Streptococcus Flashcards

(67 cards)

1
Q

What are the characteristics of streptococci?

A

Gram + and 1 um in diameter; arranged in pairs or chains; usually capsulated and non-motile.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Do streptococci form spores?

A

No.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe the oxygen using classification of streptococci.

A

Facultative anaerobes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Do streptococci produce catalase?

A

No.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Are streptococci fastidious?

A

Yes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Streptococci are classified according to what factors?

A

Oxygen requirements; serology (Lanciefield Classification); hemolysis on blood agar.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the classifications of streptococci according to their oxygen requirement?

A

Anaerobic (Peptostreptococcus); aerobic or facultative anaerobic (Streptococci).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe the classification of streptococci according to serology.

A

Based on C-carbohydrate antigen of cell wall; classified into many groups from A-K to H-V; can be one or more species per group.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the groupable streptococci according to Lanciefield classification?

A

A, B, and D (more frequent); C, G, and F (less frequent).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the non-groupable streptococci?

A

S. pneumoniae (pneumonia); viridans streptococci (S. mutans that causes dental carries).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the natural habitat of streptococci organisms?

A

Mucosa of upper respiratory tract; lower urogenital system; intestinal tract; udder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe the structure of group A streptococcus cell from outside to inside.

A

Lipoteichoic acid -> hyaluronic acid capsule -> cell wall -> plasma membrane -> cytoplasm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the cell wall of a group A streptococcus cell made from?

A

Protein antigens M, T, and R; Rhamnose-N-acetylglucosamine; mucopeptide.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the structural components that allow streptococci to be pathogenic and have virulence factors?

A

M protein M: interferes with opsonization and lysis of bacteria; lipoteichoic acid: adhesion; F protein: adhesion; hyaluronic acid capsule: acts as camouflage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the enzymes of streptococci that act as pathogenic and virulence factors of the bacteria?

A

Streptokinases; Deoxynucleases; C5a peptidase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the role of deoxynucleases and C5a peptidases in streptococci bacteria?

A

Facilitate the spread of streptococci through tissues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the role of pyrogenic toxins as virulence factors for streptococci?

A

Stimulate macrophages and helper T cells to release cytokines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the streptolysins that act as virulence factors for streptococci?

A

Streptolysin O; streptolysin S.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the role of streptolysin O as a virulence factor for streptococci?

A

Lyse red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is M protein?

A

Type-specific protein antigen; inhibits binding to phagocytes and is toxic to phagocytic cells; facilitates adherence to host cells (together with lipoteichoic acid).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Describe streptolysin S.

A

Nonantigenic; target cells are RBCs, WBCs, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Describe streptolysin O.

A

Antigenic; deactivated by oxygen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Describe streptokinase A and B.

A

Antigenic; dissolves clots.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Describe streptodornase A to D.

