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Flashcards in Surg 102--Final Deck (89):
1

Who is responsible for the patient's head and maintaining airway when transferring.

anesthesia care provider

2

When transporting pediatric patients, where can parents accompany child to?

to the holding area or in the operating suite until induction of anesthesia

3

True or False: Teamwork creates smooth step by step coordination.

true

4

_____ is placed on the patient's legs before long procedures or on patients predisposed to clot formation.

Antiembolism stockings or sequential compression device (SCD)

5

During inflation of a sequential compression device the cuffs push venous blood toward the _____ and during deflation, the vessels refill.

heart

6

A sequential compression device reduces blood pooling (stasis) and _____.

thrombous formation

7

-variation of supine, table is tilted foot down
-unobstructed access to the upper peritoneal cavity and lower esophagus
-instruments must be secured by a magnetic pad or pocket holders

Reverse Trendelenburg position

8

In the lithotomy position, how are the legs removed from stirrups?

requires 2 people, release feet from stirrup, slowly bring the knees to the midline and gradually extend the hip and knees

9

-orthopedic procedures
-used for facial, cranial, or reconstructive breast surgery

Sitting (Fowler) position

10

-simultaneous head-down and foot-down posture
-anorectal surgery

Jackknife (Kraske) position

11

What is the most common type of catheter for continuous drainage?

Foley catheter

12

What are the two primary risks of catheterization?

infection and trauma to the genitourinary track

13

What is the most common cause of hospital acquired infection in the US

urinary catheterization

14

When normal or transient flora are introduced into the surgical wound they cause a _____.

surgical site infection (SSI)

15

What is the body’s primary defense against infection?

skin

16

Hair is not removed unless _____ requests it.

surgeon

17

Hair is removed as close to the time of _____ as possible

surgery

18

Hair is removed with a _____, electric clippers or chemical depilatory

razor

19

Hair should be removed in an area _____ where the surgery is performed.

away from

20

Hair removal for cranial procedures:

- Cranial procedures are often performed with minimal hair removal
- If its required to be removed, the hair is returned to the patient after surgery
- The surgeon usually removes the hair in this case

21

If you were prepping for Coronary Artery bypass and you are taking saphenous vein. How would you prep?

2 prep kits required and you would start with the saphenous vein prep first

22

Can’t use _____, _____, or _____ to prep ears

alcohol, iodophor, or chlorhexidine

23

What is the prep for radical mastectomy?

mastectomy prep boundary the includes the neck , shoulder of the affected side, and thorax to the operating table surface, and mid pelvis region

24

During breast and thorax prep, how should tissue suspected to be cancerous should be prepped?

prepared gently, painted with little friction and pressure as possible

25

When prepping abdomen what is done first?

umbilicus is prepped

26

What is used to hold blue towels in place when draping?

nonpentrating towel clips

27

What is general anesthesia?

Anesthesia associated with state of unconsciousness. It is not a fixed state of unconsciousness, but rather ranges along a continuum from semiresponsiveness to profound unresponsiveness.

28

What is a pulse oximeter and what does it do?

a monitoring device that measures the patients hemoglobin oxygen saturation by means of spectrometry

29

Removal of the artificial airway (tube)?

extubation

30

Muscle relaxation required during general anesthesia?

neuromuscular blockade

31

When is Desflurane used and what does it cause that makes it a poor induction agent?

used for rapid emergence, poor induction because it irrating the upper respiratory track that can cause gagging, coughing, and bronchospasm

32

What do Benzodiazepines do and how long does it last?

causes antegrade amnesia (loss of recall of events) for 6 hrs

33

Laryngospasms are treated with positive-pressure administration of oxygen or, in severe cases, administration of _____.

succinylcholine to paralyze the muscles

34

What is a common depolarizing muscle relaxant used in surgery?

succinylcholine

35

Patients at risk for aspiration are given preop meds to suppress gastric acid production and _____.

reduce nasuea

36

What does a regional block do?

provides loss of sensation without effecting consciousness

37

Septic shock is caused by _____, which results in hypovolemia.

severe infection

38

_____ infection most often cause of septic shock.

bacterial

39

Who is PACU staff and who trains them?

critical care nurses trained in postoperative recovery and emergency treatment

40

How is the PACU arranged?

One large room with separate patient stations along two or more perimeter walls.

41

Does the PACU have a special place for patients with active infections?

patients with active infections are kept in isolation area

42

Included in the handover information, what is needed to determine if a transfusion is needed

estimated blood loss

43

How are respiratory sounds assessed?

auscultation

44

When is the sponge, sharp and instrument count performed?

- Before surgery
- Before closure of hollow organ
- Before closure of body cavity
- Before skin closure
- Whenever suspicion arises
- Permanent change in personnel

45

Sponges and x-rays are impregnated with what?

radiopaque strip

46

When handling and passing instruments, are they passed open or closed.

closed

47

Rough or excessive handling of tissue can lead to what?

bruising, swelling and ischemia

48

When using irrigation, what is the ST’s responsibility to keep up with?

the ST must keep track of the amount of irrigation used in the wound so that the estimated blood loss can be calculated

49

What are the 2 types of cultures commonly taken during surgery?

aerobic and anaerobic bacterial specimens

50

Has round shaft, used for suturing, and blunt dissection of friable tissue and organs that are soft and spongy, ex..liver, spleen, kidneys.

blunt needle

51

Round body that tapers to a sharp point, punctures tissue, suturing soft tissue, ex. Muscle, subcutaneous, fat, peritoneum, dura and gastrointestinal.

tapered needle

52

Has a cutting edge, used on fibrous connective tissue such as skin, joint capsule, and tendons.

cutting needle

53

Inert suture causes little or no _____.

bioactivity

54

Individually placed suture.

interrupted suture

55

Also called running suture, is a single long suture that is anchored at one end.

continuous suture

56

Special continuous suture used for closing the end of a tubular structure.

purse-string suture

57

Used on mucous membranes or any tissue that bleeds easily (spleen or kidneys).

smooth forceps

58

Used on connective tissue such as the skin.

toothed forceps

59

Prevents puncturing of blood vessels but provides friction to hold.

vascular forceps

60

What do synthetic tissue adhesives do?

join wound edges without using sutures, it encourages the body’s natural coagulation and healing process

61

Phase of wound healing that begins about day 4 or 5 and continues for approx. 2 weeks. During this phase fibroblast synthesizes collagen

proliferative stage

62

A collection of blood that forms in the surgical wound because of incomplete hemostasis during surgery.

hematoma

63

The protrusion of abdominal viscera through a wound or surgical incision.

evisceration

64

A band of scar tissue between the abdominal or pelvic organs and the peritoneum.

adhesion

65

Not compatible with life.

embryo

66

In utero after 3 months of gestation.

fetus

67

-Gestational age more than 24 weeks
-Birth-weight more than 500g
-Capable of sustaining life outside uterus

potentially viable

68

-Gestational age less than 37 weeks
-Birth-weight 2500g or less

true preterm

69

-Gestational age less than 38 weeks
-Birth-weight more than 2500g

large preterm

70

-Gestational age 38-40 weeks
-birth-weight greater than 2500g

term neonate

71

-Gestational age extended by more than 8 weeks

postterm

72

-First 28 days of extra-uterine life.

neonatal period

73

-28 days to 18 months

infant

74

-18 - 30 months

toddler

75

-2.5 - 5 years

preschool age

76

-6 - 12 years

school age

77

-13 - 18 years

adolescent

78

Neonate blood volume.

75 - 80 mL/kg

79

6 weeks - 2 years blood volume.

75 mL/kg

80

2 years - puberty

72 mL/kg

81

Heart rate for newborns

100-170 (100-180 in book)

82

Anorectal malformation occurs when?

between 4th and 12th week

83

Fusion or 2 or more fingers or toes.

syndactyly

84

Pulmonary ventilation is established when?

Birth/1st breath

85

What valves allows normal blood flow between the right atrium and ventricle?

tricuspid valve

86

_____, financial, educational, and subjective influences shape the prototype of the older adult’s place in society.

geographic

87

Laboratory values important when assessing geriatric patients?

weight

88

Multiple vaginal births can cause _____.

uterine and bladder prolapses

89

At what temp is elderly at risk for hypothermia?

96.8