Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Study > SOPs > Flashcards

SOPs Flashcards

To know your SOPs by heart!

1
Q

During a normal ILS approach in VMC conditions the flaps are not in landing configuration. What is the call at 500ft AAL?

A

“500 Go Around”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Prior to crossing or entering a runway, either active or non active, crews must make a ‘Two Phase call’ (inter cockpit). The first phase of the ‘Two Phase Call’ requires the Captain to establish with the RHS pilot that they are cleared to cross/enter the runway, the second phase requires the RHS pilot to respond:

A

“Affirm cleared to enter” or “Affirm, cleared to cross”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the standard callout by the PF after he hears, ‘Flaps Up, No lights’ during normal operation?

A

“After Takeoff checklist”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The ‘Immediate Level off Procedure’ is?

A

“ALT HOLD”, reset MCP altitude, engage “LVL CHG”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Prior to taxi the F/O should call?

A

“Clear right”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A runway covered with more than 3mm of ‘Slush’ is considered for performance reasons to be a:

A

“Contaminated Runway”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the signal to the Cabin Crew that it is safe for them to move around and get off oxygen after rapid decompression?

A

“No.1 to the Flight Deck” over the PA and a ding on the cabin ATTEND button

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The standard callout by PF when cleared to an altitude during descent is:

A

“QNH___SET, PASSING___, DESCENDING___FEET, ___ FLAGS, STAND BY ALTIMETER SET”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The standard call in the event of a ‘Passenger Evacuation’ is:

A

“This is an Emergency. Evacuate the aircraft using all available exits””. This call is to be repeated once

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

PF response to RAAS “On Runway” (cleared for take-off) is:

A

“Timing”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The standard callout at V1 when taking off on a wet runway is?

A

“V1”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The standard callout, from the PM, at 500 feet AAL on an ILS CATI approach is:

A

“500 continue” or “500 go-around”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When setting minima on the PFD for an RNAV Approach to LNAV minima, what adition is made to the MDA?

A

+40 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

During ILS CATII/III approaches the maximum allowed deviation is: Select one

A

1/3 dot Localizer (2/3 from center to dot on the localizer expanded scale)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When capturing the ILS glideslope from above, the MCP altitude may be selected no lower than: Select one

A

1,000 feet AFE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A NPA using VNAV must be stabilised by:

A

1,000 feet in IMC conditions, 500 feet in VMC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The ‘Landing Gate’ for an IMC approach (Precision or Non Precision) is?

A

1,000ft

For RNP:

  • <> .15 XTK
  • ^v +/- 75’
  • Vref-Vref+20
  • Land CONFIG
  • Land CX to lights
  • RoD as Req (NB! 1000fpm)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the earliest point at which the Autopilot may be engaged on NADP2 departure?

A

1,000 ft AAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When should the PF “Bug Up” on a standard departure using NADP2?

A

1,000ft AAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When is the missed approach altitude set on a Non Precision Approach?

A

1,000ft AAL (Top of the white band)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

After landing if the turnoff is 90 degrees, what is the maximum allowed speed? Select one:

A

10 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The maximum headwind, crosswind and tailwind component on a CAT II/IIIA Autoland is?

A

Max headwind: 25 kts Max cross wind: 20 kts Max tailwind: 10 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the latest point to select flap 1 on any approach?

A

10 nm from touchdown // 10 nm from RW xx point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Minimum engine oil quantity for dispatch (as displayed on the lower DU) is: Select one

A

12 Litres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the latest point can the autopilot be used during a single channel approach?

A

158ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The maximum allowed crosswind component (winglet aircraft) for takeoff on a slush/standing water runway is:

A

15 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

To avoid exceeding flap limit speeds on the approach the maximum approach speed additive is?

A

15 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The Maximum taxi speed on the apron in dry conditions is:

A

15 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Second officer (2 stripes) shall not conduct the landing when the crosswind is in excess of?

A

15kts during normal operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How long should the APU be running prior to using it as a bleed source?

A

2 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The minimum brake accumulator pressure with the hydraulics pressurised should be?

A

2,800 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

If the ambient temperature is below -35°C how many minutes must the engine be idled before changing thrust position?

A

2 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When performing a NPA using VNAV, at what point does the PM call “Approaching Descent”?

A

2nm before the nominated descent point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the normal landing flap setting for the Boeing 737?

A

30 & 40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

When setting airspeed bugs with no operative FMC, what is the default weight? Select one

A

32,000 kgs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The Maximum crosswind, dry runway, for takeoff and landing a winglet equipped aircraft is:

A

33 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

If the LNAV/VNAV minima published on the chart is 350ft, what minima is to be set on the PFD (assuming no cold temperature corrections needed)?

A

350ft (no addition required)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

When a T/O Alternate is required, the planned alternate should be based on one hour flight time at the one engine inoperative cruise speed according to the AFM, in still air the distance is:

A
  • 427 nm (B737-800) and
  • 416 nm (B737-700).*

@ M.79/330 Kts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What range ring must be entered for the landing runway in the fix page on the RWxx point when planning a circle to land?

A

4.2 nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

During the D.A.L.T.A setup for a circling approach, when setting the range rings for the approach and landing, the pilot should set 10 NM range ring and 4/5 NM ( VMC/IMC) range ring from the approach runway and…

A

4.2 NM including abeam radial from the landing runway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The earliest point that flap retraction from F15 to F5 may be commenced on a two engine Missed Approach is at…

A

400ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the diversion distance (maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome for two-engined aeroplaneswithout an ETOPS approval) for the RYR B737-800?

A

427 nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the recommended taxi speed when engaging a RET (Rapid Exit Taxiway) after landing? Select one

A

45 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

For all ILS approaches, G/S capture must be achieved no later than: Select one

A

4 or 5 miles DME / 4 or 5 nm from the RW point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Standard callout from the PM at 500ft AAL on an ILS CAT I approach is:

A

500 continue / 500 go around

“Five hundred continue/go-around” (PM), “Check” (PF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The Enhanced GPWS will issue an automatic 500ft aural call at:

A

500 feet Radio Altitude on an approach that has NO Glideslope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

During a normal ILS approach in VMC conditions the Flaps are not in landing config. What is the call at 500ft?

A

500 Go Around

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Maximum ground speed whilst taxiing on a contaminated taxiway is:

A

5 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

You are on ILS CAT I approach with a cloud base of 600ft and visibility of 2000m, what is the latest point to select the landing gear down on approach?

A

5nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

The correct point to select Landing Gear Down and Flap 15 on a VS NPA is?