A

Liquefy pus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Describe hyaluronidase.
Splits hyaluronic acid.
26
Describe C5a peptidase.
Degrades C5a.
27
Describe the pathogenesis of streptococcus.
Infect many animals; causes suppurative infections; infections can be primary or secondary.
28
What are examples of suppurative infections caused by streptococcus?
Mastitis; metritis; polyarthritis; meningitis.
29
What does group A streptococcus cause in humans?
Erythrogenic toxin (scarlet fever), which causes red, sandpaper-like rashes and a sore throat accompanied by 'strawberry-like tongue'; toxic shock syndrome; S. pyogenes.
30
What does S. agalactiae (Group B) cause in cows?
Mastitis.
31
Describe transmission of S. agalactiae.
Transmission within herds is thought to be strictly contagious, i.e. cow to cow; due to insufficient hygiene in milking parlors that results in multiple animals coming into contact with equipment that is contaminated with milk from an infected cow.
32
What are the symptoms of S. agalactiae in cows?
Noticeable changes in milk: flakes and clots in foremilk samples; watery or off-white color; hot, hard udder quarter that is sensitive to touch (absent in some cases).
33
What test is used to check for the presence of S. agalactiae?
CAMP test; blood agar is inoculated at a right angle to staphylococcus but not touching, and it forms a 'CAMP phenomenon' arrowhead.
34
What are two other examples of mastitis-causing streptococcus bacteria besides S. agalactiae?
S. dysgalactiae; S. uberis.
35
Describe S. dysgalactiae in cattle.
Environmental mastitis usually due to contaminations from bedding that is often subclinical; acute mastitis.
36
What is the common name for S. equi subspecies equi?
Strangles.
37
How is S. equi subspecies equi transmitted?
Ingestion or inhalation.
38
Describe the pathogenesis of S. equi subspecies equi.
Abscessed lymph nodes that drain pus; bacteremia: widespread dissemination.
39
How long does immunity last after infection with S. equi subspecies equi?
Up to 5 years following recovery.
40
What is bastard strangles?
Strangles that spreads from primary sites.
41
What is purpura hemorrhagica?
Immune complex disease resulting from type III hypersensitivity to S. equi subspecies equi.
42
What are the characteristic symptoms of equine strangles?
Abscessation of upper respiratory tract; mucoid-mucopurulent discharge, fever, difficulty swallowing; inspirational noise; extended head and neck.
43
What species does equine strangles most commonly affect?
Highly contagious in horses, donkeys, and mules.
44
What is metastatic strangles?
Strangles that results in abscessation in other lymph nodes of the thorax and/or abdomen resulting in severe weight loss.
45
What is the main symptom of purpura hemorrhagica?
Edema of the limbs and brisket and petechial hemorrhages of MM.
46
Who is most commonly affected by purpura hemorrhagica?
Young horses; results in immune-mediated vasculitis.
47
What are the different vaccines available for S. equi?
Attenuated intranasal vaccine; M-protein subunit vaccine.
48
What is the common name for S. equi subspecies zooepidemicus?
Navel ill in foals.
49
Describe the pathogenesis of S. equi subspecies zooepidemicus.
Umbilical infection: hematogenous spread; acute fatal septicemia in foals less than a week old; hypopyon: leakage of fluids into the anterior chamber of the eye.
50
What does S. equi subspecies zooepidemicus cause in older horses?
Suppurative polyarthritis, meningitis, pneumonia, ophthalmitis, etc.
51
What treatment of S. equi subspecies zooepidemicus may result in recovery?
Early.
52
What does S. equi subspecies zooepidemicus cause in mares?
Placentitis and abortion.
53
S. suis are ________ antigens with ______ serotypes.
Capsular with 35 serotypes.
54
Of the 35 serotypes of S. suis, which one accounts for the majority of swine diseases?
Serotype 2.
55
How is S. suis transmitted?
Via inhalation, ingestion, or contact.
56
In what type of animal is S. suis most common?
Localized or septicemic disease most common in growing pigs.
57
What are the symptoms of S. suis?
Pericarditis; bronchopneumonia; meningitis; polyarthritis: knuckling; zoonotic for septicemia and meningitis; congestion due to lymphadenopathy or pus at the base of the cerebellum.
58
What issues does S. suis cause with the lungs?
Edema/petechiae; abscesses on lungs; fibronecrotic pneumonia.
59
S. porcinus belongs to what classification group?
Lanciefield classification group E.
60
S. porcinus was previously responsible for what?
Streptococcal lymphadenitis; jowl abscesses; cervical clinical entity in growing pigs in USA.
61
Describe present-day S. porcinus.
Found in almost 20% of tonsils in slaughterhouses; pathology is not frequently seen, but the pathogen is still prevalent in swine.
62
What does S. canis cause in dogs?
Opportunistic pathogen that causes wounds, urinary and mammary infections, and necrotizing fasciitis.
63
Necrotizing fasciitis results from S. canis especially when what are used for treatment?
Quinolones.
64
What does S. canis cause in cats?
Respiratory and soft tissue infections/abscesses.
65
What does S. bovis cause?
Rumen acidosis due to lactose fermentation.
66
Chickens are mostly infected by what streptococcal infection?
Enterococci.
67
How is S. suis treated in pigs?
Serotype 2 bacterin.