Student Submitted Questions Flashcards
(140 cards)
1
Q
Q: Which of the following explains and challenges systemic, race-based discrimination?
a) social Darwinism
b) critical race theory
c) cultural relativism
d) global mental health movement
e) behaviourism
A
b) critical race theory
2
Q
Q: Which of the following is a social determinant of health?
a) high blood pressure
b) allergies
c) genetic disorders
d) partner-related violence
e) sedentary lifestyle
A
d) partner-related violence
3
Q
Q: Which of the following is a criticism of the Global Mental Health movement?
a) western model of medicine
b) emphasis on treatment instead of prevention
c) colonial exploitation
d) ignoring local practices
e) all of the above
A
e) all of the above
4
Q
Q: What is culture?
a) customs, myths, laws, and art
b) personal ideas
c) complex and constantly changing
d) beliefs and values
e) all of the above
A
e) all of the above
5
Q
Q: What can culturalism be compared to?
a) racism
b) sexism
c) colonialism
d) discrimination
e) stereotyping
A
a) racism
6
Q
Q: What are examples of systemic disadvantage?
a) income inequality
b) redlining
c) standardised testing
d) colour-blindness
e) all of the above
A
e) all of the above
7
Q
Q: What is differential racialisation?
a) all races face discrimination
b) a person’s racial identity doesn’t change
c) all races have a unique origin and history, with overlapping identities
d) a person’s racial identity is only based on social constructs
e) a person’s race is based on how they look
A
c) all races have a unique origin and history, with overlapping identities
8
Q
Q: What is interest convergence?
a) social change happens when minority groups demand it
b) social change happens when minority groups have the power to make it happen
c) social change happens when it benefits both the dominant and the minority group
d) social change happens as a result of altruism
e) social change happens when the minority group grows to become the dominant group
A
c) social change happens when it benefits both the dominant and the minority group
9
Q
Q: Which of the following is a linear form of communication?
a) 5-C model
b) transmission model
c) transactional model
d) evolutionary model
e) interpersonal model
A
b) transmission model
10
Q
Q: Which of the following includes social, relational, cultural, physical, and psychological contexts when communicating?
a) biopsychosocial model
b) person-centred approach
c) transmission model of communication
d) transaction model of communication
e) ecological model
A
d) transaction model of communication
11
Q
Q: Which of the following is a collection of individuals who work interdependently to complete a task?
a) group
b) team
c) committee
d) partnership
e) company
A
b) team
12
Q
Q: What are the 5-Cs of the 5-C model?
a) context, conflict, composition, competencies, change
b) co-construction, context, competencies, collaborative, coaching
c) context, composition, communication, collaborative, cultural
d) coaching, communication, composition, constructive, collaborative
e) context, composition, competencies, change, collaborative
A
e) context, composition, competencies, change, collaborative
13
Q
Q: Which therapy suggests that a person’s social conflicts may be the source of their psychological distress?
a) supportive therapy
b) cognitive behavioural therapy
c) interpersonal psychotherapy
d) group therapy
e) dialectical behaviour therapy
A
c) interpersonal psychotherapy
14
Q
Q: Which method is directive, client-centred, and aims to resolve client ambivalence?
a) cognitive behavioural therapy
b) person-centred approach
c) biopsychosocial model
d) motivational interviewing
e) psychoanalysis
A
d) motivational interviewing
15
Q
Q: Which factors are unique to motivational interviewing?
a) collaboration, evocation, autonomy
b) training, education, autonomy
c) empower, enlighten, evocation
d) coaching, collaboration, communication
e) behaviour, cognitions, autonomy
A
a) collaboration, evocation, autonomy
16
Q
Q: Which of the following statements regarding the equilibrium in communication is incorrect?
a) We try to produce a “desirable” level of intimacy.
b) The process is entirely conscious and deliberate.
c) We strive for equilibrium in our interactions.
d) We feel uncomfortable if approach and avoidance levels are not within a desirable range.
e) B and D
A
b) The process is entirely conscious and deliberate.
17
Q
Q: Which of the following best describes instrumental communication in the workplace?
a) Expressing emotions to build personal connections with colleagues.
b) Sharing information or instructions to achieve specific tasks or goals.
c) Engaging in small talk to create a relaxed team atmosphere.
d) Resolving conflicts through open and empathetic dialogue.
A
b) Sharing information or instructions to achieve specific tasks or goals.
18
Q
Q: Which of the following correctly lists the four main categories of interpersonal problem areas in Interpersonal Psychotherapy?
a) Grief, Social Isolation, Workplace Conflict, and Anxiety
b) Role Transitions, Family Conflict, Self-Esteem Issues, and Depression
c) Interpersonal Disputes, Stress Management, Attachment Issues, and Loneliness
d) Interpersonal Disputes, Role Transitions, Grief, and Interpersonal Deficits or Sensitivity
A
d) Interpersonal Disputes, Role Transitions, Grief, and Interpersonal Deficits or Sensitivity
19
Q
Q: According to Lipsitz and Markowitz (2013), what are the four change mechanisms that IPT wishes to facilitate?
a) improving interpersonal skills
b) evaluation and case formulation
c) enhancing social support
d) facilitating emotional processing
e) decreasing interpersonal stress
A
a), c), d), e)
20
Q
Q: Who were the primary developers of Interpersonal Psychotherapy (IPT)?
a) Sigmund Freud and Carl Jung
b) Gerald Klerman and Myrna Weissman
c) John Bowlby and Mary Ainsworth
d) Aaron Beck and Albert Ellis
e) Karen Horney and Harry Stack Sullivan
A
b) Gerald Klerman and Myrna Weissman
21
Q
Q: The therapist might ask; “Are you saying that XYZ, in relation to what you said about XY?” This is a way of seeking what?