A

5nm prior to RWxx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Max motoring occurs when N2 acceleration is less than 1% in approximately how many seconds?

A

5 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

In the event of an engine failure at V1 where an Emergency Turn (ETP Type 1) is required, what are the parameters that must be flown?

A

Accelerate and maintain V2 (magenta bug) and limit bank angle to 15° during the turn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

During flap retraction, the speed must not only be at the manoeuvring speed for the existing flap setting, but also showing an…?

A

Accelerating speed trend vector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

When using the ‘Rx’ point for a visual approach…

A

A distance of 4nm or greater shall be selected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Which statement is true regarding takeoff flap settings?

A

A flap 1 departure must be performed by the Captain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

During any Go-Around when is ATC called if required? Select one

A

After calling “SPEED CHECKS, FLAPS UP”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

The Audio Switch to I/C for Hot mike usage is required:

A

After pushback and prior to obtaining taxi clearance. It shall remain ON until completion of the TEN Checks Climbing, after which it will remain crew discretion to either turn the I/C On or Off and shall be on prior to the Descent checks and remains On for the remainder of the flight until Park Brake set at stand.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

During the Preflight Procedure, as PF, when do you check that the Brake Accumulator and Hydraulic System A and B pressure are within limits?

A

After selecting the System A and B Hydraulic Pumps ON.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

When is the transponder mode selector set 2000, then STBY, during the taxi in procedure? Select one

A

After the airplane has come to a complete stop.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Engine Start: The PF calls, ‘Monitor Number__’

A

After the Start Valve Open light extinguishes and the PM calls, “Starter cut-out”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

When will the First Officer press the cabin attend button during the before takeoff checks? Select one

A

After the take-off briefing has been reviewed by the CP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Which of the following is correct regarding the Emergency Turn (ET) procedure – ETP1?

A

After the turn is completed and at or above the MFRA, the PF calls “Bug up”accelerates, retracts flaps, then selects level change and MCT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Regarding IRS alignment:

A

A full alignment is only required for the first flight of each duty period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

An ASR must be filed if:

A

A Go-Around has been executed below 1000ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Continuous Descent Approaches (2 engines) are standard on?

A

All approaches except V/S NPA and SRA”s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

A double briefing has to contain the following:

A

QTSAVNG

  • QNH+minima
  • Temp Corr
  • Sequence (flaps,configure)
  • AFDS + A/T
  • Visual - actions if visual
  • Not visual - actions if not
  • Gate - landing gate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

CDA – Continuous Descent Approaches are: (OPS A)

A

Allowed for ILS

Not Allowed for SRA and V/S NPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

When you are planning to travel on the jumpseat you must:

A
  • Make yourself known to the handling agent, flight crew and get the Captains approval
  • Be travelling in uniform since you are travelling as passive crew
  • Be in possession of a valid Ryanair ID, have a valid licence and passport
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Items to be reviewed with the takeoff briefing, as part of the before takeoff checks are:

A
  • Bleeds position
  • Speeds
  • SID initial turn requirement and stop altitude
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Entering the runway, which lights do you turn ON?

A

Fixed Landing lights

Retractable Landing lights

Strobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

When using LNAV/VNAV minima, cold temperature altitude corrections are NOT applied to:

A

Altitudes from the FAF to the MAPT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Before obtaining engine start clearance the transponder should be positioned to?

A

ALT OFF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Wing anti-ice shall be used:

A

Always on the ground when icing conditions exists unless the aircraft is or will be anti-iced using type II or type IV fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

If APU operation is required on the ground and the aircraft buses are powered by AC electrical power, then:

A

An AC powered fuel pump from left side of fuel manifold should be ON

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

When starting the engines, the first step is:

A

Announce engine start sequence. Plan to start engines to result in minimum fuel consumption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

The taxi briefing on departure must always include:

A

A review of the expected taxi routing to the runway of departure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What criteria must be met to allow selection of V/S with flaps extended on departure? Select one

A

A SID speed restriction results in delaying the flap retraction schedule and the aircraft has accelerated to the assigned speed restriction and the climb rate needs to be reduced in order to comply with Ryanair policy on V/S when approaching stop altitude and AFDS is engaged above MFRA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

When should the EMERGENCY EXIT LIGHTS be armed?

A

As part of the Preliminary Flight Deck Procedure – PF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

When performing a cross bleed start, when do you disconnect the ground power:

A

As stated in the supplementary procedures SP 7.4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

There is a cross wind in excess of 10kts, is assumed thrust reduction allowed?

A

Assumed thrust reduction is not allowed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

During an NADP 2 departure, when would you put in the respective autopilot?

A

At 1,000ft AAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

During a normal NADP 2 takeoff with 2 engines operative, when does the PF call “BUG UP” Select one

A

At 1,000ft AAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Select which statement is true with regard to a NADP1 departure. Select one

A

At 1,000 ft AAL PF will select CMD A or B and call “COMMAND A or B” when annunciated on the FMA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is the earliest point at which the AP may be engaged (RYR Procs) on departure?

A

At 1,000ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the latest point at which the autopilot has to be disengaged on a NPA using VNAV?

A

At 158ft or E/D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

On an ILS approach in VMC, PF should call Gear down, Flaps 15: Select one

A

At 4nm, but not later than 3.5nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

When is the gear down and flaps 15 selected during a NPA using VNAV?

A

At 4 or 5 nm (VMC/IMC) to the Runway.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Flight crews, during a climb out, will reduce rate of climb to 3000 FPM if in excess at 3000 feet to level off, 2000 FPM if in excess at 2000 feet to level-off and 1000 FPM if in excess at 1000 feet to level-off. This restriction will be observed:

A

At all times. VNAV performance shall be used and monitored if within the above limits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

During an NADP 1 departure a SID requires a 3000ft QNH level off, when is it acceptable to accelerate and retract flaps?

A

At ALT ACQ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Which statement is true regarding Monitored NPA?

A

At EGPWS call “minimums” with no visual contact a go-around is mandatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Cruise altitude speed must be:

A

At least 10 knots above the lower amber band when not in LNAV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

When should the LOGO lights be ON?

A

At night below FL100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

An ‘Emergency Turn’ (engine failure on takeoff) must be flown

A

At V2 (magenta bug) and 15° bank. The turn does not need to be completed before level acceleration unless specified in the ETP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

The V1 aural call on take-off must

A

Be complete by V1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

When should the wing and engine anti-ice switches be turned off after landing in freezing/icing conditions?

A

Before entering the parking area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

When do we have to adjust all published altitudes using the Altimeter Cold Temperature Corrections?

