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Microbiology > S.I. And Unit Quiz Questions > Flashcards

S.I. And Unit Quiz Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is NOT a method os microbial control that is used outside of the body
Sterilization
Sepsis
Disinfection
Decontamination

A

Sepsis

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2
Q

T/F: the goal of any sterilization process is the destruction of bacterial endospores

A

True

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3
Q

What is an agent that uses chemicals that destroys bacteria except for those in the endospores stage

A

Bactericide

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4
Q

What uses a chemical agent that kills microorganisms

A

Germicide/microbicide

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5
Q

What is it called when there is a growth of microorganisms in the blood and other tissues?

A

Sepsis

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6
Q

What is not an influence on the action of antimicrobial agents?

A

All of the above can
- temperature and PH
- the concentration of the agent
- the mode of the action of the agent
- the presence of solvents, inhibitor, or interfering organic matter

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7
Q

A chemical agent that dissolves in lipids can damage

A

Cells and enveloped viruses

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8
Q

Aseptic means?

A

Free of pathogens

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9
Q

Methods of microbial control called ——— arrest the growth of microbes

A

Germistatic

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10
Q

Seventy percent alcohol is effective against?

A

Enveloped viruses

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11
Q

Silvadene, a topical treatment for burns, contains 1% silver. What category of chemical control agent is in Silvadene?

A

Heavy metals

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12
Q

Washing dishes in the dishwasher with detergent and hot water is a ——— process

A

Degerming and disinfecting

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13
Q

Which is the most difficult to inactivate?
- enveloped viruses
- protozoan cysts
- bacterial endospores
- nonenveloped viruses
- fungus spores

A

Bacterial endospores

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14
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE of disinfectants?
- used for sterilization
- used on living tissues
- only effective for short periods of time
- effective for destroying endospores
- used on inanimate surfaces

A

Used on inanimate surfaces

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15
Q

You notice a sign in a public restroom that states “Sanitized for your safety”. This means what?

A

Methods of infection that meet the minimum standard of microbial removal have been used

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16
Q

Characteristics of the ideal antimicrobial drug

A
  • toxic to the microbe but not the host cell
  • relatively soluble: functions even when highly diluted in body fluids
  • remains potent for long enough to act and is not broken down or excreted prematurely
  • does not lead to development of antimicrobial resistance
  • doesn’t disrupt the hosts health by causing allergies or predisposing the host to another infection
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17
Q

Ways antibiotics kill bacteria

A

1) target cell wall
-
-
2) target protein synthesis
-
- tetracycline
3) target folic acid synthesis
- nucleic acid synthesis
- sulfamethoxazole
4) target DNA or RNA
- inhibit DNA unwinding enzymes of helicases
- levofloxacin
5) targets cytoplasmic or cell membranes
- polymyxin B

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18
Q

How does resistance develop

A

1) spontaneous mutations in critical chromosomal genes
2)
3) slowing or stopping metabolism so that the microbe cannot be harmed by he antibiotic
A) do not grow, do not die
B) dormant
C) tolerant of antibiotics

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19
Q

Serial dilutions

A
  • a stepwise series of dilutions of a substance
    - the point is to reduce the concentration to a more usable concentration
    - it is irrelevant if there are so many that you simply can not count the colonies
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20
Q

Microbiome

A
  • made up of good bacteria
  • can block pathogens form growing our - microbiome will be using up all of the nutrients so the pathogens will not have any available to them
  • some bacteria in our but will use enzymes to break down our ingested food more than our bodies can on their own
  • some of the bacteria that you find in your gut is not the same as the bacteria on skin
  • probiotics help to reestablish gut microbiomes
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21
Q

Modes of transmission

A
  • direct contact
    • body contact between hosts
    • Mono -> Epstein-Barr virus -> kissing disease
  • indirect contact
    • pathogens are spread from host to host by fomites
    • objects that are likely to carry infection
    • STIs and Salmonella
    • fomites include tables, door handles, and clothing
  • droplet
    • spread of pathogens in droplets of mucus by exhaling, coughing, and sneezing
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22
Q

Mode of transmission - vehicle

A

Airborne
- aerosols
Waterborne
- pathogen is in the water (GI diseases)
Food borne
- antibiotic resistance
Bodily fluid
- blood, urine, etc

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23
Q

Mode of transmission - vector

A

Vector: A carrier of a disease - causing agent from un infected individual to a non-infected individual or its parts
- West Nile Virus -> spread by mosquitos
- not human to human spread
Mosquitos, fleas, ticks, lice, and flies

