Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

EMT > Test 1 > Flashcards

Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

what does a medical director do?

A

acts as a liaison to authorize EMTs to provide medical care in the field

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

continuous quality improvement (CQI)

A

a system of internal and external reviews of the EMS system to identify areas of improvement and minimize errors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

evidence based medicine (EBM)

A

focuses on procedures that have been proven useful in improving patient outcomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the four licensure levels of the EMS system?

A

EMR
EMT
AEMT
paramedic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

EMRs…

A

provide care before ambulance arrives
may assist in ambulance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

EMTs…

A

have training in basic life support (BLS):

automated external defibrillation
airway adjuncts
assisting patients with certain medications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

AEMTs…

A

have training in specific aspects of advanced life support:

IV (intravenous) therapy
administration of limited emergency medications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

paramedics…

A

have extensive ALS training:

endotracheal intubation
emergency pharmacology
cardiac monitoring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)

A

prohibits employers from failing to provide full and equal employment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

A

penalizes violations of patients’ health care information and privacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

medical control

A

physician instructions given directly by radio or cell phone or indirectly by protocol or guidelines, as authorized by the medical director

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

mobile integrated health care (MIH)

A

providing healthcare within the community instead of in a hospital or physician’s office

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

primary prevention

A

efforts to prevent an illness or injury from ever occurring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

secondary prevention

A

efforts to limit the effects of an illness or injury that you cannot completely prevent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

public safety access point

A

a call center that is staffed by trained personnel who are responsible for managing requests for emergency services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

acute stress reactions

A

reactions to stress that occur during a traumatic situation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

aerosol-generating procedure

A

treatment that increases the risk for transmission of infections that are spread through the air or by droplets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

airborne transmission

A

spread of organism via droplets or dust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

bloodborne pathogens

A

pathogenic microorganisms that are present in human blood and can cause disease in humans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

burnout

A

combination of exhaustion, cynicism, and reduced performance as a result of long-term job stresses in health care and other high-stress professions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

A

primary federal agency that conducts and supports public health activities in the US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

communicable disease

A

disease that can be spread from one person or species to another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

contamination

A

presence of infectious organisms on or in objects such as dressings, water, food, needles, wounds, or a patient’s body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

critical incident stress management (CISM)

A

a process that confronts the responses to critical incidents and defuses them, directing emergency services personnel to physical and emotional equilibrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

direct contact

A

exposure or transmission of a communicable disease from one person to another by physical contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

distress

A

a negative response to a stressor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

exposure

A

a situation in which a person has had contact with blood, bodily fluids, tissues, or airborne particles in a manner which suggests disease transmission may occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

foodborne transmission

A

contamination of food or water with an organism that can cause disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

hepatitis

A

inflammation of the liver, usually caused by a viral infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

symptoms of hepatitis

A

fever
loss of appetite
jaundice
fatigue
altered liver function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

host

A

organisms or individual that is attacked by the infecting agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

A

causes acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), damaging the cells in the body’s immune system so that the body is unable to fight infection or certain cancers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

immune

A

the body’s ability to protect itself from acquiring a disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

indirect contact

A

exposure or transmission of disease from one person to another by contact with a contaminated object

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

infection

A

the abnormal invasion of a host or host tissues by organisms such as bacteria, viruses, or parasites
can occur with or without signs or symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

infection control

A

procedures to reduce transmission of infections among patients and health care personnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

infectious disease

A

medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms within the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

A

federal regulatory compliance agency that develops, publishes, and enforces guidelines concerning safety in the workplace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

pathogen

A

microorganism that is capable of causing disease in a susceptible host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

personal protective equipment (PPE)

A

protective equipment that blocks exposure to a pathogen or a hazardous material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

A

delayed stress reaction to a prior incident, often the result of one or more unresolved issues concerning the incident