a) Familiarity
b) Clarification
c) Summarising
d) Active listening
A
b) Clarification
22
Q
Q: What are the key differences when comparing a team with a group?
a) Groups have a team of people solving the same problem
b) Teams have common interests, skills and backgrounds
c) Teams are interdependent, have shared leadership, work together with the same aim
d) Groups have dispersed leadership and are interdependent
A
c) Teams are interdependent, have shared leadership, work together with the same aim
23
Q
Q: What best describes the transactional model of communication?
a) Linear, two-way, sender encodes message
b) Non-linear, one-way, receiver encodes message
c) Two-way, co-creation of meaning, non-linear
d) Receiver encodes message, linear, two-way
A
c) Two-way, co-creation of meaning, non-linear
24
Q
Q: In the transmission model of communication, who is responsible for ensuring the message is successfully received?
a) The receiver
b) Both the sender and receiver
c) The sender
d) The medium
A
c) The sender
25
Q: Within the motivational interviewing acronym OARS, what does the R stand for?
a) Reflexivity
b) Reiteration
c) Rectification
d) Reflection
e) Restatement
d) Reflection
26
Q: Which of the following major psychological theories is interpersonal therapy based upon?
a) Attachment theory
b) Communication theory
c) Social support theory
d) Psychoanalytic theory
e) None, it was not based on a single cohesive theory
e) None, it was not based on a single cohesive theory
27
Q: What did Coleman (2002) find regarding the association between personal therapy and therapist characteristics?
a) Personal therapy showed no correlation with therapeutic outcomes
b) Personal therapy was associated with decreased self-awareness
c) Personal therapy was associated with increased burnout and stress
d) Personal therapy was associated with higher ratings of therapist warmth and empathy
e) Personal therapy was associated with better outcome for clients
d) Personal therapy was associated with higher ratings of therapist warmth and empathy
28
Q: What did Macran and Shapiro (1998) recommend for future research on personal therapy for therapists?
a) To compare therapists who had therapy with those who did not
b) To use larger sample sizes and more rigorous methodologies
c) To focus on how personal therapy is beneficial rather than whether it is beneficial
d) To focus on the negative effects of personal therapy on clinical practice
e) To compare which model of therapy is more effective
c) To focus on how personal therapy is beneficial rather than whether it is beneficial
29
Q: Which of the following is part of inclusive practice?
a) having a pre-conceived agenda
b) group-specific intake forms
c) ongoing consent
d) tokenising
e) requiring identity disclosure
c) ongoing consent
30
Q: What is cultural safety?
a) prioritising the psychologist’s culture
b) expecting clients to adapt to mainstream culture
c) stepping into a client’s cultural value system
d) avoiding discussions about cultural differences
e) using the same approach with all clients
c) stepping into a client’s cultural value system
31
Q: (Noble et al., 2023) - What might be some challenges that people with ASD face within romantic relationships?
a) feeling isolated
b) rigid rules around relationships
c) social communication barriers
d) fearing rejection
e) all of the above
e) all of the above
32
(Kramer et al., 2020) - When working with clients who have personality disorders, psychologists should remember:
a) flexible approaches to the therapy
b) teaching emotional regulation
c) validating the client’s experiences
d) empathy and understanding
e) all of the above
e) all of the above
33
(Portera, 2014) - What are some challenges that schools face when considering intercultural competence?
a) adapting to increased cultural diversity
b) teaching students to maintain the dominant culture
c) ignoring cultural differences
d) discouraging different cultural perspectives
e) segregating students based on their cultural background
a) adapting to increased cultural diversity
34
Q: What might be included in surface culture?
a) attitudes toward disability
b) morality
c) beliefs about raising children
d) storytelling
e) body language
d) storytelling
35
Q: What is intergenerational grief?
a) when someone loses multiple generations of family at once
b) unresolved grief that is passed on through the generations
c) grief that younger generations feel as a result of older generations’ actions
d) grief at the loss of possessions from previous generations
e) grief after the loss of grandparents or great-grandparents
b) unresolved grief that is passed on through the generations
36
Q: When is an intake assessment performed?
a) at the end of a treatment plan
b) once all sessions have ended
c) over the phone before the first session
d) after the first session
e) before and during the first session
e) before and during the first session
37
Q: What might a discussion about ethics include?
a) confidentiality
b) limits to confidentiality
c) informed consent
d) record keeping
e) all of the above
e) all of the above
38
Q: What does MSE stand for?
a) Mental Screening Evaluation
b) Medical Safety Examination
c) Mental Status Examination
d) Mental State Encoding
e) Mental Status Estimate
c) Mental Status Examination
39
Q: Which of the following is not part of an intake interview?
a) presenting problem and history
b) biopsychosocial evaluation
c) financial planning assessment
d) psychosocial evaluation
e) spiritual evaluation
c) financial planning assessment
40
Q: What does a biopsychosocial evaluation focus on?
a) biological and emotional impacts of their situation
b) thoughts about relationships
c) religious or spiritual background
d) past trauma
e) financial stability
a) biological and emotional impacts of their situation
41
Q: Which part of the intake interview might consider a client’s underlying psychological risks?
a) presenting problem and history
b) spiritual evaluation
c) biopsychosocial evaluation
d) psychosocial evaluation
e) mental status exam
d) psychosocial evaluation
42
Q: What’s the main purpose of a psychological assessment?
a) to provide medication recommendations
b) to test a clinical hypothesis
c) to finalise a diagnosis without testing
d) to explore a client’s spiritual beliefs
e) to suggest therapeutic exercises
b) to test a clinical hypothesis
43
Q: What’s involved in a psychological assessment?