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24
Q

Imipenem mode of action

A

inhibits cross-linking of peptidoglycan during cell wall synthesis by inactivating penicillin binding proteins

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25
Q

What is a medication that inhibits synthesis of ergosterol that would be effective in treatment
- mycobacterial disease
- bacterial infections
- viral disease
- fungal infections
- Protozoa infections

A
  • fungal infections
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26
Q

Beta-lactam antibiotics have an effect on which of the following types of cells?
- bacterial cells
- virus-infected cells
- animal cells
- fungal cells
- both animal and fungal cells

A
  • bacterial cells
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27
Q

Drug-resistant populations of microbes arise when ————

A
  • exposure to drugs selectively kills sensitive cells, allowing overgrowth of resistant cells
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28
Q

Infection of the ——— would be the hardest to treat with antimicrobial drugs

A
  • brain
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29
Q

Most broad-spectrum antibiotics act by?
- inhibiting the synthesis of the cell wall
- inhibiting metabolic pathways
- disrupting the cytoplasmic membrane
- inhibiting nuclei acid synthesis
- inhibiting protein synthesis

A
  • inhibits protein synthesis
30
Q

Several antiviral medications used to treat HIV interfere with
- protein synthesis
- cell wall synthesis
- nucleic acid synthesis
- folic acid synthesis
- assembly of membranes

A
  • Nucleic acid synthesis
31
Q

The cooperative activity of drugs such as beta-lactam antibiotics and Clavulanic acid, a Beta - lactamase inhibitor is known as what?

A
  • synergism
32
Q

The mechanism of action of erythromycin is what?

A
  • the inhibition of protein synthesis
33
Q

The figure represents a Petri plate. the gray area is where bacteria A is growing. The black area is where bacteria B is growing. the white area is a zone where neither organism is growing. What is the best interpretation of what is observed on the plate?

A
  • Bacteria B is producing an antibiotic that inhibits the growth of bacteria A
34
Q

Which of the following antibiotics disrupts cytoplasmic membrane function?
- streptomycin
- amphotericin B
- erythromycin
- penicillin
- tetracycline

A

Amphotericin B

35
Q

A strain of Neisseria gonorrhea has a mutation which has caused it to lose the ability to produce fimbriae and become less virulent as a consequence. What function has this pathogen lost?

A

The ability to adhere to cells of the body

36
Q

a toxin common to most Gram-negative bacteria is?
neurotoxin
hemolysin
collagenase
lipid A.
Coagulase

A

lipid A

37
Q

Chagas’ disease is transmitted by a bug with mouthparts that penetrate blood vessels. Which type of exposure does this represent?
fomite
mucous membrane portal
parenteral route
contact
skin protal

A

parenteral route

38
Q

In early spring 2009, the CDC reported several dozen cases of novel H1N1 influenza (“swine flu”) in the United States. By the end of the year millions of people had been infected. The pattern of novel H1N1 cases in the United States represents a(n) ________ disease.

A

epidemic

39
Q

Over 470,000 cases of cholera were reported in Haiti in the two years following the 2010 earthquake. Which of the following was the most likely mode of transmission?
contact
contaminated water
contaminated milk
mosquitoes
aerosols

A

contaminated water

40
Q

symptoms are described as?

A
  • subjective characteristics of a disease that only the patient can feel
41
Q

The close contact between newborns and family members allow them to become ________ with microbes that become established as their microbiota. (Choose the most accurate term.)

A

colonized

42
Q

which of the following is a sign of disease?
fever
headache
cramps
dizziness
nausea

A

fever

43
Q

Which of the following is the correct sequence of a disease process?
a) incubation, convalescence, prodromal period, illness, decline
b) illness, convalescence, incubation, prodromal period, decline
c) convalescence, incubation, prodromal period, illness, decline
d) incubation, prodromal period, illness, decline, convalescence
e) prodromal period, convalescence, incubation, illness, decline

A

Incubation, prodromal period, illness, decline, convalescence

44
Q

which of the following stages of an infectious disease is most severe?
a) the prodromal period
b) the incubation period
c) the decline period
d) the convalescence period
e) the illness period

A

the illness period

45
Q

DNA vs. Plasmids

A

Plasmids - only contain extra genes that are not really necessary for the organisms existence (Antibiotic resistance)

DNA - DNA carries all of the information needed for the growth of the organism, development of the organism, and reproduction

46
Q

Which is not a method of microbicidal control?
Sterilization
Disinfection
Sepsis
Decontamination/sanitation
None of the above

A

Sepsis

47
Q

What is a process that destroys or removes all viable microorganisms (including viruses)

A

Sterilization

48
Q

What uses a physical process or a chemical agent to destroy vegetative pathogens but not bacterial endospores. It removes harmful products of microorganisms (toxins) from material

A

Disinfection

49
Q

What is a cleansing technique that mechanically removes microorganisms as well as other debris to reduce contamination to safe levels

A

Decontamination/sanitation

50
Q

What mutation inserts a nucleotide(s) into a segment of DNA

A

Insertion

51
Q

What mutation loses one or more nucleotides from a segment of DNA

A

Deletion

52
Q

What mutation is it when a single base pair is added, deleted, or changed?

A

Point mutation

53
Q

What is a subjective characteristic of disease only felt by the patient

A

Symptom

54
Q

What is an objective manifestation of disease observed or measured by others?

A

Signs

55
Q

What is it when symptoms and signs characterize a disease or an abnormal condition

A

Syndrome

56
Q

In manifestations of disease, high temperature, low blood pressure, and wounds are

A

Signs

57
Q

In manifestations of disease, chills, nausea, shivering, shaking, and tiredness are

A

Symptoms

58
Q

What is it called when an antimicrobial is able to kill or inhibit microbial cell without damaging the host tissue

A

Selectively toxic

59
Q

Drugs that are most toxic to humans are those that:

A

Have characteristics similar to the host cell
Act upon a structure

60
Q

What is an example of sterilization

A

Heat (autoclaving)

61
Q

Example of disinfection

A

Heat (boiling)

62
Q

Example of decontamination/sanitation

A

Detergents

63
Q

Example of antisepsis/degermination

A

Alcohol

64
Q

What is a chemical that destroys bacteria except for those in the endospores stage?

A

Bactericide

65
Q

True or false: bacteriostatic is a chemical agent that kill bacteria on tissues or an objects in the environment

A

False - it prevents growth

66
Q

True or false: microbial death is the permanent termination of an organisms vital processes

A

True

67
Q

True or false: microbial death of the whole population is instantaneous

A

False

68
Q

How would you decide whether to use a physical or chemical means of control?

A

One way to decide is by seeing what kind of bacteria or substance needs to be controlled or killed. After identifying what is present then it can be decided what physical or chemical agent should be used. Physical controls are typically ones that involve the use of heat, so these should be used in scenarios where the substance can be killed when put under heat. Chemical controls often use chemicals to target specific parts of the cell or specific sections of what it is trying to get rid of. Chemical control methods are often occurring in liquid, gaseous, or solid states, and range from using disinfectants and antiseptics to even using sterilants and preservatives. These can either be aqueous or tinctures. In order to decide which to use doctors need to be able to look at the bacteria or infection that is present and know based on what type it is what to treat it with. Based on the type of infection and the location in the body, it can then be decided if a physical or chemical control method should be used.

69
Q

Narrow-spectrum drugs are designed for a limited type of bacteria, while broad-spectrum drugs generally act on either Gram - or Gram+ bacteria. What would pros and cons be for each drug?

A

One pro is that since narrow-spectrum tend to only be reactive to certain bacteria, they can tend to either have a stronger effect on said bacteria. This is because the bacteria being treated by the drug is less likely to be resistant. However a downside is that narrow-spectrum drugs can only treat certain bacteria unlike broad-spectrum drugs which can treat a much wider variety of bacteria. Being able to treat a very wide variety of bacteria or infection is one of the pros to using broad-spectrum drugs. While both spectrums work well to treat infections a con of using them is that broad-spectrum drugs are more likely to create antibiotic-resistant bacteria in the world.

70
Q

A new drug kills Gram-positive bacteria but not Gram-negative bacteria. Discuss two possible ways the drug may act selectively on different bacterial cells.

A

One way that this is possible would be if the new drug is a narrow-spectrum drug. The term narrow spectrum means that it is likely to be mostly effective on Gram-positive or Gram-negative but not both. Gram-negative can tend to be more resistant to antibiotics than Gram-positive are, this is because they have a thinner outer layer and thus are easier to get through so they tend to resist more drugs. Another way that a drug that kills Gram-positive bacteria but not Gram-negative bacteria could be dependent on whether or not the bacteria is from a eukaryotic cell or a prokaryotic cell. One way this could be phrased is that if the drug is selectively toxic then it directly targets the bacteria but not the host. For this to occur the drug would have to specifically target one type of bacteria.

Microbiology (23 decks)

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