radar navigation systems associated with the weapons systems normally facilitate the computerized release of onboard
Missiles
31
Which item is the only mechanically operated bomb rack presently in use?
B-11
32
During release, what component of the B-11 bomb shackle retains the arming wire?
Arming hook
33
Which bomb racks are nuclear capable?
MAU-12, BRU-44, BRU-47
34
Nuclear capable bomb racks are equipped with
An inflight safety lock
35
What component of a cluster rack actuated the B-11 bomb shackle to release munitions?
A-6 release unit
36
Rotating of the bomb module swing arms is enabled by
Cartridge powered actuators
37
How many munitions can be loaded onto the MIL-STD-1760 enhanced conventional bomb module?
10
38
How many MK-82 500 pound bombs can be carried by the bomb rack assembly?
20
39
Which columns are capable of holding cluster bomb units on the smart bomb rack assembly?
One, three, and four
40
The multipurpose rotary launcher is controlled
Electrically
41
During ground rotation of the multipurpose rotary launcher rotation, speed is
1/8 normal rotation speed
42
Which bomb rack is used on the rotary launch assembly?
BRU-44B/A
43
When the MASTER ARM power is initially applied, a TER will step to the
First loaded station position of the unit
44
When the BDU-33s are carried on a TER to provide alignment of the bomb, you must install
A yoke adapter
45
What bomb racks are used by the BRU-58 smart rack to carry stores weighing up to 1000 lbs?
MAU-12
46
Which munition is the BRU-61/A capable of carrying?
GBU-39
47
How many munitions is the BRU-61/A capable of carrying?
Four
48
The interchangeable pylons are
Installed at any station
49
How does the safety clutch safe the F-22 pylons?
Electrically and mechanically
50
What is the only gas operated missile launcher?
LAU-106
51
What is the only Pneumatically operated missile launcher?
LAU-142
52
If the LAU-142s ground safety lever is not in the "GND" position, what will happen if the launcher fully extends?
The launcher will automatically release the missile hangers
53
Normally, what do you use and coat launcher rail surfaces?
Molybdenum disulfide (dry lube)
54
On the LAU-88 missile launcher, what keeps the shear pin from backing out during flight?
Lock nut
55
What rail missile launcher carries the AGM-114
Modified M299
56
On AIM-9 and AIM-120 capable rail launchers, what prevents the missile from leaving the rail if the rocket motor fires inadvertently?
An inflight lock (IFL)
57
What is the only rail launcher that automatically engages the missile umbilical during loading?
Modified M299
58
What is the rocket capacity of the LAU-131 rocket launcher?
7
59
What mechanism within the LAU-131's tubes restrains the rockers against normal flying loads?
Detents
60
How is the LAU-131 rocket pod safed?
Electrically with a shorting pin
61
What adapter was developed to allow the B-1 to carry and drop BDU-33s?
Practice bomb adapter rack
62
How many flares are contained in the SUU-25 flare dispenser
Eight
63
What biting system release option is equated to a single selected weapons release?
Manual
64
What aircraft generated computer signal allows the AIM-120 missile to begin its launch cycle?
Release consent
65
What armament system circuits are normally disabled during selective jettison?
Mechanical fuzing
66
Which aircraft does not have pylon jettisoning capabilities?
F-16
67
Who has the authority to change time constraints of operational/functional checks?
Local commander
68
Which of the following is a detrimental effect of barrel heating?
Increased barrel wear and warping
69
To comp,step the firing cycle, recoil operated guns use force applied to the
Breech housing
70
What us the maximum firing rate of the GAU-2?
4000 spm
71
Heat ammunition feed system is used to supply the GAU-2?
Linked
72
What component of the M61A1 breech bolt locks fit in the firing position?
Locking block
73
What component of the M61A1 breech bolt makes electrical contact with the primer of the round?
Firing pin
74
What M61A1 gun component locks the barrels into position?
Center clamp
75
What caliber of ammunition is fired by the GAU-12/U?
25mm
76
What us rage firing rate of the 25mm gun?
1800 (+-100) SPM
77
Into his many parts is the GAU-8/A 30mm gun rotor assembly divided?
Two
78
What GAU-8/A 30mm gun component locks the barrel in the rotor?
Interrupted locking lugs
79
The M240 operates under the
Open bolt concept
80
The GAU-18 machine gun is operated
By recoil
81
When does the recoiling step of the GAU-18 firing cycle begin?
The instant of firing
82
What ammunition feed system is used to supply the M2A1 40mm gun?
Clip
83
What two 40mm gun components absorb the reward rust caused by firing the gun?
Recuperator spring and recoil cylinder
84
What M2A1 40mm gun component is responsible for holding the barrel assembly in the gun, and scars as a safety device to prevent the gun from firing whenever the barrel assembly is removed or improperly installed?
Breech ring assembly
85
What component of the 105mm guy is composed of the sleigh, recuperator assemblies
Recoil mechanism
86
What unit of the link less system is attached to the aft end of a drum assembly?
Entrance
87
The function of the transfer unit on the link less system is to remove rounds from the
Conveyor elements and feed them into the gun
88
On the gun gas scavenge systems, after the trigger is released, purge doors stay open for approximately
30 seconds
89
What aircraft makes use of a moveable door covering the firing port for the projectiles to exit the aircraft?
F-22
90
What spare the two types of operational/functional checks for gun systems?
Mechanical and electrical
91
When using the bore sight method of harmonization, the bore sight target normally us placed
1000 inches from the nose wheel axle
92
Where is the adjustment made on the gun when bore sighting?
Gun mounts
93
Before handling any electrically primed munitions, you must
Ground yourself
94
If burning particles of white phosphorus strike the skin, you must keep the phosphorus covered with
A wet cloth
95
The first thing you do I munitions prep is make sure that the munition
Matches mission requirements
96
During what loading step do you insert arming wire loops into the bomb rack solenoids?
Loading
97
During a concurrent servicing operation what servicing action cannot be performed while refueling?
Oxygen
98
During a concurrent servicing operation a concurrent servicing supervisor is not required when
Fueling is not being performed
99
Before operating bomb bay door systems for check out you must make sure
The proper strut supports have been installed

CDCs 2 (2 decks)

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