A

Below corrected MSA when the surface temperature is at or below 0 degrees Celsius.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

The PF during the Preflight Procedure places the pack switches to?

A

Both AUTO or HIGH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Which statement is most correct? The runway is wet for departure.

A

Both De-rated and assumed thrust reduction are allowable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What should the packs switch position be before connecting the ground conditioned air cart? Select one

A

Both OFF. Packs can be damaged if they are operated while ground condition air isconnected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

During the climb as PM you see a FMC scratchpad message: Select one

A

Both pilots must acknowledge the message before it is cleared

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Which statement is correct regarding the circling procedure? Select one

A

Both pilots shall time the crosswind leg.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Which statement is correct regarding the recirculation fan switches during the preflight procedures:

A

Both should be left in the AUTO position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

During a 2 engine go around, the PF calls for gear up. What should the PM crosscheck before positioning the gear up?

A

Both VSI and altimeter indicate a positive rate of climb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

As part of the Route Check the PF will:

A

Call “Checked” and states estimated fuel remaining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

If an automatic switch over to a departure frequency is required after take-off, unless otherwise instructed by ATC, the PM selects the frequency once airborne and:

A

Calls should be initiated to ATC as specified in NADP1 or NADP2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

During the post flight procedures who annunciates “Disarm Slides and Open Doors”?

A

Captain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Preflight: Initial Emergency Briefing: The section detailing what the crew will reject the take-off for is briefed by the:

A

Captain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Whilst the aircraft is being pushed back from stand, who handles all communication with the ground crew?

A

Captain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

During the taxi-in, the first officer will:

A

Check the hydraulic and brake pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

A Monitored Approach does NOT apply to:

A

Circle to land approaches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

In the event of a ‘Engine Failure’ on Take-off one should:

A

Climb straight ahead unless there is an “Emergency Turn” and inform ATC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Visual Approaches are

A

Considered Non Precision Approaches and therefore require a Double Briefing.The “Ten Mile Rule” (Flaps 1) also applies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

During your walk around you see a missing security seal?

A

Contact Maintrol or get an on duty engineer to replace the seal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

A runway covered in more than 3mm of ‘Slush’ is considered for performance reasons to be a:

A

‘Contaminated Runway’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

The response the GPWS “MINIMUMS” is: Select one

A

CONTINUE / GO-AROUND, FLAPS 15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Standard Autobrake setting is OFF. Autobrake must be selected to a minimum of “2” when:

A

Crosswind in excess of 15kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

When cleared to final cruising level, the PF shall call ‘FL___ SET, THREE TIMES’ checking the MCP Alt, FLT ALTand the FMC. Which FMC page shall be referred to?

A

CRZ Page

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

When operating in freezing conditions and taxiing for take-off on surfaces covered with slush and/or standing water:

A

Delay flap selection until reaching the holding position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

If you encounter Severe Turbulence during high altitude cruise flight: Select one

A

Disconnect Autothrottle and set turbulence penetration N1 as highlighted by TURB N1 on the Cruise page.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

The check of the intermittent warning horn (TO Configuration) is done when?

A

Done during the pre-flight checks for all flights as part of the “Speedbrake” check. It is done by the PF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

The After T/O checks are:

A

Done silently, except for “Air Conditioning & Press” which is called aloud & the “Altimeters” check, which is challenge & response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Regarding to the NO ENGINE BLEED TAKEOFF, what action shall be taken after completing the engine startprocedure with both engines stable, parking brake set, tug and towbar disconnected, bypass pin removed andhand signals received from the ground crew?

A

Do not perform any action from memory and complete the NO ENGINE BLEED TAKEOFF checklist as instructed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Which statement is correct If an engine failure occurs during a NO ENGINE BLEED TAKEOFF? Select one

A

Do not position the engine BLEED switches ON until reaching 1500 ft or until obstacleclearance height has been attained.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

When flying in severe turbulence:

A

Do not use ALT HLD, use CWS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

If ice crystal icing is suspected during flight: Select one

A

Do the Ice Crystal Icing non-normal checklist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

When do the pilots need to do a Takeoff Emergency brief?

A

Each pilot on their first flight of the day as PF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

The minimum visual reference required to safely continue an approach below DA/MDA is at least:

A

Elements of the approach light system including at least two cross bars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

The Cabin Crew must be advised of refuelling when passengers are?

A

Embarking, disembarking or on board

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What is the correct method to calculate OPT performance for take-off in gusty headwind conditions?

A

Enter wind direction and full gust value to check that crosswind is within limits. Then enterthe steady wind direction (without gust value) to complete the performance calculation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What altitude should be set on the MCP prior to ATC clearance being received?

A

Expected SID plus 100ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Which of the following callouts is correct for a CAT II/IIIA autoland?

A

F/O: “Passing ___radio, flare armed”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

A full test of the GPWS is carried out by the?

A

F/O, first flight or crew change only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

The TCAS OFF flag must always be called as part of the instrument X-Check?

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

True or False: The engines are always started by the Captain.

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

True or false: The TR units output, on the electrical panel, should be checked as part of the after start scan?

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

P-RNAV arrivals terminate at:

A

Final Approach Waypoint.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Which statement is correct with regard to tail-strikes?

A

Flap 5 is the normal departure flap setting and, in addition, when the crosswind component is in excess of 10 kts assumed temperature thrust reduction is not permitted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

During the preflight Flight Deck Access System Test the correct action after the Emergency Access Code is entered and the AUTO UNLK light illuminates is:

A

Flight deck door lock selector to DENY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Which statement is true regarding the Flight Director:

A

Flight director cannot be used for guidance during rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What Cost Index (CI) is to be entered in the FMC pre-flight?

A

Flight plan specified Cost Index

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Which pilot handles all ATC communications whilst the aircraft is on the ground?

A

FO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Which statement is true regarding weather related missed approaches?

A

Following two weather related missed approaches, a third approach should only be commenced if weather information indicates an improvement to double the previously given weather

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

During the pre-flight planning phase, what weather criteria should be used for the destination alter

A

For a CAT I approach; use Non-precision RVR / Vis and ceiling minima

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

What is the planning minima for destination alternates and enroute alternates?

A

For NPA (Non Precision Approaches) – NPA minima PLUS 1000m/200ft is required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

The minimum flap retraction altitude (MFRA) is:

A

Found on the respective runway RTOW plate or OPT data

146
Q

The Approach Procedure (FRISC scanflow) prior to calling for the Approach Checklist, is which of the following?

