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Surg Tech 102 > Surg 102--Chapter 15 (Fuller) > Flashcards

Surg 102--Chapter 15 (Fuller) Flashcards

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1
Q

The potential for accident and injury on the OR is one of the highest in the _____.

A

health care setting

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2
Q

What are some of the risks that perioperative personnel encounter daily?

A
  • high voltage equipment
  • chemicals
  • exposure to blood and body fluids
  • stress injury
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3
Q

True or False: A successful injury reduction plan must consider both the human factor and the technological aspects.

A

True

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4
Q

The statistical probability of a harmful event.

A

risk

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5
Q

Defined as the number of harmful events that occur in a given population over a stated period.

A

risk

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6
Q

Represents the number of times an event actually under specified conditions in a specific environment.

A

risk

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7
Q

True or False: A culture of safety is critical to injury reduction in the workplace.

A

True

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8
Q

Staff member must have _____of the risk, _____ the responsibility for harm reduction, and _____ on prevention measures.

A

knowledge
accept
act

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9
Q

Three types of potential injury:

A
  1. technical risk factors
  2. chemical risk factors
  3. biological risk factors
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10
Q

Hazards related to medical devices and energy sources.

A

technical risk factors

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11
Q

Hazards related primarily to liquid, gas, and solid chemicals in the perioperative environment.

A

chemical risk factors

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12
Q

Hazards related to the transmission of infectious disease.

A

biological risk factors

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13
Q

What three components does fire require?

A
  1. oxygen
  2. fuel
  3. source of ignition
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14
Q

Normal air contains about _____ oxygen.

A

21%

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15
Q

An environment that contains a greater concentration of oxygen is called an _____.

A

oxygen-enriched atmosphere (OEA)

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16
Q

When nitrous oxide decomposes in the presence of heat, _____ are produced.

A

oxygen molecules

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17
Q

As the concentration of oxygen increases in the environment, so does the speed of _____, _____, and _____ of a fire.

A

ignition, duration, and temperature

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18
Q

Oxygen and nitrous oxide are called _____, because they are capable of supporting fire.

A

oxidizers

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19
Q

An alcohol concentration greater than _____ is flammable and highly _____.

A

20%

volatile

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20
Q

Most skin prep solutions contain _____ alcohol.

A

70%

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21
Q

What medical device is frequently the cause of patient fire during laser surgery of the head, neck, and face.

A

endotracheal tube

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22
Q

True or False: Any heat-producing device has the potential to cause a fire.

A

True

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23
Q

Approximately _____ of surgical fires involve lasers.

A

13%

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24
Q

The active electrode on an ESU can reach _____.

A

1,292 F

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25
Approximately _____of patient fires occur in the airway.
21%
26
Approximately _____of patient fires occur on the face.
44%
27
Approximately _____of patient fires occur inside the patient.
8%
28
Approximately _____of patient fires occur on the skin.
26%
29
To stop the progression of the fire, _____.
the triangle of fire must be broken
30
What are the three steps that are immediately taken to protect the patient and stop a fire.
1. Shut off the flow of all gases to the patients airway 2. Remove any burning objects from the surgical site 3. Assess the patient for injury and respond appropriately
31
Who reduces the flow of oxygen in the event of fire around the airway.
ACP
32
In a structural fire what are the four immediate actions that must be taken?
RACE
33
What does R in RACE stand for?
Rescue patients in the immediate area of the fire
34
What does the A in RACE stand for?
Alert other people to the fire so that they can assist in patient removal and response. Activate the fire alert system.
35
What does the C in RACE stand for?
Contain the fire.
36
What does the E in RACE stand for?
Evacuate personnel in the areas around the fire.
37
What is the preferred type of fire extinguisher in the OR?
carbon dioxide
38
To use a fire extinguisher think _____.
PASS
39
What does PASS stand for?
Pull Aim Squeeze Sweep
40
True or False: Fire prevention is the responsibility of everyone working in the OR.
True
41
Contained in portable tanks and is used when in-line systems are not available or when patients are transported.
oxygen
42
Used as a power source for instruments such as drills, saws, and other high-speed tools.
compressed nitrogen
43
Used during laser surgery.
argon
44
An anesthetic gas.
nitrous oxide
45
Used for insufflation during laparoscopy or pelviscopy.
carbon dioxide
46
What are the two types of hazards associated with compressed gas cylinders?
physical and chemical
47
What are leading causes of hospital fires in the US?
electrical malfunction
48
What are the characteristics of electricity?
current, voltage, impedance, and grounding
49
The rate of electrical (electron) flow?
current
50
Low voltage and originates from a battery?
direct current (DC)
51
Transmitted by a 220- or 110-V line, such as that normally found in wall outlets?
alternating current (AC)
52
The driving force behind the moving electrons?
voltage
53
The ability of a substance to stop the flow of electrons (electricity)?
impedance (resistance)
54
The discharge of electrical current from the source to the ground, where it is dispersed and rendered harmless.
grounding
55
What is the most common source of electrical injury to the surgical patient?
ESU
56
Produce ionizing radiation in amounts high enough to damage tissue.
- radiograph machines - fluoroscopes - unshielded radioactive implants
57
The extent of tissue damage depends on:
- the duration of exposure - the distance from the source of radiation - the tissue exposed
58
Repeated exposure have _____ effects.
cumulative
59
Among the risks of overexposure to radiation are _____, cancer, cataract, burns, and spontaneous abortion.
genetic mutation
60
What areas of the body are more vulnerable to radiation?
- ovaries - testes - lymphatic tissue - thyroid - bone marrow
61
What is the most effective method of blocking radiation?
lead shields
62
What are the most important parameters determining risk and protection?
- the distance from the radiation source - the duration of exposure - the quality of shielding
63
Are lead aprons worn over or under sterile gowns?
under
64
A _____ must be worn during fluoroscopy to prevent exposure to scatter radiation.
lead apron
65
If you must remain in the room during exposure maintain a distance of at least _____ from the patient.
6 feet
66
Where is the safest place to stand in a room where a radiation hazard exists?
at a right angle to the beam on the right side of the radiograph machine or origin of the radiation beam
67
What are available to measure the cumulative radiation dose for those who are often exposed to radiation.
dosimeters
68
What are the only objects safe to use during MRI procedures.
plastic and titanium
69
True or False: The primary focus of disease control in the health care environment is on preventing contact with blood and body fluids.
True
70
Airborne transmission must be taken for the following diseases:
- measles - varicella - tuberculosis
71
Infection for which droplet precautions should be implemented include:
- H influenza type B - N meningitis - Streptococcal pharyngitis - rubella
72
True allergy is an abnormal _____ to a substance.
immune response
73
A local or systemic reaction mediated by the body's immune system?
latex allergy
74
A cell-mediated response.
hypersensitivity

Surg Tech 102 (15 decks)

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