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Flashcards in Surg 102--Chapter 15 (Fuller) Deck (74):
1

The potential for accident and injury on the OR is one of the highest in the _____.

health care setting

2

What are some of the risks that perioperative personnel encounter daily?

-high voltage equipment
-chemicals
-exposure to blood and body fluids
-stress injury

3

True or False: A successful injury reduction plan must consider both the human factor and the technological aspects.

True

4

The statistical probability of a harmful event.

risk

5

Defined as the number of harmful events that occur in a given population over a stated period.

risk

6

Represents the number of times an event actually under specified conditions in a specific environment.

risk

7

True or False: A culture of safety is critical to injury reduction in the workplace.

True

8

Staff member must have _____of the risk, _____ the responsibility for harm reduction, and _____ on prevention measures.

knowledge
accept
act

9

Three types of potential injury:

1. technical risk factors
2. chemical risk factors
3. biological risk factors

10

Hazards related to medical devices and energy sources.

technical risk factors

11

Hazards related primarily to liquid, gas, and solid chemicals in the perioperative environment.

chemical risk factors

12

Hazards related to the transmission of infectious disease.

biological risk factors

13

What three components does fire require?

1. oxygen
2. fuel
3. source of ignition

14

Normal air contains about _____ oxygen.

21%

15

An environment that contains a greater concentration of oxygen is called an _____.

oxygen-enriched atmosphere (OEA)

16

When nitrous oxide decomposes in the presence of heat, _____ are produced.

oxygen molecules

17

As the concentration of oxygen increases in the environment, so does the speed of _____, _____, and _____ of a fire.

ignition, duration, and temperature

18

Oxygen and nitrous oxide are called _____, because they are capable of supporting fire.

oxidizers

19

An alcohol concentration greater than _____ is flammable and highly _____.

20%
volatile

20

Most skin prep solutions contain _____ alcohol.

70%

21

What medical device is frequently the cause of patient fire during laser surgery of the head, neck, and face.

endotracheal tube

22

True or False: Any heat-producing device has the potential to cause a fire.

True

23

Approximately _____ of surgical fires involve lasers.

13%

24

The active electrode on an ESU can reach _____.

1,292 F

25

Approximately _____of patient fires occur in the airway.

21%

26

Approximately _____of patient fires occur on the face.

44%

27

Approximately _____of patient fires occur inside the patient.

8%

28

Approximately _____of patient fires occur on the skin.

26%

29

To stop the progression of the fire, _____.

the triangle of fire must be broken

30

What are the three steps that are immediately taken to protect the patient and stop a fire.

1. Shut off the flow of all gases to the patients airway
2. Remove any burning objects from the surgical site
3. Assess the patient for injury and respond appropriately

31

Who reduces the flow of oxygen in the event of fire around the airway.

ACP

32

In a structural fire what are the four immediate actions that must be taken?

RACE

33

What does R in RACE stand for?

Rescue patients in the immediate area of the fire

34

What does the A in RACE stand for?

Alert other people to the fire so that they can assist in patient removal and response. Activate the fire alert system.

35

What does the C in RACE stand for?

Contain the fire.

36

What does the E in RACE stand for?

Evacuate personnel in the areas around the fire.

37

What is the preferred type of fire extinguisher in the OR?

carbon dioxide

38

To use a fire extinguisher think _____.

PASS

39

What does PASS stand for?

Pull
Aim
Squeeze
Sweep

40

True or False: Fire prevention is the responsibility of everyone working in the OR.

True

41

Contained in portable tanks and is used when in-line systems are not available or when patients are transported.

oxygen

42

Used as a power source for instruments such as drills, saws, and other high-speed tools.

compressed nitrogen

43

Used during laser surgery.

argon

44

An anesthetic gas.

nitrous oxide

45

Used for insufflation during laparoscopy or pelviscopy.

carbon dioxide

46

What are the two types of hazards associated with compressed gas cylinders?

physical and chemical

47

What are leading causes of hospital fires in the US?

electrical malfunction

48

What are the characteristics of electricity?

current, voltage, impedance, and grounding

49

The rate of electrical (electron) flow?

current

50

Low voltage and originates from a battery?

direct current (DC)

51

Transmitted by a 220- or 110-V line, such as that normally found in wall outlets?

alternating current (AC)

52

The driving force behind the moving electrons?

voltage

53

The ability of a substance to stop the flow of electrons (electricity)?

impedance (resistance)

54

The discharge of electrical current from the source to the ground, where it is dispersed and rendered harmless.

grounding

55

What is the most common source of electrical injury to the surgical patient?

ESU

56

Produce ionizing radiation in amounts high enough to damage tissue.

-radiograph machines
-fluoroscopes
-unshielded radioactive implants

57

The extent of tissue damage depends on:

-the duration of exposure
-the distance from the source of radiation
-the tissue exposed

58

Repeated exposure have _____ effects.

cumulative

59

Among the risks of overexposure to radiation are _____, cancer, cataract, burns, and spontaneous abortion.

genetic mutation

60

What areas of the body are more vulnerable to radiation?

-ovaries
-testes
-lymphatic tissue
-thyroid
-bone marrow

61

What is the most effective method of blocking radiation?

lead shields

62

What are the most important parameters determining risk and protection?

-the distance from the radiation source
-the duration of exposure
-the quality of shielding

63

Are lead aprons worn over or under sterile gowns?

under

64

A _____ must be worn during fluoroscopy to prevent exposure to scatter radiation.

lead apron

65

If you must remain in the room during exposure maintain a distance of at least _____ from the patient.

6 feet

66

Where is the safest place to stand in a room where a radiation hazard exists?

at a right angle to the beam on the right side of the radiograph machine or origin of the radiation beam

67

What are available to measure the cumulative radiation dose for those who are often exposed to radiation.

dosimeters

68

What are the only objects safe to use during MRI procedures.

plastic and titanium

69

True or False: The primary focus of disease control in the health care environment is on preventing contact with blood and body fluids.

True

70

Airborne transmission must be taken for the following diseases:

-measles
-varicella
-tuberculosis

71

Infection for which droplet precautions should be implemented include:

-H influenza type B
-N meningitis
-Streptococcal pharyngitis
-rubella

72

True allergy is an abnormal _____ to a substance.

immune response

73

A local or systemic reaction mediated by the body's immune system?

latex allergy

74

A cell-mediated response.

hypersensitivity