A

Frequencies, Range Rings, Idents, SBY’s and Courses

147
Q

During the descent the “10 checks” are performed aloud as follows:

A

Fuel – Lights – Angle of Bank 25° – Check Air Conditioning and pressurisation – Fasten Belts – Recall – PA “10 minutes to landing”

148
Q

During the climb above FL100 and after the “Altimeters” call the PF will call for the “10 checks” which will be actioned by the PM. These will be said out loud in an unobtrusive manner in the following flow:

A

Fuel – Lights – APU Off – Press and Air Cond (APU bleed off) – Seatbelts – Recall – 121.5 monitor

149
Q

The following information should be given to ATC on contact with the first radar controller:

A

Full call sign, SID or cleared routing/heading, passing altitude/FL, Cleared altitude/FL

150
Q

When conducting a CATIIIA (CAT3a) approach in daytime with a RVR of 400 m, if the TWR reports the TDZ lights have failed. The best course of action is to:

A

Go around and check the effect on landing minima.

151
Q

During low visibility operations, the crew should:

A

Have the ILS tuned to the departure runway for take off

152
Q

How will the Captain notify the CSS in case of an emergency?

A

He will press the attendant call button once and use the phrase”No 1 to the flight deck”, over the PA

153
Q

The following is the correct manoeuvre for a TCAS RA (Resolution Advisory).

A

If manoeuvring is required disengage autopilot and auto-throttle and follow the correct manoeuvre as depicted on the PFD

154
Q

According to the ‘Before Taxi – No Engine Bleed’ Checklist, which of the following is true?

A

If wing anti-ice is required for taxi you will configure for a no engine bleed take off just prior to takeoff

155
Q

What is the correct status of the SPAR VALVE CLOSED lights during the pre-flight procedure?

A

Illuminated dim (blue)

156
Q

During the exterior inspection the PM will:

A

Include a visual inspection of both Cargo Holds. Leave hold doors open after inspection

157
Q

EI-FOC onwards. During cruise in VNAV PTH, a lower MCP Altitude is selected, followed by ALT INTV more than 50Nm before TOD. The aircraft will:

A

initiate a CRZ descent if the selected altitude is above any FMC altitude constraint OR initiate an early descent if the selected altitude is below any FMC altitude constraint.

158
Q

What is meant by ‘fail passive’ automatic landing system?

A

In the event of a failure, autopilot disengagement causes no significant deviation of trim, flight path or attitude

159
Q

Normal landing flap setting is?

A

Is determined after reviewing in flight landing performance calculations

160
Q

Prior to pushback, the “Passengers Seated” signal: Select one

A

Is given by the No 1 prior to pushback

161
Q

What is the last step of Isolated pack operation during engine start procedure? Select one

A

ISOLATION VALVE Switch .AUTO

162
Q

The Boeing OPT is:

A

Is the default performance calculation application

163
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the Isolated Pack Operation during Engine start? Select one

A

It can be performed by memory at the discretion of the Captain.

164
Q

During the Preflight Procedure, how often is the rudder and aileron trim checked to be free and zero? Select one

A

It is completed for all flights.

165
Q

If a No Engine Bleeds takeoff is planned:

A

It is necessary to cover this fact in the takeoff brief

166
Q

If a normal Bleeds ON takeoff is planned:

A

It need NOT be mentioned in the takeoff brief

167
Q

During the flight deck safety inspection and preliminary flight deck procedure, the APU is normally started:

A

Just prior to closing the L1 door

168
Q

When conducting a Visual Approach, the landing gate is….

A

Land Alt plus 500 feet

169
Q

The landing gate for a circling approach is 300ft AAL. What must be established by 500ft AAL on a circling approach?

A

Landing configuration only

170
Q

On a circle to land approach, you must enter a 4.2NM ring from which runway?

A

Landing RWY

171
Q

What course of action should be taken if during engine start the fuel is shutoff inadvertently (by closing engine startlever)?

A

Leave the engine start lever closed

172
Q

During a GA, the correct roll mode at 400ft, providing routing is available is?

A

LNAV

173
Q

An APV approach would be flown to which minima?

A

LNAV/VNAV

174
Q

How must an approach using LNAV/VNAV Minima be flown?

A

LNAV as the lateral mode, VNAV as the vertical mode

175
Q

Where does the Captain record the stab trim setting once calculated?

A

Loadsheet and FMC scratchpad

176
Q

When performing the Flight Control checks during the Before Taxi Procedure you should?

A

Make slow and deliberate inputs, one direction at a time

177
Q

Where can one find the Ryanair Non-Normal Flight Patterns and Manoeuvres?

A

Manoeuvres Section in the QRH

178
Q

The initial welcoming PA to passengers boarding should be done by whom and when?

A

Must be done by the Captain prior to pushback

179
Q

Engine Start: The Start Levers are moved to the idle detent when?

A

N1 rotation is observed and N2 reaches 25%

180
Q

What position are the IRS mode selectors positioned to during the preflight procedures?

A

NAV

181
Q

When should the recirculation fan switches be turned off?

A

Never, unless following a QRH procedure

182
Q

Are you allowed to fly direct to the Final Approach Fix on an RNAV Approach?

A

No

183
Q

What effect on CATIIIA (CAT3A) landing minima does failed or downgraded equipment, causing the lack of Midpoint or Stop End RVR (Part A, Chapter 8)?

A

No effect

184
Q

If the autoland proceeds normally after passing 50 ft radio minimums, the F/O calls?

A

Nothing until the speed brake deploys

185
Q

Low Drag Non-Precision Approaches are:

A

Not normally applicable to V/S NPA

186
Q

What is the minimum height required to switch Engine Bleed air switches on following an engine failure after takeoffin a no engine bleed T/O configuration?

A

Obstacle clearance height

187
Q

What position does the FO turn the Auto Brake selector to during the Taxi in Procedure?

A

OFF

188
Q

When pushin back from a stand using a tug without a nosewheel steering bypass pin fitted, what position should the hydraulic A pumps switch position be in?

A

OFF

189
Q

One of the standard callouts during engine start is?

A

‘Oil Pressure’ - PM

190
Q

The rudder trim function is checked during?

A

On all through flights

191
Q

The Flight Crew shall give the following to the CSS (Cabin Services Supervisor) prior to departure:

A

One copy of the SEP manual plus the CCI”s (Cabin Crew Instructions)

192
Q

If conducting a NADP 1 departure and a SID requires a 2500ft QNH level off, is it acceptable to accelerate at?

A

Only accelerate once cleared to climb above 3000ft agl

193
Q

When is the parking brake released once on stand and a wind calm day?