a) medical procedures (e.g., blood work)
b) gathering information through interviews and standardised tests
c) assigning a mental health diagnosis without evidence
d) providing treatment
e) recommending a therapy model (e.g., CBT)
b) gathering information through interviews and standardised tests
44
Q: What does a psychological assessment hope to answer?
a) frequency of symptoms
b) what the client’s coping strategies are
c) possible cause of symptoms, and their meaning for the client
d) what the client's future goals are, both in and out of therapy
e) all of the above
e) all of the above
45
Q: What’s a main part of the Hypothesis Testing Model?
a) it uses multiple methods to gather evidence and identify inconsistencies
b) it focuses on standardised test results
c) it relies on a therapist’s intuition
d) it skips the client history
e) it eliminates the need for a clinical interview
a) it uses multiple methods to gather evidence and identify inconsistencies
46
Q: What’s the correct order for the Hypothesis Testing Model?
a) choose tests → write report → conduct interview → interpret scores
b) interpret scores → administer tests → get client’s feedback → write notes
c) conduct clinical interview → choose tests → skip interpretation → write summary
d) conduct clinical interview → choose tests → administer and interpret → integrate info → write report
e) write report → integrate information → choose tests → conduct interview
d) conduct clinical interview → choose tests → administer and interpret → integrate info → write report
47
Q: Which of the following is correctly paired?
a) Stroop Task – Health psychology
b) PCL-R – Organisational psychology
c) Wechsler Memory Scale – Neuropsychology
d) Eating Attitudes Test – Educational psychology
e) Rorschach Inkblot Test – Sports psychology
c) Wechsler Memory Scale – Neuropsychology
48
Q: Which test is most likely to be used in forensic psychology?
a) Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children (WISC)
b) Psychopathy Checklist-Revised (PCL-R)
c) Test of Performance Strategies (TOPS)
d) Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI)
e) Mental Health Literacy Scale (MHLS)
b) Psychopathy Checklist-Revised (PCL-R)
49
(Weiss & Rosenfeld, 2012) - What’s a big challenge that forensic psychologists face when assessing culturally diverse people?
a) lack of legal standards for forensic assessments
b) unavailability of psychological measures in multiple languages
c) absence of cultural competence among evaluators
d) rapid increase in immigration trends affecting psychological evaluations
e) interpreting test results across cultures
c) absence of cultural competence among evaluators
50
(Weiss & Rosenfeld, 2012) - What’s acculturation?
a) adopting cultural traits from the dominant society
b) psychological traits that define a group
c) a psychological diagnosis based on cultural background
d) resistance to cultural change
e) the legal framework over cultural interactions
a) adopting cultural traits from the dominant society
51
Q: (Wright, 2020) - What’s the funnel method?
a) when a therapist starts with specific questions and then slowly broadens them
b) when a therapist starts with broad questions and then becomes more specific
c) a structured approach using a questionnaire
d) assessing the therapist’s skills rather than gathering a client’s information
e) assessing a client's non-verbal cues and mannerisms
b) when a therapist starts with broad questions and then becomes more specific
52
Q: (Wright, 2020) - What is psychosexual functioning?
a) ability to perform sexual acts without anxiety
b) a therapist’s evaluation of sexual health
c) diagnosing of a sexual disorder
d) a person’s attitudes and actions related to sexuality
e) the impact of sexual orientation on a person’s mental health
d) a person’s attitudes and actions related to sexuality
53
Q: (Wright, 2020) - What’s the ADDRESSING framework?
a) a way to assess cognitive development
b) a tool to evaluate dietary habits
c) a way to diagnose personality disorders
d) a method for measuring psychological resilience
e) a model for understanding cultural identity
e) a model for understanding cultural identity
54
Q: (Wright, 2020) - What’s the difference between mood and affect?
a) mood is observable; affect is self-reported
b) mood is temporary; affect is stable
c) mood is related to emotional response; affect relates to stability
d) mood is self-reported; affect is observed by the therapist
e) there’s no difference
d) mood is self-reported; affect is observed by the therapist
55
Q: (Wright, 2020) - In hypothesis building, what’s the null hypothesis?
a) the client’s functioning is normative and functional (nothing’s wrong)
b) the client’s disorder requires treatment
c) the client’s symptoms are temporary
d) the client’s distress will resolve on its own
e) the client’s presentation is due to poor coping strategies
a) the client’s functioning is normative and functional (nothing’s wrong)
56
Q: (Wright, 2020) - What’s the main goal when picking a psychological test?
a) to gather an understanding of the client’s current presentation and functioning
b) to gather the client’s history
c) to confirm a diagnosis
d) to compare with self-report data
e) to shorten the time spent with the client
a) to gather an understanding of the client’s current presentation and functioning
57
Q: (Wright, 2020) - What’s the goal of psychological assessment (as described in the Hypothesis Testing Model)?
a) to diagnose a client’s mental health condition
b) to give a list of the client’s strengths and weaknesses
c) to generate a hypothesis about the client’s functioning and make recommendations
d) to conduct tests without first considering the client’s background
e) to assess the client’s cognitive abilities regardless of any emotional or behavioural factors
c) to generate a hypothesis about the client’s functioning and make recommendations
58
Q: Which of the following categories can intercultural competencies be divided into?
a) Knowledge, skills and attitudes
b) Knowledge, skills and aptitudes
c) Knowledge, abilities and aptitudes
d) Knowledge, intelligence and abilities
e) Knowledge, beliefs and abilities
a) Knowledge, skills and attitudes
59
Q: Who initiated the first research program of detailed process analysis of psychotherapy?
a) Abraham Maslow
b) Earl F. Zinn
c) Sigmund Freud
d) Hans Strupp
e) Carl Rogers
e) Carl Rogers
60
Q: What definition best describes intercultural competence?
a) A comprehensive understanding of the inherent intertwining between different cultures, including points of similarity and contention.
b) Having multiple cultural identities that position you to have an appropriate understanding of various cultural contexts.
c) Skills and attributes that position a cultural researcher to understand minority populations.
d) A set of abilities, knowledge, attitudes and skills, that allow one to appropriately and effectively manage relations with persons of different linguistic and cultural backgrounds.
e) Considering intercultural variations when applying therapeutic modalities.
d) A set of abilities, knowledge, attitudes and skills, that allow one to appropriately and effectively manage relations with persons of different linguistic and cultural backgrounds.
