Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common oral tumor in kids?

A

Irritation fibroma

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2
Q

What type of lesion is a frenal tag?

A

Irritation fibroma

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3
Q

Where are most giant cell fibromas?

A

Gingiva

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4
Q

__________ will be found on the lingual gingiva of the canine.

A

Retrocuspid papilla

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5
Q

Where are most pyogenic granulomas?

A

Gingiva

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6
Q

What are some variants of pyogenic granulomas?

A

Pregnancy tumor, pulp polyp

May mimic a soft tissue abscess

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7
Q

How many infantile hemangiomas will result in complications?

A

20%

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8
Q

What is the most common oral site for a lymphangioma?

A

Tongue

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9
Q

Which lesion looks like frog eggs?

A

Lymphangioma

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10
Q

T/F: Lymphangiomas can recur.

A

True

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11
Q

A ___________ is a reactive lesion of salivary glands that occurs most often in the lower lip.

A

Mucoceles

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12
Q

A __________ is a mucocele of the oral floor.

A

Ranula

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13
Q

What is caused from the separation of the dental follicle from the crown of an erupting tooth?

A

Eruption cyst

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14
Q

What is the most common odontogenic cyst?

A

Dentigerous cyst

Associated with crown of unerupted tooth

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15
Q

What are the most common sites for dentigerous cysts?

A

Molar and canine

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16
Q

______________ is due to chronic trauma of anterior tongue due to natal and neonatal teeth.

A

Riga-fede disease

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17
Q

What is the cause of median rhomboid glossitis?

A

Candida

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18
Q

What is are the three major classifications that define asthma?

A
  1. Symptoms are episodic or chronic
  2. Bronchial hyper-responsiveness
  3. Evidence of reversibility
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19
Q

T/F: There are both environmental and genetic factors for asthma.

A

True

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20
Q

T/F: Asthma is the most common chronic medical condition of childhood.

A

True

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21
Q

What are the two main types of asthma?

A

Type 1 - triggered by common viral infections

Type 2 - associated with allergy and persists into late childhood

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22
Q

T/F: Asthmatics can have both extrinsic (allergic) and intrinsic (non-allergic) triggers.

A

True

Roughly 10% have both

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23
Q

T/F: Rescue medications should always be brought to dental appointments.

A

True

SABAs (albuterol)

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24
Q

T/F: Candida infections are more common in asthmatics.

A

True

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25
What are key questions to ask the physician about an asthmatic patient?
1. Any medical triggers? 2. Severity? 3. Epinephrine or emergency needed? 4. Corticosteroids?
26
When should you consult the MD?
If on systemic steroids
27
T/F: NSAIDS should be used for pain in asthmatics.
False Acetaminophen
28
___________ is a potentially life threatening IgE-mediated reaction to foods or drugs.
Angioedema
29
What is an oral allergy syndrome?
IgE mediated allergy to raw fruits and veggies Most common in those with pollen allergies
30
What is the most common type of heart defect?
Ventricular septal defect
31
Roughly how many children with a CHD will have a critical defect?
25%
32
T/F: The population of people with CHDs is growing.
True More people surviving
33
What is an atrial septal defect?
Opening between right and left atria Blood from atria mix Can cause pulmonary hypertension, right sided heart enlargement
34
What is the most common type of ASD?
Secundum - failure of septum to close in development
35
Ventral septal defects account for ________ of all congenital heart defects.
30%
36
What is the most common type of VSD?
Membranous Surgery needed
37
What is a patent ductus arteriosus?
Leads to blood traveling from aorta to pulmonary artery
38
What is the 3 year survival for pediatric heart transplants?
90%
39
T/F: Infective endocarditis is more common in heart transplant patients.
True
40
Which heart defects require SBE prophylaxis?
Cyanotic (oxygen lower than normal), not fully repaired Repaired with prosthetic material Repaired but with residual defects
41
What is a normal INR?
1 2-4 is good for extraction Greater than 5 = high chance of bleeding
42
T/F: Cowhorns are used for mandibular primary molars.
False May damage successor
43
What are the two best techniques for preventing aspiration?
Throat screen and head control
44
What should be done if the root fractures?
If difficult to retrieve, leave it and allow it to resorb. Tell parent
45
What do you do if the permanent tooth is extracted with the primary?
Immediately reimplant
46
What should be advised for pain?
Motrin
47
T/F: Space maintenance is common in anterior Teeth.
False
48
T/F: Space maintenance is necessary for loss of primary first molars.
False If permanent first molars are erupted and primary second molars remain
49
Which devices are used for Space maintenance?
Band and loop LLHA (mand) Nance (max)
50
T/F: Band and loop will hold space for more than one tooth.
False
51
T/F: LLHA can be used prior to lower incisor eruption.
False Not the case for Nance in maxilla
52
T/F: Grandparents can consent to treatment.
False Unless legal guardians or power of attorney
53
T/F: Staff can disclose information for consent.
True Dentist must make him/herself available for questions
54
Define oral public health.
Science and art of preventing and controlling dental disease and promoting dental health through organized community efforts
55
What is the fluoride level in water maintained at?
0.8-1.3 mg/l
56
What are the three core functions of public health?
1. Assessment - surveys, data collection 2. Policy development 3. Assurance
57
How is access to care measured?
1. Number of people with dental visits 2. Number uninsured 3. Identify dental care as unmet need
58
Which minority reports the most untreated caries form ages 6-8?
American Indian/Alaskan native
59
What are the two major reasons people do not visit the dentist?
1. Lack insurance or cannot afford care | 2. Do not perceive need for dental care
60
T/F: Medicaid patients frequently miss appointments and have disruptive behavior.
False
61
What are some symptoms of ADHD?
Inattention, hyperactivity, impulsivity
62
T/F: To be diagnosed with ADHD symptoms must be present before age 12 and in 2 or more settings.
True
63
What are the core features of autism spectrum disorder?
1. Problems with social communication and interaction (verbal and nonverbal) 2. Restricted range of behaviors or interests or repetitive patterns of behavior
64
What are the different severity levels of ASD?
Level 1 - requires support Level 2 - requires substantial support Level 3 - requires very substantial support
65
What are the contraindications for a child taking ADHD meds during a dental procedure?
Virtually none. They should always take their meds
66
T/F: Autism patients are at a greater risk for caries.
False Higher risk for damaging oral habits
67
T/F: Most extra teeth are in the maxilla.
True
68
T/F: Single tooth microdontia is common.
True Peg lateral
69
What is the difference between gemination and fusion?
Gemination: Tooth count is normal but one extra large tooth Fusion: Tooth count is fewer than normal as two teeth come together
70
T/F: Amelogenesis imperfecta affects primary and permanent dentition.
True
71
T/F: Mild flourosis can cause a greater caries risk.
False Decreased risk Moderate/severe = higher risk
72
____________ causes a dark undefined radiographic appearance. Look like ghost teeth.
Regional odontodysplasia
73
Which diseases can lead to obesity?
Hypothyroidism, growth hormone deficiency, Cushing syndrome, damage to CNS
74
Children with a deficiency in __________ may have early onset morbid obesity.
leptin
75
BMI is a reliable tool to asses body fat in children over ________.
2 years old
76
What is acanthosis nigricans?
Sign of insulin resistance
77
What are some potential surgeries to help with weight loss?
Gastric bypass, gastric sleeve, adjustable gastric band
78
What is the most common unmet healthcare need?
Dental care
79
What is a VP shunt?
Drains excess CSF in children with hydrocephalus
80
What is a central line?
Catheter in a large vein
81
T/F: A desensitizing visit works well for SHCN patients.
True
82
T/F: When struggling with X-rays have your staff hold the sensor.
False Have parent hold
83
T/F: Patients with special healthcare needs are automatically at moderate risk for caries.
True
84
T/F: Patients with Down syndrome have increased risk of cardiac abnormalities and high risk of leukemia.
True