A

Only after confirmation that dual wheel chocks are in place

194
Q

On departure, when may crews fly at more than 250kts below FL100?

A

Only if you’re within Class A, B or C airspace, have been instructed “free speed” by ATC and are progressing on the course of your intended route.

195
Q

Ideally, Continuous Descent Approaches will be used on:

A

Only ILS Approaches under Radar Vector control except for CAT II/IIIA

196
Q

Crews may plan to fly high speed below FL100?

A

Only in the climb if you are in Class A, B or C airspace and have been authorised to do so by ATC

197
Q

The IFE Switch on the overhead panel is normally left:

A

ON, the IFE Switch is always turned ON as part of the pre-flight procedure

198
Q

The frequency 121.50 MHz must be monitored:

A

On VHF 2 when cleared to cruise level

199
Q

Which position should the ISOLATION valve be in for engine start?

A

OPEN

200
Q

Which statement is correct with regard to extending the airstair from the inside of the aircraft? Select one

A

Open the entry door to the cocked position to allow clear visibility of the area outside theaeroplane to avoid injury to personnel.

201
Q

Where would you find a table to establish the effects on ‘Landing Minima’ during LVO operations for various runway edge and centre line lighting conditions if inoperative?

A

Operations Manual Part A, Chapter 8

202
Q

Which items will the Captain review as part of the Before Takeoff checklist under ‘Takeoff Briefing’ in the correct order?

A

Packs, Bleeds, Speeds, SID - including initial turn required, STOP altitude, emergency turn (if applicable) and adverse weather

203
Q

The Fasten Belts switch should be selected to ON when: Select one

A

Passing FL150 or 15 minutes to landing

204
Q

Which annotation on the flight plan denotes approval for RNP approach procedures?

A

PBN S1 or S2

205
Q

Night time ‘Circle to Land’ manoeuvres are

A

Permitted provided a visual slope indicator (PAPI/VASI) or electronic slope indicator is operational on the landing runway

206
Q

On the ground, prior to switching on the A system pump switches, ensure:

A

Personnel are clear of the tow bar or the bypass pin has been installed

207
Q

During a dual channel GO Around, who will select the appropriate mode on the MCP?

A

PF

208
Q

The ‘Briefing’ part of RIBETS must be completed by?

A

PF

209
Q

Which pilot calls the Outer Marker (challenge) check first (on a ILS approach)?

A

PF

210
Q

Who completes the Light Test pre-flight?

A

PF

211
Q

Who first checks the maintenance status prior to the first flight?

A

PF

212
Q

When cleared to a FL what is the standard callout and by whom?

A

PF “Set STD, passing XXX, climbing XXX”

213
Q

What is the correct AFDS re-engagement sequence? Select one

A

PF calls for the desired Roll/Pitch modes on the MCP, assures that the aircraft is followingthe FD commands, is in trim about all axes and that there is no pressure on the controls. Then engages the A/P and the A/T

214
Q

Who checks the engine parameters i.e. OIL QTY etc. prior to engine start up?

A

PF, during Flight Deck Preparation

215
Q

During the Descent and Approach preparation what are the tasks of the PF and PM?

A

PF is responsible for setting the Vref and Autobrake setting having handed over control to the PM

216
Q

Which statement is correct with regard to MCP altitude changes following an ATC instruction?

A

PF resets MCP altitude and keeps finger in contact with MCP selector and calls “set”

217
Q

What does the PF do after the PM calls ‘approaching descent’ during a V/S NPA?

A

PF sets MDA and calls ‘XXX feet set’ after verifying ALT HOLD.

218
Q

When at an altitude and you are cleared to a FL what is the standard callout and by whom?

A

PF ‘Set STD, passing FLXXX climbing FLXXX’

219
Q

The ‘External Inspection’ (walk around) should be done by the:

A

Pilot Monitoring for the next sector

220
Q

Who gives the ‘Cabin Crew seats for landing’ call?

A

PM, normally around 6nm from touchdown

221
Q

Which ‘ENGINE START IGN’ selection should be made for engine start?

A

Position right for operating through a manned maintenance base

222
Q

What must the PM verify (silently) climbing through FL200, 300 & 400?

A

Pressurisation is normal

223
Q

What is the correct FMC page selection for the PF once cleared for approach?

A

Prog Page 4

224
Q

Self-manoeuvring Night Time Visual approaches below the MSA are:

A

Prohibited

225
Q

Which statement is correct if you get a “SINK RATE” GPWS aural CAUTION on approach?

A

Promptly correct the flight path and continue

226
Q

As part of the evacuation checklist, the F/O will:

A

Pull all engine and APU fire switches and only rotate a fire switch that is illuminated

227
Q

When cleared to an altitude during an approach (no delay anticipated) the following standard call applies?

A

QNH ___, passing XXX descending XXX, (No) flags, Standby Altimeter set

228
Q

The flight profiles of Ryanair approaches are contained in which manual?

A

QRH, Maneuvers section

229
Q

Where would you find the brake-cooling schedule?

A

QRH Performance Inflight Section (Advisory Information)

230
Q

The philosophy in which the normal checklists are used is?

A

READ-LOOK-LISTEN

231
Q

In the cruise if speed drops below the top of the lower amber band immediately increase speed by:

A

Reducing bank angle and/or increasing thrust to MCT and/or descend

232
Q

What is the correct response after thrust reverser deployment on landing roll out, both indications green?

A

Reversers Normal

233
Q

Which of the following RNAV procedures is Ryanair approved to conduct? RNAV (GPS) / RNAV (GNSS) RNAV RNP ARRNAV (RNP)

A

RNAV (GPS) / RNAV (GNSS)

234
Q

Which statement regarding RTE 2 feature of the FMC is correct? Select one

A

RTE 2 shall never be loaded on the ground

235
Q

The correct FMC sequence when briefing a SID is:

A

RTE PAGE 1 and 2, INIT/REF, LEGS

236
Q

What HDG should be selected on the MCP for take-offs?

A

Runway HDG

237
Q

When can both GEN1 and GEN2 be selected ON and the APU off during the engine start procedure? Select one

A

See FCOM1 NP 21.53The correct answer is: Once both engines are confirmed stable by the PM and the GEN OFF BUS lights areilluminated.

238
Q

When do you select the transponder to ALT OFF during engine start / push? Select one

A

before obtaining start clearance

239
Q

When encountering Light or Moderate Turbulence in the cruise, crew should Select one

A

Select CON on the FMC N1 LIMIT page

240
Q

On landing a Go-Around can be initiated at any time up to?