61
Q: According to the APA, which of the following is a core principle of change explaining therapeutic outcomes:
a) Client responsiveness
b) Client responsibility
c) Therapist responsiveness
d) Therapist responsibility
e) Client-therapist relationship
c) Therapist responsiveness
62
Q: In the context of borderline personality disorder, which of the following predicts symptom change at the end of treatment?
a) Generic responsiveness
b) Individualised responsiveness
c) Disorder-specific responsiveness
d) Generic and individualised responsiveness
e) Disorder-specific and individualised responsiveness
b) Individualised responsiveness
63
Q: Why might assessment scores vary between different cultural groups? (Wright, 2020)
a) the assessment is biased
b) the assessment is flawed
c) the different scores could reflect genuine cultural or social differences between the groups
d) the different scores could reflect educational differences between the groups
e) the assessment is unfair
c) the different scores could reflect genuine cultural or social differences between the groups
64
Q: What’s a main difference of assessing children versus adults? (Wright, 2020)
a) adults are tested in group settings and children are tested individually
b) children complete standardised intelligence tests, but adults don’t
c) adults require in-person observations, but children don’t
d) assessing children involves more sources of information, such as visiting their school
e) children are assessed through self-report, while adults are observed in other environments
d) assessing children involves more sources of information, such as visiting their school
65
Q: What should a clinician consider when assessing children? (Wright, 2020)
a) use academic tests to gauge reading comprehension
b) complete all testing measures, regardless of how long it takes
c) avoid using games or breaks during testing, as it may result in inaccurate results
d) start with any time-consuming tasks, before the child loses interest
e) alternate test types to reduce fatigue
e) alternate test types to reduce fatigue
66
Q: Where is a good place to administer an assessment? (Wright, 2020)
a) the client’s home, where they’re comfortable
b) a quiet, neutral place with minimal distractions
c) a familiar room to reduce anxiety
d) a busy space with access to plenty of distractors
e) an office with decorations and a warm atmosphere
b) a quiet, neutral place with minimal distractions
67
Q: When giving an assessment, when might a psychologist shift to a more therapeutic role? (Wright, 2020)
a) when the client shows signs of suicidal thoughts
b) when the client gets bored
c) when the client gets an answer wrong
d) when trying to build rapport with the client
e) when the client asks for a break
a) when the client shows signs of suicidal thoughts
68
Q: When giving an assessment, what does ‘testing the limits’ mean? (Wright, 2020)
a) making an assessment harder for the client
b) exploring the client’s true capability by asking additional questions after the assessment
c) limiting how many times a client can be assessed
d) giving an assessment until the client is too tired to continue
e) only using a computer-based assessment
b) exploring the client’s true capability by asking additional questions after the assessment
69
Q: When reading the answers on an assessment, a psychologist decides that each response merits 0, 1, or 2 based on the manual’s criteria. What is this called? (Wright, 2020)
a) coding
b) scoring
c) norming
d) standardising
e) evaluation
a) coding
70
Q: During assessment, what’s the correct sequence for integrating data? (Wright, 2020)
a) collecting data, identifying themes, organising data in a chart, finalising themes, conceptualising
b) identifying themes, collecting data, organising data in a chart, conceptualising, finalising themes
c) collecting data, organising data in a chart, identifying themes, finalising themes, conceptualising
d) organising data in a chart, collecting data, identifying themes, conceptualising, finalising themes
e) collecting data, identifying themes, finalising themes, organising data in a chart, conceptualising
a) collecting data, identifying themes, organising data in a chart, finalising themes, conceptualising
71
Q: When categorising data during the assessment stage, what are the seven traditional psychological themes? (Wright, 2020)
a) cognition, emotion, personality, relationships, history, symptoms, and functioning
b) perception, memory, language, attention, intelligence, motivation, and mood
c) thoughts, emotions, behaviours, background, relationships, strengths, and needs
d) assessment, diagnosis, prognosis, intervention, evaluation, termination, and follow-up
e) self, others, thinking, feeling, behaviour, coping, and context
e) self, others, thinking, feeling, behaviour, coping, and context
72
Q: What is ‘construct’ in the context of neuropsychological testing? (Fernández & Abe, 2018)
a) a way of assessing cognitive abilities across cultures
b) the operational definition of a psychological trait that’s being measured
c) the materials and procedures used during the assessment process
d) a standardised score derived from test performance
e) a way of ensuring test validity
b) the operational definition of a psychological trait that’s being measured
73
Q: What are item biases? (Fernández & Abe, 2018)
a) differences in the administration procedures between tests
b) when there are variations in test results due to the cultural background of clients
c) when individuals from different cultural groups have different meanings for the same test items, impacting their scores regardless of the construct being measured
d) when there’s a lack of appropriate norms for certain populations
e) when there is misinterpretation of cognitive abilities due to language barriers
c) when individuals from different cultural groups have different meanings for the same test items, impacting their scores regardless of the construct being measured
74
Q: What’s the structured three-level approach to addressing cross-cultural bias in neuropsychological testing? (Fernández & Abe, 2018)
a) creating new tests, but only after extensively adapting the existing ones
b) a hierarchical strategy involving behavioural assessments, test adaptations, and simultaneous development of new tests across cultures
c) focusing only on the training of test administrators to minimise bias
d) conducting separate tests for each culture, without considering comparisons
e) utilising universal tests that don’t require cultural adjustments
b) a hierarchical strategy involving behavioural assessments, test adaptations, and simultaneous development of new tests across cultures
75
Q: A table could be used to help at which step in the data integration process?
a) Accumulating the data
b) Identifying themes
c) Organising the data
d) Finalising themes
e) All of the above
c) Organising the data
76
Q: Which of the following is NOT a model of conceptualisation?
a) Common function model
b) Developmental themes model
c) Common dysfunction model
d) Developmental mismatch model
e) Diathesis-stress model
c) Common dysfunction model
77
Q: Which neuropsychological constructs should not be taken for granted as universal across cultures:
a) Intelligence, spatial reasoning or colour perception
b) Intelligence, critical reasoning or depth perception
c) Intelligence, reasoning or colour perception
d) Intelligence, spatial reasoning or depth perception
e) Intelligence, critical reasoning or colour perception
c) Intelligence, reasoning or colour perception
78
Q: The Sapir-Whorf hypothesis contends that our understanding of the world is mediated by:
a) Culture
b) Memory
c) Language
d) Environment
e) Genetics
c) Language
79
Q: According to Fernandez and Abe (2017), what are the sources of bias in neuropsychological testing?
a) Construct bias, method, item and language bias
b) Construct, method, item and cultural bias
c) Formulation, method and item bias
d) Construct, method and item bias
e) Formulation, method and cultural bias
d) Construct, method and item bias
80
Q: When integrating data as part of a psychological assessment, what themes should the data be categorised into?
a) Self, others, thinking, feeling, behaviour, coping and context
b) Self, interpersonal connections, thinking, feeling, behaviour, somatics and context
c) Self, others, thinking, feeling, behaviour, coping and past experience
d) Self, others, thinking, feeling, behaviour, somatics and past experience
e) Self, interpersonal connections, thinking, feeling, behaviour, coping and context
a) Self, others, thinking, feeling, behaviour, coping and context
81
Q: Three-Stratum Factor Analytic Theory or Cattell-Horn-Carroll (CHC) theory of intelligence encompasses which three levels of cognitive abilities:
a) visual processing, long-term memory, auditory processing
b) olfactory processing, long-term memory, quantitative knowledge or auditory processing
c) olfactory processing, short-term memory, auditory processing
d) visual processing, short-term memory, quantitative knowledge
e) visual processing, short-term memory, quantitative knowledge or auditory processing
e) visual processing, short-term memory, quantitative knowledge or auditory processing
82
Q: While the manner they are expressed in different cultures may vary, which of the following neuropsychological constructs seem to be universal:
a) Language, attention, memory and spatial skills
b) Language, attention, memory, spatial skills and executive functions
c) Language, short term memory, spatial reasoning and executive functions
d) Attention, short term memory, spatial reasoning and executive functions
e) Short term memory, spatial skills and executive function
b) Language, attention, memory, spatial skills and executive functions
83
Q: According to the text, what is an appropriate reason to test the limits?
a) To replace standardized administration procedures
b) To speed up assessment process
c) To make the test more difficult for high-performing clients
d) To evaluate whether the client has potential for higher functioning
e) To evaluate whether the client fatigue level in earlier test
d) To evaluate whether the client has potential for higher functioning
84
Q: When finalizing themes, what should be done with data that has been tagged as fitting into more than one theme?
a) Decide where it fits best with the story and keep it in only one theme
b) Keep it in all themes where it fits
c) Create a new theme specifically for ambiguous data
d) Discard it as unreliable data
e) Align them with DSM categories
a) Decide where it fits best with the story and keep it in only one theme
85
Q: What is an example of a minor administration error in the WISC-V Similarities subtest?
a) Skipping items that seem too difficult
b) Providing the correct answer when a client struggles
c) Over querying on a response that does not require a query
d) Administering the test in reverse order
e) Completing the test with no breaks
c) Over querying on a response that does not require a query
86
Q: What does the common function model of conceptualization emphasize?
a) The chronological development of symptoms
b) Psychological assessment
c) The impact of cultural factors on psychological functioning
d) The relationship between cognitive and emotional factors
e) How different themes serve the same psychological purpose
e) How different themes serve the same psychological purpose
87
Q: The APS Code of Ethics Ethical Standard of Justice is part of which General Principle?
a) Respect for the rights and dignity of people and peoples
b) Integrity
c) Confidentiality
d) Proprietary
e) All of the above
a) Respect for the rights and dignity of people and peoples
88
Q: What does EDM stand for?
a) Evidence-based decision moderation
b) Evidence-based decision making
c) Ethical decision moderation
d) Exemplary decision making
e) Ethical decision making
e) Ethical decision making
89
Q: The first step of the ethical decision making model includes:
a) Identify the ethical principles involved
b) Evaluate rights and responsibilities and vulnerabilities of all affected parties
c) Recognise potential ethical problems
d) Determine whether it is your responsibility
e) Generate and examine all the available courses of action
c) Recognise potential ethical problems
90
Q: Which of the following is a general ethical principle of the APS code of ethics?
a) Reputable behaviour
b) Competence
c) Propriety
d) Justice
e) Respect
c) Propriety
91
Q: According to Fiske et al. (2019), embodied AI applications in mental health carry hopes of:
a) Improving quality of care
b) Controlling expenditure
c) Reaching underserved populations
d) Improving life opportunities for vulnerable populations
e) All of the above
e) All of the above
92
Q: According to Holohan and Fiske (2021), how does AI impact the therapeutic apparatus?
a) It impedes the therapeutic apparatus
b) It introduces new modes of material-discursive practice
c) The therapeutic apparatus cannot occur
d) It facilitates the therapeutic apparatus
e) It does not change the therapeutic apparatus
b) It introduces new modes of material-discursive practice
93
Q: What are the four risk judgements for suicide risk assessment?
a) Prior risk, current risk, future risk, severity of risk
b) Active risk, passive risk, future risk, protective factors
c) Prior risk, current risk, available resources, foreseeable changes
d) Risk status, risk state, available resources, foreseeable changes
e) Active risk, passive risk, available resources, foreseeable changes
d) Risk status, risk state, available resources, foreseeable changes
94
Q: According to Usher et al. (2021), what are the key characteristics of Indigenous resilience?
a) Individual, social, cultural and community influences
b) Individual, familial, cultural and community influences
c) Individual, connectedness, cultural and community influences
d) Intrapersonal, interpersonal, cultural and community influences
e) Intrapersonal, familial, cultural and community influences
a) Individual, social, cultural and community influences
95
Q: Within Western society, which of the following deaths would be considered abnormal to grieve?
a) A spouse
b) A sibling
c) A close friend
d) A child
e) A parent
c) A close friend
96
Q: According to ABS Causes of Death, Australia 2022 (release date 2021), how many lives are estimated to be lost per day due to suicide?
a) 14–15
b) 6–7
c) 11–12
d) 8–9
e) 2–3
d) 8–9
97
Q: How do Indigenous people in Australia typically cope with adversity and grief?
a) Through individual therapy
b) By participating in cultural practices
c) By avoiding discussions of grief
d) With medical interventions
e) By isolating themselves from their community
b) By participating in cultural practices
98
Q: What might be a way that Indigenous communities in Australia promote resilience?
a) Participating in solitary activities
b) Maintaining isolation from their community
c) Removing themselves from cultural storytelling
d) Cultural connection and traditional practices
e) Using Western mental health therapies
d) Cultural connection and traditional practices
99
Q: How do social norms in Western society affect grief?
a) They have little impact
b) They encourage free expression
c) They promote public displays of grief
d) They support diverse grieving practices
e) They pressure conformity and suppression
e) They pressure conformity and suppression
100
Q: What should clinicians do when working with people who are grieving?
a) Normalise all grief responses
b) Use pathology labels carefully
c) Respect a person’s grieving style
d) Challenge social norms that say we should suppress grief
e) All of the above
e) All of the above
101
Q: According to Fiske et al. (2019), embodied AI applications in mental health carry hopes of:
a) Improving quality of care
b) Controlling expenditure
c) Reaching underserved populations
d) Improving life opportunities for vulnerable populations
e) All of the above
e) All of the above
102
Q: According to Holohan and Fiske (2021), how does AI impact the therapeutic apparatus?
a) It impedes the therapeutic apparatus
b) It introduces new modes of material-discursive practice
c) The therapeutic apparatus cannot occur
d) It facilitates the therapeutic apparatus
e) It does not change the therapeutic apparatus
b) It introduces new modes of material-discursive practice
103
Q: What are the four risk judgements for suicide risk assessment?
a) Prior risk, current risk, future risk, severity of risk
b) Active risk, passive risk, future risk, protective factors
c) Prior risk, current risk, available resources, foreseeable changes
d) Risk status, risk state, available resources, foreseeable changes
e) Active risk, passive risk, available resources, foreseeable changes
d) Risk status, risk state, available resources, foreseeable changes
104
Q: According to Usher et al. (2021), what are the key characteristics of Indigenous resilience?
a) Individual, social, cultural and community influences
b) Individual, familial, cultural and community influences
c) Individual, connectedness, cultural and community influences
d) Intrapersonal, interpersonal, cultural and community influences
e) Intrapersonal, familial, cultural and community influences
a) Individual, social, cultural and community influences
105
Q: Within Western society, which of the following deaths would be considered abnormal to grieve?
a) A spouse
b) A sibling
c) A close friend
d) A child
e) A parent
c) A close friend
106
Q: According to ABS Causes of Death, Australia 2022 (release date 2021), how many lives are estimated to be lost per day due to suicide?
a) 14–15
b) 6–7
c) 11–12
d) 8–9
e) 2–3
d) 8–9
107
Q: How do Indigenous people in Australia typically cope with adversity and grief?
a) Through individual therapy
b) By participating in cultural practices
c) By avoiding discussions of grief
d) With medical interventions
e) By isolating themselves from their community
b) By participating in cultural practices
108
Q: What might be a way that Indigenous communities in Australia promote resilience?
a) Participating in solitary activities
b) Maintaining isolation from their community
c) Removing themselves from cultural storytelling
d) Cultural connection and traditional practices
e) Using Western mental health therapies
d) Cultural connection and traditional practices
109
Q: How do social norms in Western society affect grief?
a) They have little impact
b) They encourage free expression
c) They promote public displays of grief
d) They support diverse grieving practices
e) They pressure conformity and suppression
e) They pressure conformity and suppression
110
Q: What should clinicians do when working with people who are grieving?
a) Normalise all grief responses
b) Use pathology labels carefully
c) Respect a person’s grieving style
d) Challenge social norms that say we should suppress grief
e) All of the above
e) All of the above
111
Q: Which is the best approach when conducting a suicide risk assessment?
a) Categorising patients into low risk, medium risk, and high risk
b) Using a predictive model to focus on short-term outcomes
c) Breaking risk into four steps: risk status, risk state, available resources, and foreseeable changes
d) Relying on a clinician’s intuition and past experience
e) Predicting suicidal behaviour instead of working on intervention strategies
c) Breaking risk into four steps: risk status, risk state, available resources, and foreseeable changes
112
Q: What are four concepts of trauma-informed care?
a) empathy, communication, resilience, support
b) consent, healing, strength, boundaries
c) safety, empowerment, listening, patience
d) honesty, compassion, consistency, reliability
e) confidentiality, informed consent, safety, trust
e) confidentiality, informed consent, safety, trust
113
Q: What are animal-assisted interventions (AAI)?
a) structured activities with animals that aim to improve mental health outcomes
b) non-structured activities with animals that aim to improve mental health outcomes
c) psychoeducation programs involving animals
d) recreational time spent with animals
e) therapy with animals present in the room
a) structured activities with animals that aim to improve mental health outcomes
114
Q: Which of the following is true about animal-assisted interventions (AAI) for treating PTSD?
a) AAI has no effect on PTSD symptoms
b) AAI is equally effective as standard psychotherapy
c) AAI is significantly more effective than standard psychotherapy
d) AAI is only effective for children with PTSD
e) AAI is less effective than waiting list controls
b) AAI is equally effective as standard psychotherapy
115
Q: Which is the best definition of trauma-informed care?
a) focus on providing mental health treatment to trauma survivors
b) a clinical intervention used in inpatient settings for trauma victims
c) a comprehensive approach that recognises the widespread impact of trauma, emphasises safety, involves trauma-specific assessments and interventions, and aims to avoid re-traumatisation
d) policies that mandate health services include trauma screening
e) individualised therapy for treating PTSD in adolescents
c) a comprehensive approach that recognises the widespread impact of trauma, emphasises safety, involves trauma-specific assessments and interventions, and aims to avoid re-traumatisation
116
Q: What are the SAMHSA Four R’s?
a) respect, relieve, responsibility, and recovery
b) recognise, respond, reinforce, and respect
c) reflect, recover, reassure, and rehabilitate
d) realise, recognise, respond, and resist
e) respect, realise, rebuild, and recovery
d) realise, recognise, respond, and resist
117
Q: What is the purpose of the SAMHSA Four R’s?
a) a checklist of symptomatology for diagnosing PTSD
b) a framework for evaluating negative side effects of therapy
c) a model for assessing client risk factors
d) a set of guidelines for managing clinical documentation
e) foundational principles of trauma-informed care to guide practitioners in addressing trauma
e) foundational principles of trauma-informed care to guide practitioners in addressing trauma
118
Q: In the SAMHSA Four R’s, what does ‘resist’ stand for?
a) resisting re-traumatisation by creating a safe environment that avoids reenacting trauma experiences
b) resisting a client’s attempt to avoid treatment
c) resisting emotional involvement with clients to maintain ethical and professional boundaries
d) resisting early diagnosis
e) resisting negative thought patterns through CBT
a) resisting re-traumatisation by creating a safe environment that avoids reenacting trauma experiences
119
Q: What are the four key concepts of trauma informed care (APS)?
a) Collaboration, informed consent, safety, and trust
b) Confidentiality, informed consent, safety, and trust
c) Confidentiality, respect, safety, and trust
d) Confidentiality, informed consent, listening skills, and safety
e) None of the above.
b) Confidentiality, informed consent, safety, and trust
120
Q: According to Hediger et al. (2021), which of the following is true of animal-assisted interventions:
a) There is a small and statistically significant superiority of AAI over standard PTSD psychotherapy in reducing PTSD symptom severity
b) AAI did not lead to comparable effects in reducing depression as standard PTSD psychotherapy
c) Pre-post comparisons showed small variation between AAI and standard PTSD psychotherapy for the reduction in PTSD symptom severity
d) There is a small but not statistically significant superiority of AAI over standard PTSD psychotherapy in reducing PTSD symptom severity
e) Pre-post comparisons showed no variation between AAI and standard PTSD psychotherapy for the reduction in PTSD symptom severity
d) There is a small but not statistically significant superiority of AAI over standard PTSD psychotherapy in reducing PTSD symptom severity
121
Q: Which is the best approach when conducting a suicide risk assessment?
a) Categorising patients into low risk, medium risk, and high risk
b) Using a predictive model to focus on short-term outcomes
c) Breaking risk into four steps: risk status, risk state, available resources, and foreseeable changes
d) Relying on a clinician’s intuition and past experience
e) Predicting suicidal behaviour instead of working on intervention strategies
c) Breaking risk into four steps: risk status, risk state, available resources, and foreseeable changes
122
Q: What are four concepts of trauma-informed care?
a) empathy, communication, resilience, support
b) consent, healing, strength, boundaries
c) safety, empowerment, listening, patience
d) honesty, compassion, consistency, reliability
e) confidentiality, informed consent, safety, trust
e) confidentiality, informed consent, safety, trust
123
Q: What are animal-assisted interventions (AAI)?
a) structured activities with animals that aim to improve mental health outcomes
b) non-structured activities with animals that aim to improve mental health outcomes
c) psychoeducation programs involving animals
d) recreational time spent with animals
e) therapy with animals present in the room
a) structured activities with animals that aim to improve mental health outcomes
124
Q: Which of the following is true about animal-assisted interventions (AAI) for treating PTSD?
a) AAI has no effect on PTSD symptoms
b) AAI is equally effective as standard psychotherapy
c) AAI is significantly more effective than standard psychotherapy
d) AAI is only effective for children with PTSD
e) AAI is less effective than waiting list controls
b) AAI is equally effective as standard psychotherapy
125
Q: Which is the best definition of trauma-informed care?
a) focus on providing mental health treatment to trauma survivors
b) a clinical intervention used in inpatient settings for trauma victims
c) a comprehensive approach that recognises the widespread impact of trauma, emphasises safety, involves trauma-specific assessments and interventions, and aims to avoid re-traumatisation
d) policies that mandate health services include trauma screening
e) individualised therapy for treating PTSD in adolescents
c) a comprehensive approach that recognises the widespread impact of trauma, emphasises safety, involves trauma-specific assessments and interventions, and aims to avoid re-traumatisation
126
Q: What are the SAMHSA Four R’s?
a) respect, relieve, responsibility, and recovery
b) recognise, respond, reinforce, and respect
c) reflect, recover, reassure, and rehabilitate
d) realise, recognise, respond, and resist
e) respect, realise, rebuild, and recovery
d) realise, recognise, respond, and resist
127
Q: What is the purpose of the SAMHSA Four R’s?
a) a checklist of symptomatology for diagnosing PTSD
b) a framework for evaluating negative side effects of therapy
c) a model for assessing client risk factors
d) a set of guidelines for managing clinical documentation
e) foundational principles of trauma-informed care to guide practitioners in addressing trauma
e) foundational principles of trauma-informed care to guide practitioners in addressing trauma
128
Q: In the SAMHSA Four R’s, what does ‘resist’ stand for?
a) resisting re-traumatisation by creating a safe environment that avoids reenacting trauma experiences
b) resisting a client’s attempt to avoid treatment
c) resisting emotional involvement with clients to maintain ethical and professional boundaries
d) resisting early diagnosis
e) resisting negative thought patterns through CBT
a) resisting re-traumatisation by creating a safe environment that avoids reenacting trauma experiences
129
Q: What are the four key concepts of trauma informed care (APS)?
a) Collaboration, informed consent, safety, and trust
b) Confidentiality, informed consent, safety, and trust
c) Confidentiality, respect, safety, and trust
d) Confidentiality, informed consent, listening skills, and safety
e) None of the above.
b) Confidentiality, informed consent, safety, and trust
130
Q: According to Hediger et al. (2021), which of the following is true of animal-assisted interventions:
a) There is a small and statistically significant superiority of AAI over standard PTSD psychotherapy in reducing PTSD symptom severity
b) AAI did not lead to comparable effects in reducing depression as standard PTSD psychotherapy
c) Pre-post comparisons showed small variation between AAI and standard PTSD psychotherapy for the reduction in PTSD symptom severity
d) There is a small but not statistically significant superiority of AAI over standard PTSD psychotherapy in reducing PTSD symptom severity
e) Pre-post comparisons showed no variation between AAI and standard PTSD psychotherapy for the reduction in PTSD symptom severity
d) There is a small but not statistically significant superiority of AAI over standard PTSD psychotherapy in reducing PTSD symptom severity
131
Q: By the age of 16, how many adolescents have been exposed to a traumatic event?
a) 1/10
b) 3/4
c) 2/3
d) 1/2
e) 1/4
c) 2/3
132
Q: How much risk of child, adolescent and youth onset of mental disorder do severe childhood adversities account for?
a) 45%
b) 82%
c) 54%-82%
d) 28%
e) 28%-45%
e) 28%-45%
133
Q: What word could be used instead of safety when working with clients with trauma/complex trauma (because the word safety may be triggering)?
a) Protection
b) Security
c) Comfortable
d) Welfare
e) All of the above
c) Comfortable
134
Q: What are the two dimensions of interpersonal skills?
a) Social reciprocity and emotional regulation
b) Social engagement and emotional sensitivity
c) Social skills and emotional skills
d) Social sensitivity and emotional engagement
e) Social generosity and emotional empathy
d) Social sensitivity and emotional engagement
135
Q: What are the characteristics of high-performing collaborative research teams?
a) Positive interdependence of team members, effective communication, and individual and group accountability
b) Strong leadership, efficiency, and conflict resolution strategies
c) Equal distribution of tasks, positive demeanour and independence
d) Dependency, open communication and joint leadership
e) Regular meetings, pre-planned agendas, and equal distribution of work.
a) Positive interdependence of team members, effective communication, and individual and group accountability
136
Q: According to Cheruvelil et al. (2014), what should graduate programs include to better prepare scientists for collaboration?
a) More exams and fewer presentations
b) Solo lab projects
c) Teamwork and collaboration training
d) Thesis writing workshops
e) Introduction to AI
c) Teamwork and collaboration training
137
Q: Social sensitivity involves:
a) Presence and depth of feelings toward other team members and the project
b) People skills and engagement with the project as a whole
c) Ability to navigate a range of social relationships and interactions
d) Cognitive ability, experience of team members, physical space, and funding
e) All of the above
c) Ability to navigate a range of social relationships and interactions
138
Q: Which interpersonal skills are most important when working in a research team?
a) Resource allocation and delegating roles
b) Technical expertise and data analysis skills
c) Self-motivation and working independently
d) Time management and organisational skills
e) Social sensitivity and emotional engagement
e) Social sensitivity and emotional engagement
139
Q: How might diversity influence a team’s performance?
a) It can reduce the need for interpersonal skills
b) It can improve communication but lower productivity
c) It has no significant impact on team performance
d) It can increase creativity and problem-solving skills
e) It can limit the scope of research topics
d) It can increase creativity and problem-solving skills
140
Q: Which early maladaptive schema (EMS) is commonly associated with burnout in psychologists?
a) Entitlement
b) Shame
c) Unrelenting standards
d) Emotional deprivation
e) Mistrust in others
c) Unrelenting standards
