Systems Workbook Flashcards
(155 cards)
1
Q
The CL-600-2C10 (700) is equipped with how many seats? What’s the range?
A
69 seats
1700NM RANGE
2
Q
The CL-600-2D24 (900) is equipped with how many seats? What’s the range?
A
76 seats
2005NM RANGE
3
Q
CF34-8C (8C1 and 8C5B1) produce ______ lbs of normal takeoff thrust
A
12,600 (700)
4
Q
CF34-8C5 produce ______ lbs of normal takeoff thrust
A
13,600
5
Q
How many emergency exits does the 700 have?
A
5
6
Q
How many emergency exits does the 900 have
A
7
7
Q
What is the minimum width required to make a 180° turn in the 700 or 900?
A
700 = 75 feet
900 = 80 feet
8
Q
What compartments on the CRJ 900 are unpressurized
A
Aft equipment bay
Landing gear bay
9
Q
What is Max VMO/MMO
A
VMO = .85
MMO = 335 KIAS
10
Q
What is max airspeed for turbulent air penetration?
A
.75 Mach/280 KIAS, Which ever is lower
11
Q
What is the minimum ambient air temperature approved for takeoff?
A
-40°C
12
Q
What is the maximum ambient air temperature approved for takeoff and landing?
A
ISA +35°C
13
Q
What compartments on the CRJ 900 are pressurized? (5)
A
Flight deck,
Passenger cabin,
Avionics bay (in the belly),
FWD and AFT cargo compartments
14
Q
What is the required equipment for RVSM airspace?
A
Autopilot
altitude alerting system
2 altitude transponders (1 working)
2 ADCs (2 working)
15
Q
What is the maximum weight in the AFT baggage compartment in the CRJ 900?
A
3,650lbs
16
Q
What is the maximum crosswind component for takeoff and landing on a dry runway for the CRJ 700?
A
28 takeoff
30 landing
17
Q
What is the maximum crosswind component for takeoff and landing on a dry run away for the CRJ 900?
A
35 takeoff
32 landing
18
Q
Maximum allowable crosswind component for takeoff and landing on a dry run away for a crewmember on high minimum’s status? PIC & SIC
A
PIC is 25
SIC is 15
19
Q
What is the tire speed limit for the 700 and the 900?
A
700 = 182 Groundspeed
900 = 195 Groundspeed
20
Q
Which two doors are not shown on the DOORS a synoptic page?
A
The blow hole & the butt hole!!!
the emergency crew escape hatch & the aft equipment bay door.
21
Q
The CRJ 700 has __ FWD cargo bay door(s) and __ over wing emergency exits
A
1 FWD cargo bay door
2 over wing emergency exits
22
Q
The CRJ 900 has __ FWD cargo bay door(s) and __ over wing emergency exits
A
2 FWD cargo bay doors
4 over wing emergency exit
23
Q
If a rapid decompression occurs, which protection feature has been built into the flight deck door?
A
Decompression panels that open inward
24
Q
What should never occur during power switching?
A
Operating the door assist motor
25
What color are Advisory and Status messages?
Advisory = green
Status = white
26
The _________ are the heart of the EICAS and collect and display data from all aircraft systems
DCUs (Data concentrator units)
27
Can you box a caution message?
Yes and it will stay boxed
28
Can you box a status message?
Yes, and they will unboxed if others appear. Low priority failures
29
How will an EDV crewmembers respond to an abnormal message?
Fly, cancel, identify malfunction, read checklist, don’t hurry.
PF: “Confirm, QRH, ______”
30
What happens if ED1 fails in flight?
Primary page will automatically switch over to ED2
31
How can you display EICAS pages on the MFD?
Select Display Revisionary Control Panel (on each pilots side)
& Source Selector Panel (Center pedestal)
32
Can you always box EICAS messages on the ground?
Both engines must be stabilized to box MSGs on the ground
33
If the MFD fails, can you display it on another screen?
No
34
When will the N1 vibration gauges display?
When engine oil pressure and temperature is stabilized
35
What indications are not always displayed on the EICAS displays?
Gear
Flaps
Brake temperatures
(Declutter)
36
If the EICAS Control Panel (ECP) fails, which buttons remain operative?
PRI
CAS
STAT
STEP
37
Can you DIM a master warning/caution switch light?
Yes - switch is BRT or DIM
38
Can the volume for the oral warning to be turned down?
Nooooo
39
What 6 things might give you a takeoff configuration warning?
```
Flaps
Spoilers
Parking Brake
Autopilot
TRIM of Aileron/Rudder/Horizontal STAB
```
40
Would you receive a GEN 1 OVLD message during takeoff roll?
No
41
What are the 3 phases of EICAS Warning & Caution message inhibit logic, and when are they ENABLED?
Initial Takeoff Phase (79%+ N1, WOW, <100 knots)
Final Takeoff Phase (79%+ N1, >100 knots)
Landing Phase (transition to LESS than 400’ RA, gear down & locked)
42
When would you receive the GEN 1 OVLD message AFTER takeoff?
Above 400’ RA OR 30 seconds after air to ground transition
| this is when the Landing Phase inhibit logic is removed
43
When would you receive a passenger door warning AFTER landing?
30 seconds after air to ground, or greater than 400’ RA (go around) 
44
At what N1 speed will both Takeoff Inhibits be removed?
When L & R engine N1 is LESS than 67.6%
45
Would you receive a GEN 1OVLD message DURING the takeoff roll?
No
46
Would you receive a PASSENGER DOOR warning DURING landing?
No
47
Where are the switches for the emergency lighting?
Flight deck and flight attendants panel
48
When will the emergency lights illuminate automatically?
AC or DC essential bus power failure when the EMER LTS switch (flight deck switch only) is in the ARM position
49
The photo luminescent floor track tapes must be exposed to light for at least ___ minutes to become luminous. Exposure of ___ minutes will give them maximum duration
15 mins
30 mins
50
Is there a back up source to provide power to the emergency lights?
Yes, 5 independent rechargeable battery packs will provide 10 minutes of power
51
Which lights turn on when selecting RECOG/TAXI lights?
Inboard lights
52
Which lights come on when selecting L or R landing lights?
Both L/R landing and RECOG lights (inboard and outboard)
53
Which light switches caused the FDR to turn on?
Beacon or Strobe or WOW detected 
54
Which lights are powered in the DC service configuration?
```
NAV
LAV
DOME
Galley
boarding
```
55
You see that the EMER LTS switch is still ON after a/c shutdown. What is the proper way to turn them OFF?
BATT master switch on, EMER LTS switch OFF, BATT master switch off
56
The taxi lights must be switched off whenever the airplane is stationary in excess of ___ minutes
10
57
When SEAT BLTS switch is selected to AUTO in the cockpit, the seatbelt symbol/chime happens automatically when: (3)
Landing gear is selected down, flaps not in zero, cabin altitude reaches 8500 feet
58
Would you ever see a water/waste indication in the cockpit?
Never, there are no cockpit indications for this system
59
How many water panels/systems are there for the CRJ 900?
2 - FWD for forward sink and coffee makers. AFT for after lavatory sink.
60
How are the 3 quick don oxygen masks in the cockpit supplied with oxygen?
By 1 oxygen cylinder on the captains side, hidden in the wall.
61
During preflight flight, how can you tell if the oxygen cylinder supply for the quick Don oxygen masks in the cockpit has been vented/over pressurized? what about if the oxygen pressure is too low?
The green overboard discharge indicator will have left the aircraft.
OXY LO PRESS Caution message on EICAS.
62
Where in the flight deck do you find oxygen system pressure information?
```
STATUS page
(Normal pressurization for the quick done oxygen masks cylinder is 1850 psi)
```
63
Where do you find the 4 fire extinguishers on the aircraft?
Flight deck,
FWD entrance,
FWD wardrobe,
AFT bulkhead in cabin (water)
64
True or false: bottled oxygen is provided for all flight deck crew members during an emergency.
True
65
True or false: passengers AND flight attendants are provided with chemical oxygen generators, that are activated by pulling down on the masks and following deployment.
True
| FA’s are at their seats
66
True or false: personal breathing equipment (PBE) Accompany each fire extinguisher Station
True - Within 3 feet
67
How long will the PBE provide adequate air supply?
For 15 minutes
68
How can the passenger oxygen masks be dropped manually or automatically? (3)
Manually with a paper clip, guarded PASS OXY switch to ON in the cockpit, or they will drop automatically at 14,000’ cabin pressure altitude +/- 300’
69
How long will the passenger oxygen generator supply oxygen?
13 minutes to each mask.
70
When cabin altitude is above _____ feet the crew masks supply pure oxygen, regardless of the N/100% switch position
30,000’
71
What does CPAM stand for?
Cabin pressure Acquisition module - Third level of automatic control.
72
Where are the dispatch requirements for oxygen v crew members found?
The ODH - Oxygen quantity/temperature chart
73
How many oxygen supplies do FAs have?
2 - The drop down masks at their seats, and portable oxygen bottles!
74
Will every aircraft have Life jackets for passengers?
Only the extended overwater operations aircraft
75
What is the primary and secondary purpose of the APU?
Primary = provide electrical power.
Secondary = provide bleed air.
76
Who is the APUs BFF? Can one live without the other?
The ECU (electronic control unit)
Controls everything regarding the APU, including the APU Load Control Valve
77
Which ECP (EICAS Control Panel) button accesses the page where fuel can be reset?
MENU
78
Pressing CAS button on the ECP will do what to caution messages or status messages?
Box them!
79
Pressing STAT button on the ECP will allow you to do what?
Go through other pages on the ED2
80
Where do you go if a non-EICAS message displays?
Still the QRH - Non-EICAS EMERGENCY/ABNORMAL Procedures
81
What is the maximum allowable time for utilizing DC power on the ground?
5 mins
82
ED1 is the _____ page, and ED2 is the _____ page
ED1 = Primary
ED2 = Status
83
What is the DAD stack?
Display control panel, air data reference panel, display revisionary panel
84
What is the RTU?
Radio tuning unit
85
Tell me about the wings on the CRJ 700 and 900
```
700 = 76’ 3” wingspan
900 = 81’ 6” wingspan
```
Wet wing, high loading, aluminum anti-ice, equipped with leading edge slats, winglets
86
What unit controls the priority of warnings, caution, and other information from being displayed or inhibited on the EICAS/ED1 & ED2?
2 DCUs - Data concentrator units. The DCU is the heart of EICAS!
Located in the avionics bay, will put first priority at the top of the list.
87
Will the APU provide automatic fire protection and flight?
No, only on the ground will the squibs and bottles discharge automatically in response to a fire
88
The APU’s BFF , ____, along with the ______ will restrict the load control valve’s (LCVs) pneumatic output during periods of abnormally high EGT, and command the LCV to close as a result of interlock protection?
ECU, along with the ACSC1 (Air conditioning system controller 1)
89
What is the purpose of the load control valve? (LCV)
To MONITOR EGT, and MODULATE the amount of APU bleed air being taken/backflow.
**if you’re drawing too much BLEED AIR from the APU, the temperature will increase, possibly overheating the APU**
90
What is the APU DOOR airspeed limitation when OPEN/position unknown “- - - - -“?
220 knots
91
After the APU START status message on the EICAS has extinguished in flight, an immediate restart of the APU can be initiated when RPM is below ____%
12%
92
Tell me about the APU
It is a single stage centrifugal impeller, and a two stage axial flow mini engine.
Equipped with a 2 loop fire detection system with self discharging bottles.
AGB with an oil reservoir.
Exhaust duct and an Eductor.
Primary purpose of supplying electrical power, and a secondary purpose of providing bleed air to Pax and air conditioning and to be used for engine start.
93
Describe the critical rotation speed of the APU and why it is important:
The critical rotation speed is between 4% & 30% RPM.
Rpm below 4% does not produce enough heat to cause bearing damage.
Rpm above 30% ensure sufficient cooling oil is available for proper bearing lubrication.
94
What is the minimum battery voltage required to start the APU?
22 v
95
What are the limitations of the APU starter?
- 2 minute delay must be observed between cranking attempts (to allow for cooling)
- The APU starter motor duty cycle is limited to no more than 3 starts OR start attempts, in 1 hour
(Systems Manual 20-11)
96
How many batteries are required to start the APU?
2 - APU and MAIN
97
What happens when the APU PWR/FUEL switch light is selected on the GROUND?
Initiates the APU pre-start sequence: DIGS
Door opens, APU IN-BITE (appears for 3 secs), gauges energize (RPM & EGT), SOV open
98
What happens when the APU PWR/FUEL switch light is selected in the AIR?
The in-flight start sequence is the same as the ground start sequence except the Door does not open Until the START/STOP switch light is selected. (This logic prevents potential windmilling of the APU)
99
What happens when you press the START/STOP switch light on the APU during start and shut down on the GROUND/AIR?
When pressed in: starter motor energized and start light (white) illuminates. At 50% RPM, START light extinguishers. At 99% RPM, and two seconds later, AVAIL lights (green) Illuminates.
When pressed: green AVAIL switch light extinguishes, APU fuel shut off solenoid closes, APU RPM and EGT decreases, APU intake door closes when RPM below 25%, EICAS “DOOR CLSD” displayed…..
When PWR/FUEL switch pressed: APU RPM and EGT gauges are removed from the status page after approximately 10 seconds
100
When can you restart the APU following a normal shut down?
After the door closes, or observing a two-minute cranking limitation
101
From which tank does the APU draw fuel?
Left collector tank
102
Which pump provides pressurized fuel to the APU
The APU Distribution manifold/fuel pump
103
If the APU pump were to fail, how would the APU be able to continue running?
The gearbox driven pump will supply fuel pressure through a bypass valve in the APU fuel metering unit
104
What does the green AVAIL light indicate on the APU START/STOP push button?
The APU is available for electrical loading!
105
From what component does the APU receive intake and cooling air, where is the component located?
The APU air intake door. Located on the upper right rear of the fuselage.
(opens outward and into the airstream!)
106
Which 2 FLIGHT DECK buttons will close the APU SOV?
APU FIRE PUSH (glare shield)
 PWR/FUEL Switch (APU control panel)
107
How is the APU enclosure cooled?
Exhaust EDUCTOR utilizing RAM air & creating a high velocity Venturi effect !!!!
108
Name 3 times the APU will shut down automatically in the air:
There are many.
1. Fire detected
2. Loss of over speed protection
3. No acceleration (<0.05% for 15 sec)
4. DC BATT power loss
5. ECU internal failure
(Systems manual 20-15)
109
What affects APU Door position in Flight? (3)
Mach number, APU RPM, WOW
110
What info about the APU is always on the STATUS page?
DOOR position
111
How will the system address an APU fire on the ground?
Shut off automatically by activating squibs and bottles.
112
How can the APU be manually shut down from the flight deck when in the air? (3) What about from outside the aircraft? (2)
APU fire push, START/STOP, PWR/FUEL.
From outside: switch inside the APU compartment & switch on external service panel
113
What is the maximum altitude for:
- APU start
- APU operations
- Using bleed air
- Using the APU for engine starting
Start = 37,000 feet
Operations = 41,000 feet
For using bleed air = 25,000 feet
For engine starting = 21,000 feet ???
114
The maximum load on the APU GEN is _____ kVA
40 KVA
115
What is the minimum temperature for starting a cold soaked APU on the ground?
-40°C
116
Is there any limitation on bleed air extraction from the APU for engine start on the ground?
There is no limitation, each engine may use this as a source.
117
What 3 indications will you see on the STATUS page regarding the APU?
EGT, RPM, door status
118
If you receive an “APU FAULT” caution, it can be attributed to:
Abnormal oil system reading
119
In regards to the APU, what controls the fuel control unit (FCU) ?
What controls the fuel solenoid valve? Does the FSV fail open or closed?
The ECU (Electronic control unit) Controls the FCU, and the FCU controls the fuel solenoid valve.
FSV fails closed. (We care more about the APU SOV)
120
True or false: the APU provides bleed air for anti-systems
False
121
On the ground, the APU has priority for providing bleed air for aircraft start unless __________ is turned on, then the APU will automatically isolate, and ENGINE bleed air will be routed for this
Anti-ice
122
True or false: 2 integrated IDGs, an APU, ADG, and external power can all be used as AC power sources
True
123
The ______ allows the IDG to always spin at a constant RPM
CSDs (Constant speed drives)
124
IDG1 and I DG2 on the AC ELEC synoptic pages really represent:
CSD1 & CSD2
125
Following a HOT/LOP condition in the CSD, the FAULT light will illuminate and IDG1/2 caution message will present. How can the IDG be disconnected?
Manually by the crew, or automatically by system protection.
Once disconnected, the IDG cannot be reconnected in Flight!!!!!!
126
What does the AUTO XFER FAIL condition mean to?
The systems that are still operating are being protected from the failed bus.
The transfer was inhibited, not failed. If one of the buses has a short circuit, a transfer of excess kVA will fry the others, too.
There will be other messages, run the AUTO XFER FAIL QRH first.
127
True or false: DC ties are completely automatic. They will close after system failures to prevent critical DC buses from losing power.
True
128
List all of the potential AC power sources on the aircraft!
IDGs (x2), APU, ADG, & external power
129
Which AC buses must be energized for the APU and MAIN batteries to charge?
Main = AC BUS 1
APU = AC service bus
130
What does the AVAIL indication on the AC EXT power switch light indicate?
Power is connected and has the correct phase, voltage and frequency.
131
What is the difference between selecting AC external power on the electric service panel, and selecting the AC external power on the external services panel?
AC service panel = AC service configuration, which is everything behind the flight deck.
Inside panel establishes normal AC power and all AC buses are powered.
132
What are the amps and volts for the APU and main batteries?
APU = 43 A/24 V
Main = 17 A/24 V
133
What is the limitation regarding DC power on the ground, and why?
Five minutes, due to fans for cooling our AC powered.
134
What lights are powered in the DC service configuration?
NAV, LAV, Dom, Beacon, passenger lights
135
What happens if you turn OFF the battery master switch in flight?
What happens when you turn it ON?
Nothing - it removes connection between that BATT BUS and MAIN and APU Direct Buses.
BATT MASTER ON - APU & MAIN BATT direct BUS connect to the BATT BUS.
136
In flight what powers the DC BATT BUS?
ESS TRU 2
137
What occurs when you select the DC service switch to on, and from where will the DC service bus receive its power?
DC service bus is powered by the APU BATTERY DIRCT BUS. Service & boarding lights, NAV and LAV lights & galley lights
138
What are the approximate voltage, phase and frequency of the AC power?
115 V, three phase, 400 Hz
139
The AC ESS XFER switch light has illuminated, what does this mean?
AC bus 2 is it now powering the AC essential bus. The logic is flipped
140
What is the GCU priority for AC bus 1?
On side, inside (APU), cross side, outside (external)
141
What is a constant speed drive (CSD) and how is it depicted on the AC electrical synoptic?
Uses internal oil system to change engine variable speed into a constant RPM required for generator operation.
It’s depicted as an IDG!
141
What is a constant speed drive (CSD) and how is it depicted on the AC electrical synoptic?
Uses internal oil system to change engine variable speed into a constant RPM required for generator operation.
It’s depicted as an IDG!
142
What would cause the IDG to automatically disconnect?
Severe over temperature or over torque
143
Following disconnect, can the IDG be reconnected in Flight?
No maintenance must do it on the ground
144
What would you see on the electrical panel as a result of a TRU 1 failure?
Nothing on the panel, but you would see the main TIE close and the utility bus shed on the electrical synoptic page and EICAS status messages
145
When will the DC EMER bus appear on the DC electrical page?
Bus fault exists, or when it’s power sources are not powered.
146
What would you lose following a DC EMER bus failure?
Fire protection, squibs and SOV
147
Where would the ESS TRU 2  transfer Contactor be visible, and what would cause it to close?
Located in the upper right on DC synoptic and it will show when there are multiple failures.
148
What will cause the ADG to automatically deploy?
Loss of all AC power in Flight
149
What 5 buses will be powered following ADG deployment?
```
ADG BUS
AC ESS BUS
DC ESS BUS
DC BATT BUS
DC EMER BUS
```
150
Why does the EMER PWR ONLY checklist ask you if the engines are running?
You may have a dual engine failure
151
What does the ADG PWR TXFR OVERRIDE switch do?
Restores AC logic with AC ESS BUS & HYDRAULIC #3B Pump
152
When will the emergency lights illuminate automatically?
AC or DC essential bus failure and switch is in ARM position
153
From 0 to 41,000 feet, what is the load limit on each main generator and the APU generator?
40 KVA
154
In-flight, the maximum permissible continuous load on each TRU is ______
120 A