A

Selecting reverse thrust

241
Q

During descent, the PF will set and crosscheck altimeters at transition level or when cleared to an altitude. What isthe correct call that the PF makes?

A

SET QNH___. PASSING___ DESCENDING____FEET. ____ FLAGS, STANDBYALTIMETER SET’

242
Q

In descent when setting QNH what is the correct PF call?

A

SET QNH____, PASSING____ DESCENDING ___FEET, ___ FLAGS, STANDBYALTIMETER SET

243
Q

When cleared to climb above transition altitude, and the aircraft is above 3000 feet AGL, both pilots will: Select one

A

Set their altimeters to STD.

244
Q

When the MDA is 900ft AAL or higher on a non-precision approach the crew should: Select one

A

Set the MAA in the MCP Altitude window when the aircraft is 300ft above MDA/DA

245
Q

When should progress page 4/4 be selected with reference to approach procedures and what is the purpose of this operation?

A

Should be selected once cleared for an approach with the purpose of monitoring lateral and vertical deviation.

246
Q

Unless stated, the lowest turning altitude on departure is?

A

400’ ???

247
Q

If the RUNWAY INOP light is illuminated with the RUNWAY INHIBIT switch in the normal position, this indicates: Select one

A

Some RAAS alerts may continue to function

248
Q

Which is the correct order during the final CDU preflight procedure after selecting the OPT C/G in the CDU? Select one

A

STAB TRIM, V SPEEDS, MFRA, send output

249
Q

It is policy to fly a Low Drag Approach (ILS):

A

Subject to ATC, where the cloud base is not less than 1,000ft. and the met. visibility is greater than 5km.

250
Q

When performing a cross bleed start, where is the information to complete this procedure:

A

Supplementary procedures SP 7.5

251
Q

You are taking off on runway 18. It is reported as “Slippery when wet” with BA 0.40 0.35 0.38. The wind is 140/20G30. Is take-off allowed and is an alternate needed?

A

Take-off is allowed and no take-off alternate is needed

252
Q

During the takeoff roll, when the PF calls “Set Takeoff Thrust”, the PM checks N1 against target value, checks engine instruments on the upper DU and checks for any pop-ups on the lower DU, then calls?

A

Takeoff thrust set, indications normal

253
Q

If a conflict occurs between a TCAS RA and an ATC advisory information, which should the PF follow?

A

TCAS

254
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the ‘Emergency Escape Rope’?

A

The “Emergency Escape Ropes” (both) are attached to the flight deck

255
Q

Which statement is true regarding operation above the optimum cruise altitude in LNAV?

A

The aircraft may be operated safely up to and including maximum altitude indicated in the FMC with prior consideration

256
Q

When the ATIS/Volmet for your destination is received, what is preselected on the PFD?

A

The ATIS/Volmet QNH is preselected

257
Q

A double briefing contains (but not limited to) the following:

A

The Autopilot modes and selections to be used during the approach & The ‘Landing Gate’. Both crew’s intentions on becoming visual & Both crew’s intentions on reaching MDA if notvisual (i.e. the Go-Around procedure for the aircraft to Flaps up) Where Flaps 1, 5, Landing Gear, Flaps 15, (25), 30/40 are to be selected

258
Q

The INOP NO SMOKING sign is move to the ON position. What does this indicate during the taxi out phase?

A

The cabin is secured for Take off

259
Q

The First Officer will begin reading his “Before Takeoff Checklist” when:

A

The Captain calls for it

260
Q

What is normal during pushback and engine-start?

A

The CAPT handles ground communication and the PF starts the engines all the time

261
Q

During crosswind takeoffs:

A

The control wheel should only be displaced in order to keep wings level

262
Q

The First Officer will commence the “Before Takeoff” checks when:

A

The CPT asks for the”Before Takeoff checklist”

263
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the TAKEOFF BRIEFING during the Before Takeoff Procedure?

A

The CPT reviews the briefing and verifies PACKS and BLEEDS as required

264
Q

During a Rejected T/O, what are the steps to follow?

A

The CPT will stop the aircraft, set the parking brake. The FO will select flaps 40 and inform ATC of the RTO

265
Q

How will the cabin-crew notify the flight crew of a fire in the cabin during taxi?

A

The crewmember that first sees the fire goes immediately to the nearest interphone, presses 222, and tells the flight crew

266
Q

Under which conditions is a takeoff with CSFF on upper wing surfaces allowable? Select one

A

The CSFF on the wing tank upper surfaces is only within the lines defining the permissible CSFF area with no snow, ice or frost on the leading edges or control surfaces. AND There is no precipitation or visible moisture (rain, snow, drizzle, or fog with less than 1 mile visibility).

267
Q

During taxi in and taxi out:

A

The F/O (RHS) must acknowledge the taxi instructions, write them in the FMC scratchpad and ensure both pilots understand them.

Only essential Safety PA’s are permitted. However, if delays to departure are experienced the Captain may inform the passengers once the parking brake is set.

Only essential Safety PA’s are permitted.

268
Q

Who enters the Zero-fuel weight into the FMC during the Final CDU Preflight?

A

The First Officer

269
Q

An aircraft must be fully stabilized (as defined in the FCOM) passing:

A

The Landing gate

270
Q

Which statement is true regarding low drag approaches?

A

The latest point to call for gear down/flaps 15 during an ILS approach is at 3.5 nm

271
Q

What is the latest configuration point on a ILS in VMC conditions?

A

The latest point to select gear down/flaps 15 is at 3.5 nm

272
Q

What weight must be recorded on the MAXIMUM WEIGHT FOR TAKE OFF section of the load sheet?

A

The lower of the placard weight (MTOW) or the performance limiting RTOW

273
Q

The aircraft may be operated safely up to: Select one

A

The maximum altitude indicated in the FMC

274
Q

What are the planning minima for a destination airport with an ILS approach available?

A

The MET report or forecast must indicate that the RVR/visibility only, ±1 hour of ETA, will be at or above the actual ILS minima

275
Q

During an ILS approach what is set once glideslope is captured?

A

The Missed Approach Altitude, as verified from the FMC

276
Q

During a Non Precision Approach using VNAV, at what point is the missed approach altitude set?

A

The missed approach altitude is set at 1000ft AAL

277
Q

Which statement is true regarding the Loadsheet?

A

The MLW and RTOW should reflect your regulated (structural or performance limited weight)

278
Q

What level will the PF select for CRZ in the FMC pre-flight page?