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

resilience

A

capacity of an individual to cope with and recover from distress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

standard precautions

A

protective measures that have been traditionally developed by the CDC for use in dealing with potential exposures to communicable diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

vector-borne transmission

A

use of an animal to spread an organism from one person or place to another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

abandonment

A

unilateral termination of care by the EMT without the patient’s consent and without making provisions for transferring care to another medical professional with the skills and training necessary to meet the needs of the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

advance directive

A

written documentation that specifies medical treatment for a competent patient should the patient become unable to make decisions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

algor mortis

A

cooling of the body after death until it matches the ambient temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

assault

A

unlawfully placing a patient in fear of bodily harm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

battery

A

unlawfully touching a patient or providing emergency care without consent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

bioethics

A

the study of ethics related to issues that arise in healthcare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

breach of confidentiality

A

disclosure of information without proper authorization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

compensatory damages

A

damages awarded in a civil lawsuit that are intended to restore the plaintiff to the same condition that he or she was in prior to the incident

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

competent

A

able to make rational decisions about personal well-being

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

consent

A

permission to render care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

contributory negligence

A

legal defense that may be raised when the defendant thinks that the conduct of the plaintiff somehow contributed to any injuries or damages that were sustained by the plaintiff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

decision-making capacity

A

ability to understand and process information and make a choice regarding appropriate medical care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

defamation

A

communication of false information about a person that is damaging to the person’s reputation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

dependent lividity

A

blood settling to the lowest point of the body, causing discoloration of the skin

59
Q

depositions

A

oral questions asked of parties and witnesses under oath

60
Q

discovery

A

phase of a civil lawsuit where the plaintiff and defense obtain information from each other that will enable the attorneys to have a better understanding of the case

61
Q

do not resuscitate (DNR)

A

written documentation by a physician giving permission to medical personnel not to attempt resuscitation in the event of cardiac arrest

62
Q

duty to act

A

a medicolegal term relating to certain personnel who either by statute or by function have a responsibility to provide care

63
Q

emancipated minor

A

person who is under the legal age in a given state but is considered a legal adult because of other circumstances

64
Q

expressed consent

A

type of consent in which a patient gives verbal or nonverbal authorization for provision of care or transport

65
Q

false imprisonment

A

confinement of a person without legal authority or the person’s consent

66
Q

forcible restraint

A

the act of physically preventing an individual from initiating any physical action

67
Q

Good Samaritan laws

A

statutory provisions enacted by many states to protect citizens from liability for errors and omissions in giving good-faith emergency medical care

68
Q

when do Good Samaritan laws not apply?

A

when on duty

69
Q

gross negligence

A

conduct that constitutes a willful or reckless disregard for duty or standard of care

70
Q

health care proxy

A

type of advance directive executed by a competent adult that appoints another individual to make medical treatment decisions on his/her behalf in the event that the person making the appointment loses decision-making capacity

71
Q

implied consent

A

type of consent in which a person is unable to give consent is given treatment under the legal assumption that he/she would want treatment

72
Q

informed consent

A

permission for treatment given by a competent patient after the potential risks, benefits, and alternatives have been explained

73
Q

in loco parentis

A

legal responsibility of a person or organization to take on some of the functions and responsibilities of the parents

74
Q

kidnapping

A

seizing, confining, abducting, or carrying away of a person by force
includes transporting a competent adult for treatment without his/her consent

75
Q

libel

A

false and damaging information about a person that is communicated in writing

76
Q

negligence

A

failure to provide the same care that a person with similar training would provide

77
Q

protected health information (PHI)

A

any information about health status, provision of health care, or payment for health care that can be linked to an individual, including any part of a patient’s medical record or payment history

78
Q

punitive damages

A

damages that are sometimes awarded in a civil lawsuit when the conduct of the defendant was intentional or constituted a reckless disregard for public safety

79
Q

putrefaction

A

decomposition of body tissue
definitive sign of death

80
Q

rigor mortis

A

stiffening of the body muscles
definitive sign of death

81
Q

scope of practice

A

most commonly defined by state law and outlines the care that the EMT is able to provide for the patient

82
Q

slander

A

false and damaging information that is communicated by spoken word

83
Q

standard of care

A

accepted levels of emergency care expected by reason of training and profession that are written by legal or professional organizations so that patients are not exposed to unreasonable risk or harm

84
Q

statute of limitations

A

time within which a case must be commenced

85
Q

superior

A

nearer to the head than a specific reference point

86
Q

inferior

A

nearer to the feet than a specific reference point

87
Q

lateral

A

parts of the body that lie further from the midline

88
Q

medial

A

parts of the body that lie closer to the midline

89
Q

proximal

A

structures that are closer to the trunk

90
Q

distal

A

structures that are farther from the trunk

91
Q

superficial

A

on the skin

92
Q

deep

A

farther inside the body

93
Q

ventral

A

belly side of the body

94
Q

dorsal

A

spinal side of the body

95
Q

anterior

A

front surface of the body

96
Q

posterior

A

back surface of the body

97
Q

palmar

A

front region of the hand

98
Q

plantar

A

bottom surface of the foot

99
Q

apex

A

tip of a structure

100
Q

flexion

A

decreasing the angle of a joint

101
Q

extension

A

increasing the angle of a joint

102
Q

adduction

A

motion toward the midline

103
Q

abduction

A

motion away from the midline

104
Q

bilateral

A

appears on both sides of the midline

105
Q

prone

A

lying facedown

106
Q

supine

A

lying face up

107
Q

Fowler position

A

semi-reclining position with head elevated

108
Q

base station radios

A

any radio hardware containing a transmitter and receiver that is located in a fixed place

109
Q

cellular telephone

A

a low-power portable radio that communicates through an interconnected series of repeater stations called cells

110
Q

channel

A

an assigned frequency or frequencies that are used to carry voice and/or data communications

111
Q

therapeutic communication

A

principles of communicating with patients in a manner that achieves a positive relationship

112
Q

Shannon-Weaver communication model

A
  1. sender takes a thought
  2. encodes it into a message
  3. sends the message to the receiver
  4. receiver decodes the message
  5. sends feedback to the sender
113
Q

ethnocentrism

A

considering your own cultural values more important than those of others

114
Q

cultural imposition

A

forcing your values onto others

115
Q

facilitation

A

encouraging the patient to talk more or provide more information

116
Q

pause

A

gives the patient space and time to think and respond

117
Q

reflection

A

restating a patient’s statement made to you to confirm your understanding

118
Q

confrontation

A

making a patient who is in denial or in a mental state of shock focus on urgent and life-critical issues

119
Q

CHART method

A

chief complaint
history
assessments
Rx (treatment)
transport

120
Q

SOAP method

A

subjective
objective
assessment
plan

121
Q

mobile radio

A

radio that is installed in a vehicle and used to communicator with dispatcher and medical control

122
Q

portable radios

A

handheld devices that are helpful when away from the ambulance to communicate with dispatch, another unit, or medical control

123
Q

repeater

A

special type of base station radio that receives messages and signal on one frequency and automatically retransmits them on a second frequency, allowing two mobile or portable units that cannot reach each other to communicate using its greater power and antenna

124
Q

telemetry

A

allows electronic signals to be converted into coded, audible signals that can be transmitted by radio or telephone to a receiver with a decoder at the hospital

125
Q

scanner

A

radio receiver that scans across several frequencies

126
Q

simplex

A

single-frequency radio that is push to talk, release to listen (transmissions can occur in either direction but not simultaneously)

127
Q

duplex

A

simultaneous talk-listen

128
Q

multiplex

A

utilizes two or more frequencies

129
Q

trunking systems

A

allow a computer to maximize utilization of a group of frequencies

130
Q

federal communications commission (FCC)

A

regulates all radio operations in the United States

131
Q

neonate

A

birth to 1 month

132
Q

infant

A

1 month to 1 year

133
Q

how much of a neonate’s body weight does the head account for?

A

25%

134
Q

how much does a neonate grow each day?

A

1 ounce

135
Q

moro reflex

A

neonate opens arms wide, spreads fingers, and seems to grab at things

136
Q

palmar grasp

A

occurs when an object is placed into the neonate’s palm

137
Q

rooting reflex

A

neonate instinctively turns head when something touches its cheek

138
Q

sucking reflex

A

occurs when a neonate’s lips are stroked

139
Q

fontanelles

A

spaces between the bones that eventually fuse to form the skull

140
Q

how long does it take for the posterior fontanelle to fuse?

A

3 months

141
Q

how long does it take for the anterior fontanelle to fuse?

A

9 to 18 months

142
Q

preconventional reasoning

A

children act to avoid punishment and get what they want

143
Q

conventional reasoning

A

children look for approval from peers and society

144
Q

postconventional reasoning

A

children make decisions guided by their conscience

EMT (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions