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Surg Tech 102 > Surg 102--Final > Flashcards

Surg 102--Final Flashcards

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1
Q

Who is responsible for the patient’s head and maintaining airway when transferring.

A

anesthesia care provider

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2
Q

When transporting pediatric patients, where can parents accompany child to?

A

to the holding area or in the operating suite until induction of anesthesia

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3
Q

True or False: Teamwork creates smooth step by step coordination.

A

true

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4
Q

_____ is placed on the patient’s legs before long procedures or on patients predisposed to clot formation.

A

Antiembolism stockings or sequential compression device (SCD)

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5
Q

During inflation of a sequential compression device the cuffs push venous blood toward the _____ and during deflation, the vessels refill.

A

heart

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6
Q

A sequential compression device reduces blood pooling (stasis) and _____.

A

thrombous formation

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7
Q
  • variation of supine, table is tilted foot down
  • unobstructed access to the upper peritoneal cavity and lower esophagus
  • instruments must be secured by a magnetic pad or pocket holders
A

Reverse Trendelenburg position

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8
Q

In the lithotomy position, how are the legs removed from stirrups?

A

requires 2 people, release feet from stirrup, slowly bring the knees to the midline and gradually extend the hip and knees

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9
Q
  • orthopedic procedures

- used for facial, cranial, or reconstructive breast surgery

A

Sitting (Fowler) position

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10
Q
  • simultaneous head-down and foot-down posture

- anorectal surgery

A

Jackknife (Kraske) position

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11
Q

What is the most common type of catheter for continuous drainage?

A

Foley catheter

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12
Q

What are the two primary risks of catheterization?

A

infection and trauma to the genitourinary track

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13
Q

What is the most common cause of hospital acquired infection in the US

A

urinary catheterization

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14
Q

When normal or transient flora are introduced into the surgical wound they cause a _____.

A

surgical site infection (SSI)

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15
Q

What is the body’s primary defense against infection?

A

skin

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16
Q

Hair is not removed unless _____ requests it.

A

surgeon

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17
Q

Hair is removed as close to the time of _____ as possible

A

surgery

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18
Q

Hair is removed with a _____, electric clippers or chemical depilatory

A

razor

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19
Q

Hair should be removed in an area _____ where the surgery is performed.

A

away from

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20
Q

Hair removal for cranial procedures:

A
  • Cranial procedures are often performed with minimal hair removal
  • If its required to be removed, the hair is returned to the patient after surgery
  • The surgeon usually removes the hair in this case
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21
Q

If you were prepping for Coronary Artery bypass and you are taking saphenous vein. How would you prep?

A

2 prep kits required and you would start with the saphenous vein prep first

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22
Q

Can’t use _____, _____, or _____ to prep ears

A

alcohol, iodophor, or chlorhexidine

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23
Q

What is the prep for radical mastectomy?

A

mastectomy prep boundary the includes the neck , shoulder of the affected side, and thorax to the operating table surface, and mid pelvis region

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24
Q

During breast and thorax prep, how should tissue suspected to be cancerous should be prepped?

A

prepared gently, painted with little friction and pressure as possible

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25
When prepping abdomen what is done first?
umbilicus is prepped
26
What is used to hold blue towels in place when draping?
nonpentrating towel clips
27
What is general anesthesia?
Anesthesia associated with state of unconsciousness. It is not a fixed state of unconsciousness, but rather ranges along a continuum from semiresponsiveness to profound unresponsiveness.
28
What is a pulse oximeter and what does it do?
a monitoring device that measures the patients hemoglobin oxygen saturation by means of spectrometry
29
Removal of the artificial airway (tube)?
extubation
30
Muscle relaxation required during general anesthesia?
neuromuscular blockade
31
When is Desflurane used and what does it cause that makes it a poor induction agent?
used for rapid emergence, poor induction because it irrating the upper respiratory track that can cause gagging, coughing, and bronchospasm
32
What do Benzodiazepines do and how long does it last?
causes antegrade amnesia (loss of recall of events) for 6 hrs
33
Laryngospasms are treated with positive-pressure administration of oxygen or, in severe cases, administration of _____.
succinylcholine to paralyze the muscles
34
What is a common depolarizing muscle relaxant used in surgery?
succinylcholine
35
Patients at risk for aspiration are given preop meds to suppress gastric acid production and _____.
reduce nasuea
36
What does a regional block do?
provides loss of sensation without effecting consciousness
37
Septic shock is caused by _____, which results in hypovolemia.
severe infection
38
_____ infection most often cause of septic shock.
bacterial
39
Who is PACU staff and who trains them?
critical care nurses trained in postoperative recovery and emergency treatment
40
How is the PACU arranged?
One large room with separate patient stations along two or more perimeter walls.
41
Does the PACU have a special place for patients with active infections?
patients with active infections are kept in isolation area
42
Included in the handover information, what is needed to determine if a transfusion is needed
estimated blood loss
43
How are respiratory sounds assessed?
auscultation
44
When is the sponge, sharp and instrument count performed?
- Before surgery - Before closure of hollow organ - Before closure of body cavity - Before skin closure - Whenever suspicion arises - Permanent change in personnel
45
Sponges and x-rays are impregnated with what?
radiopaque strip
46
When handling and passing instruments, are they passed open or closed.
closed
47
Rough or excessive handling of tissue can lead to what?
bruising, swelling and ischemia
48
When using irrigation, what is the ST’s responsibility to keep up with?
the ST must keep track of the amount of irrigation used in the wound so that the estimated blood loss can be calculated
49
What are the 2 types of cultures commonly taken during surgery?
aerobic and anaerobic bacterial specimens
50
Has round shaft, used for suturing, and blunt dissection of friable tissue and organs that are soft and spongy, ex..liver, spleen, kidneys.
blunt needle
51
Round body that tapers to a sharp point, punctures tissue, suturing soft tissue, ex. Muscle, subcutaneous, fat, peritoneum, dura and gastrointestinal.
tapered needle
52
Has a cutting edge, used on fibrous connective tissue such as skin, joint capsule, and tendons.
cutting needle
53
Inert suture causes little or no _____.
bioactivity
54
Individually placed suture.
interrupted suture
55
Also called running suture, is a single long suture that is anchored at one end.
continuous suture
56
Special continuous suture used for closing the end of a tubular structure.
purse-string suture
57
Used on mucous membranes or any tissue that bleeds easily (spleen or kidneys).
smooth forceps
58
Used on connective tissue such as the skin.
toothed forceps
59
Prevents puncturing of blood vessels but provides friction to hold.
vascular forceps
60
What do synthetic tissue adhesives do?
join wound edges without using sutures, it encourages the body’s natural coagulation and healing process
61
Phase of wound healing that begins about day 4 or 5 and continues for approx. 2 weeks. During this phase fibroblast synthesizes collagen
proliferative stage
62
A collection of blood that forms in the surgical wound because of incomplete hemostasis during surgery.
hematoma
63
The protrusion of abdominal viscera through a wound or surgical incision.
evisceration
64
A band of scar tissue between the abdominal or pelvic organs and the peritoneum.
adhesion
65
Not compatible with life.
embryo
66
In utero after 3 months of gestation.
fetus
67
- Gestational age more than 24 weeks - Birth-weight more than 500g - Capable of sustaining life outside uterus
potentially viable
68
- Gestational age less than 37 weeks | - Birth-weight 2500g or less
true preterm
69
- Gestational age less than 38 weeks | - Birth-weight more than 2500g
large preterm
70
- Gestational age 38-40 weeks | - birth-weight greater than 2500g
term neonate
71
-Gestational age extended by more than 8 weeks
postterm
72
-First 28 days of extra-uterine life.
neonatal period
73
-28 days to 18 months
infant
74
-18 - 30 months
toddler
75
-2.5 - 5 years
preschool age
76
-6 - 12 years
school age
77
-13 - 18 years
adolescent
78
Neonate blood volume.
75 - 80 mL/kg
79
6 weeks - 2 years blood volume.
75 mL/kg
80
2 years - puberty
72 mL/kg
81
Heart rate for newborns
100-170 (100-180 in book)
82
Anorectal malformation occurs when?
between 4th and 12th week
83
Fusion or 2 or more fingers or toes.
syndactyly
84
Pulmonary ventilation is established when?
Birth/1st breath
85
What valves allows normal blood flow between the right atrium and ventricle?
tricuspid valve
86
_____, financial, educational, and subjective influences shape the prototype of the older adult’s place in society.
geographic
87
Laboratory values important when assessing geriatric patients?
weight
88
Multiple vaginal births can cause _____.
uterine and bladder prolapses
89
At what temp is elderly at risk for hypothermia?
96.8

Surg Tech 102 (15 decks)

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