A

The optimum cruise altitude (or ATC capped level, if lower)

279
Q

The circuit breaker panel located behind the Capt. seat is referred to as:

A

The P-18 Panel

280
Q

During the Final Flight Deck Preparation, the crew will use the INOP No Smoking switch in the AUTO position as a tactical reminder that:

A

The passengers are seated

281
Q

Preflight, prior to first flight. Who checks the Ships Library?

A

The PF

282
Q

When operating the Speedbrake in flight, which pilot selects the Speedbrake?

A

The PF. He / She also stows it

283
Q

Who selects the VHF NAV frequencies for the departure?

A

The PF as part of the Flight Deck Preparation

284
Q

In case of an APU fire:

A

The PF calls for the memory items

285
Q

Preflight: How is the instrument crosscheck performed?

A

The PF calls Time (UTC), QNH, Altimeter, MFRA, FD and standby instruments. PM follows silently

286
Q

Who checks the PA system from the Flight Deck and when?

A

The PF during Preliminary Flight Deck Preparation

287
Q

Who checks the “Takeoff CONFIG” warning and when?

A

The PF during Preliminary Flight Deck Procedure

288
Q

MCP altitude changes during climb following an ATC instruction require the following actions and call-outs? Select one

A

The PF selects/confirms VNAV mode on the MCP/PFD, verifies FMA and calls “VNAV” for all MCP ALT selections.

289
Q

Which statement is correct regarding the sequence of actions when ALT HOLD is annunciated during a circling procedure?

A

The PF verifies and calls ‘ALT HOLD’ from the FMA, points at the Missed Approach Altitude on the FMC legs page and calls ‘XXX FEET’. PF shall then set the MAA in the MCP altitude, point to it and call ‘SET’. PM shall call ‘CHECKED’

290
Q

All MCP ALT changes shall be called by the PF and confirmed by the PM.

A

The PF will leave their finger on the MCP ALT switch calling “set” to which the PM will respond “***** checked”

291
Q

What do you do when hearing the EGPWS ‘minimums’ call on a NPA using V/S with no visual contact having been confirmed?

A

The PF will push TO/GA and call “Go-around, flap 15” etc.

292
Q

During hours of low visibility, for the Exterior Inspection (walkaround):

A

The pilot completing the walkround should use a flashlight

293
Q

Who is responsible to call FLAPS 15 when the position is indicated on the flap position indicator? Select one

A

The Pilot Monitoring after positioning ENGINE START switches to CONT and checkingRECALL.

294
Q

The rear hold is checked, as part of the Exterior Inspection, by:

A

The PM

295
Q

Who completes the Exterior Inspection?

A

The PM

296
Q

Turbulence is encountered in flight. The Captain will decide whether to switch ON the seatbelt signs. Which pilot is responsible for actually moving the sign from AUTO to ON?

A

The PM as this is defined as his area of responsibility in flight

297
Q

FMC Route Modifications en-route: Upon receipt of an ATC DIRECT TO clearance, the PM reads back the clearance and…

A

The PM promptly selects the desired WPT to the scratchpad, then to 1L of LEGS page 1.

298
Q

To achieve the target touchdown speed of Vref:

A

The PM will call “speed” whenever the speed is more than Vapp +10kts or less than Vref

299
Q

Which Statement is correct in regard to performing the Engine Crossbleed Start (RYR) Supplementary Procedure? Select one

A

The pushback must be complete with the parking brake set, the tug disconnected, and ATCclearance is obtained.

300
Q

Once cleared for taxi, the Captain will switch on the taxi and runway turnoff light: Select one

A

There is no requirement to switch off any or all of these lights if the aircraft must stop during

301
Q

Which Take Off speeds should be used?

A

The RTOW/OPT speeds if the FMC speed differs by more than 1 knot

302
Q

The ‘’Briefing’’ part of RIBETS must always include:

A

The Runway for departure

303
Q

Prior to crossing or entering a runway, either active or not active, crews must make a ‘Two Phase Call’ (inter cockpit). This ‘Two Phase Call’ requires the Captain to establish with the RHS pilot that:

A

The runway may be entered or crossed & the approach is checked clear both directions (as much as is possible)

304
Q

Runway conditions permitting, autobrake will be:

A

The setting is as determined by the crew having consulted the QRH (PIsection) or using the OPT

305
Q

Altimeter Cold temperature corrections shall be made to all MSA’s, approach altitudes, landing minima and MFRA’s whenever

A

The surface temperature is below 0 degrees Celsius

306
Q

During a single channel or manual approach, the PM should call:

A

The visual cues as they become apparent during the approach

307
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding the Isolated Pack Operation during Engine Start Supplementary Procedure?

A

This considers the Isolation Valve switch position set to CLOSE and the Right PACK switch position set to AUTO after No.2 Engine has stabilized after Engine Start. This is to improve cabin air qualitybetween starting the first and second engine.

308
Q

As part of the Before Taxi Procedure, the PF blanks the lower display completely by pushing the MFD. Is that correct?

A

This is correct as the ‘Pop up’ feature will reveal the lower display in case of an exceedance or engine failure

309
Q

Ryanair and CFM recommend the following cool down period for the engine hot section thermo stabilisation?

A

Three minutes

310
Q

The PRE-FLIGHT instrument scan is which of the following?

A

Time, QNH, ALT, MFRA, FD”s & SBY instruments

311
Q

What is the correct sequence of actions during a go-around?

A

TOGA, Flaps 15, G/A thrust, Gear up

312
Q

What is the purpose of the isolated pack operation during engine start procedure? Select one

A

To improve cabin air quality between starting the first and second engine.

313
Q

What should be considered during the D.A.L.T.A briefing of a Non Precision Approach that has an offset of more than 5 degrees?

A

To increase the published minimum RVR from the approach plate by 400 m

314
Q

Engine start should be accomplished as late as possible to have the number 1 engine stabilising just as the tow bar and the tug have cleared away from the airplane:

A

To minimise fuel burn and risk of ingesting FOD close to stand

315
Q

The Autobrake performance is designed to:

A

To only use the amount of wheel braking required to achieve the selected

316
Q

When the engine is shutdown and the chocks are in place. Normal procedure requires the flight crew:

A

To release the Parking Brake provided that company procedures are followed

317
Q

The ‘FLT ALT’ Selector on the pressurisation panel is set to?

A

To the filed level or lower if performance limited or ATC level capped

318
Q

During the Descent and Approach preparation, the PF becomes PM whilst briefing. True or false: He selects, among other items, Vref and Autobrake setting?

A

TRUE

319
Q

If OAT is changed after the V speeds have been entered on the TAKEOFF REF page, the FMC removes thepreviously entered V speeds and a NO VSPD flag shows on the airspeed indication.

A

TRUE

320
Q

The Crossfeed valve is checked for correct operation on the first flight of the day for each crew?

A

True

321
Q

True or False: A NPA using Vertical Speed approach requires a 2nm level segment before the FAF // Nominated descent Point?

A

TRUE

322
Q

When on the Approach and below 1000 ft AAL, the RVR falls below the applicable minimum, may the approach be continued?

A

TRUE

323
Q

Selection of the autopilot Control Wheel Steering is recommended for operation in severe turbulence. Choose the most appropriate answer.

A

True, but DO NOT use the ALT HOLD mode.

324
Q

To determine the actual tailwind component is within limits for landing:

A

Use the tower reported wind

325
Q

What action shall be taken after positioning the engine start lever to IDLE detent during engine start procedure? Select one

A

Verify SPAR VALVE CLOSED light transitions from dim, to bright and then extinguishes

326
Q

During Flight Deck Safety Inspection, what is the FIRST item to be checked in the Techlog?

A

Verify Techlog registration agrees with aircraft registration.

327
Q

During night time, which statement is true?

A

Visual landing are permitted only if there is a published approach

328
Q

Which is our mandatory climb mode after all MCP Altitude / Flight Level changes?

A

VNAV

329
Q

You are level at FL350 and cleared to climb to FL370, which mode should be initially used for climb? Select one

A

VNAV, only select V/S when VNAV is providing a sustained climb rate in excess of 2000ft or1000ft per minute with 1000 to level off

330
Q

What is the mandatory pitch mode to be used during climb? Select one

A

VNAV, unless approaching the cleared Altitude/Flight Level, the sustained climb rate is inexcess of 3000ft, 2000ft or 1000ft per minute, where by V/S may be selected.

331
Q

For a VOR NPA approach not coded in the FMC, which is the recommended roll mode for the final approach? Select one

A

VOR/LOC

332
Q

The maximum approach speed additive is:

A

Vref +15 or landing flaps placard speed – 5kts

333
Q

The NAV lights should be ON:

A

When AC power is connected to the airplane electrical busses

334
Q

Under which conditions do we select GEN 1 and 2 ON and the APU OFF during the engine start procedure? Select one

A

When both engines are stable provided there are no additional defects and there is no requirement to perform a NO ENGINE BLEED takeoff.

335
Q

When entering the runway the Landing, Turnoff and Strobe Lights are selected ON. When is the Taxi Light turned ON?

A

When cleared for takeoff

336
Q

When shall the Pilot Flying perform the FRISC scanflow?

A

When cleared to an altitude

337
Q

When do both pilots set their altimeters to STD during an NADP 2 Departure? Select one

A

When cleared to climb to a flight level, and the aircraft is above 3000 feet AGL.

338
Q

When will the First Officer start the ‘Taxi In Procedure’ (after landing flow)?

A

When clear of the active runway, taxi instructions have been received, acknowleged, written in the FMC scratchpad and understood my both pilots

339
Q

When cleared to climb above transition altitude, and the aircraft is above 3000 feet AGL, both pilots will set their altimeters to STD. When is the standby altimeter set to Standard?

A

When climbing through the MSA

340
Q

Before Takeoff during Cold Weather Operations, which of the following statements is the correct? Select one

A

When engine anti-ice is required and the OAT is 3°C or below, the take-off must be preceded by a static engine run-up.

341
Q

During the Post Flight Procedures when can the Anti Collision light be switched off?

A

When N2 on both engines is less than 20%

342
Q

When is a go around below 500ft mandatory during a low visibility approach?

A

When Pilot incapacitation is suspected

343
Q

What is the earliest height that Standard (1013hPa) may be set on climb out?

A

When the aircraft is above 3000ft AAL and when cleared to a FL

344
Q

When does a Ryanair flight declare a fuel “Mayday”?

A

When the calculated fuel on the arrival will be less than final reserve

345
Q

When will the ‘MINIMUMS’ aural call not sound?

A

When the Captain has not set his minimums (BARO MINS)

346
Q

Inexperienced co-pilots or a co-pilot newly converted onto type shall not conduct the landing when specific weather conditions are experienced. Choose the most appropriate description.

A

When the crosswind is in excess of 15kt during normal operations or when the crosswind is more than 2/3 limiting value, whichever is lower

347
Q

During the preliminary pre-flight procedures the APU is normally started

A

When the L1 door closes // When the load sheet arrives

348
Q

Choose the correct statement regarding high altitude flight:

A

When using HDG SEL, the drag in a turn may increase to more than the available thrust

349
Q

The Ryanair policy is to use ‘Maximum Assumed Temperature Reduction’ Take-off thrust?

A

Wherever permitted by OPT or SOP”s

350
Q

An assumed temperature reduced take off is not allowed:

A

With a crosswind exceeding 10 knots

351
Q

The ‘Landing Gate’ requires one to be fully stabilised

A

With all checklists complete at 1,000 feet, except landing lights (IMC) (ILS approaches)

352
Q

If published, an Emergency Turn Procedure:

A

Would be completed, instead of flying straight ahead following an engine failure on Take off

353
Q

Electric Hydraulic pumps may be switched ON while refuelling is in progress?

A

Yes, when ground crew is informed, bypass pin is installed.

354
Q

Is the Landing Dispatch Performance required to be calculated before the Final CDU Preflight Procedure? Select one

A

Yes

355
Q

Should the PF check the landing gear lights on the aft overhead panel during pre-flight preparations?

A

Yes

356
Q

During daylight, with failed centre line lights, can you complete a CAT IIIA (CAT3a) approach and if so what are the restrictions (Part A, Chapter 8)?

A

YES, but RVR must be 300m or greater

357
Q

Is the CABIN call chime tested as part of the Preliminary Flight Deck Preparation?

A

Yes, by the PF

358
Q

In relation to the centre tank fuel pumps, the Captain may elect to leave the centre pump switches off for T/O until passing FL 100. Correct?

A

Yes, if he deems that the amount of fuel in the centre tanks is insufficient (453kgs) to keep the fuel low-pressure lights out during T/O

359
Q

Below FL100 in Class C airspace, ATC ask you to maintain speed 280kts for separation: Select one

A

You comply as this is a specific speed instruction from ATC

360
Q

Whilst flying in RVSM airspace if you have a difference between the Captain’s and F/O’s altimeters of 180ft, what do you do?

A

You split the difference and use the ALT HLD mode to control the airplane’s flight path

Study (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions