Test #2 Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Test #2 Deck (110):
1

The prime mover of any skeletal movement is called the?

Agonist

2

Each fascicle of a muscle is surrounded by the?

Perimysium

3

The light band of a skeletal muscle is known as the?

I band

4

Somatic motor neurons release the neurotransmitter ______ at the neuromuscular junction.

Acetylcholine

5

Each somatic motor neuron with all the muscle fibers it innervates is a ?

Motor unit

6

Subunits of skeletal muscle cells that are composed of sarcomeres are called?

Myofibrils

7

The thick filament is also called the?

A band

8

Myosin contains binding sites for ____ and ____.

ATP and actin

9

Which molecule blocks the myosin head from binding to actin in a relaxed muscle?

Tropomyosin

10

The inability of muscle cells to relax sue to high frequency stimulation is termed?

Tetanus

11

The first 1 to 2 minutes of moderate to heavy exercise relies on _____ for ATP production.

Anaerobic respiration of glucose

12

Type 1 skeletal muscle fibers?

have numerous mitochondria

13

Which of the following is NOT a contributing factor to skeletal muscle fatigue?

increased intracellular K+

14

The muscle spindle apparatus is associated with?

Intrafusal fibers

15

In smooth muscle cells, ______ functions in a manner analogous to troponin.

Calmodulin

16

Which of the following is NOT true of venous blood?

Always has lower oxygen content

17

How much blood does the average sized adult have?

5 liters

18

Which part of the red blood cell can bind to oxygen?

heme part of hemoglobin

19

Which of the following is NOT a granular leukocyte?

monocyte

20

The process of blood cell formation is?

Hematopoiesis

21

What organ secretes eyrthropoietin?

Kidneys

22

When the wrong blood type is given to a patient, the antibodies in the patient's blood react with the antigens on the surface of the transfused blood causing a reaction called?

Agglutination

23

Erythroblastosis fetalis occurs when?

The mother has Rh- blood and the fetus has Rh+ blood

24

What ion is necessary for the clotting process?

Ca2+

25

Aspirin inhibits blood clotting by directly preventing?

Platelet plug formation

26

What is the enzyme that converts soluble fibrinogen to insoluble fibrin?

Thrombin

27

The amount of blood ejected by the ventricles per beat is termed the?

Stroke Volume

28

During isovolumetric ventricular relaxation?

Atrial pressure is less than ventricular pressure

29

What occurs when the pressure in the ventricles drops below the pressure of the atria?

AV valves open

30

The action potential of cardiac pacemaker cells is caused by?

Inward diffusion of Ca2+

31

All blood vessels are lined with?

Endothelial cells

32

Cardiac output is equal to?

Stroke volume x cardiac rate

33

What type of receptors do norepinephrine and epinephrine bind to in the heart?

B1-adrenergic

34

Acteylcholine binds to _____ receptors of the heart and causes the opening of ____ channels.

Muscarinic, K+

35

The cardiac control center of the ____ coordinates the autonomic innervation of the heart.

Medulla oblongata

36

Cardiac output would be increased by?

Positive chronotropic agents

37

Hydrostatic pressure is ______ and colloid osmotic pressure is _____ at the arterial end of a capillary.

Higher, lower

38

_____ is a steroid hormone secreted by the adrenal cortex which stimulates kidney salt reabsorption.

Aldosterone

39

Angiotensin 1 is formed from the plasma protein ____ by the action of the enzyme ____.

Angiotensiogen; renin

40

Sweat glands can also secrete ____ that stimulates vasodilation of skin arterioles to help reduce body temperature.

Bradykinin

41

Which blood vessels have the highest cross-sectional area?

Capillaries

42

Which blood vessels have the lowest pressure?

Veins

43

Increased blood pressure stimulates?

decreased sympathetic outflow of the heart

44

The last Korotkoff sound occurs when the blood pressure is equal to?

Diastolic Pressure

45

The mean arterial pressure of a person with a blood pressure of 128/68 would be?

88

46

Secondary hypertension may result rom?

a renin secreting tumor

47

Cardiogenic shock can result from?

Myocardial infarction

48

A measure of the distensibility of the lungs is?

Compliance

49

How does surfactant reduce the surface tension of water in the lungs?

reduces hydrogen bonding between water molecules

50

Quiet inspiration will _____ thoracic and lung volume and _____ intrapulmonary pressure.

Increase, decrease

51

Cessation of breathing is known as?

apnea

52

The total amount of gas in the lungs after a maximum inspiration is the?

Total lung capacity

53

Normal venous Pco2 is?

40 mm Hg

54

Normal venous Po2 is?

100 mm Hg

55

Peripheral chemoreceptors that can detect changes in blood pH are located in the?

aortic and carotid bodies

56

Central chemoreceptors in the medulla oblongata directly detect changes in the pH of the?

Cerebrospinal fluid

57

The primary drive to breath is elicited by which of the following?

Increased Pco2

58

What is the condition of having low blood oxygen levels?

Hypoxemia

59

The rhythmicity center is located in the?

Medulla oblongata

60

Limits on stretching the lungs are due to the?

Hering-Breuer reflex

61

If Po2 and hemoglobin content of blood is normal, how much oxygen is the blood carrying?

20 mL O2/ 100mL blood

62

The form of hemoglobin with iron in a reduced state and bonded to carbon monoxide is?

Carboxyhemoglobin

63

The affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen is _____ as the partial pressure of oxygen is raised.

increased

64

The Bohr effect?

describes the effect of pH on the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen

65

Smooth muscle cells?

may contain gap junctions

66

What are the swellings on autonomic nerves that release neurotransmitter to smooth muscle called?

Varicosities

67

The P wave of an ECG represents?

Atrial depolarization

68

Bipolar limb lead three uses the?

Left arm and left leg

69

Which vessels are most important for controlling resistance to blood flow?

Arterioles

70

WIthin the blood vessels, valves are found in the ?

Veins

71

During skeletal muscle contraction?

thin filaments slide across thick filaments

72

The movement of the troponin-tropomyosin complex requires?

Ca2+

73

When a muscle is stimulated to contract, calcium release channels in the SR will release Ca2+ by?

Passive Diffusion

74

In regards to the relationship between resting muscle fiber length and tension generated?

maximal tension is generated when the thick and thin filaments slightly overlap

75

Skeletal muscles at rest obtain most of their energy from the aerobic respiration of ?

Fatty acids

76

Muscle hypertrophy is due to?

both increased number of myofibrils in the muscle fiber and increased size of the myofibrils

77

Alpha motor neurons innervate?

Extrafusal fibers

78

John has blood type B. In an emergency, John could receive which of the following blood types?

B or O

79

Damage to tissues stimulants that activation of the ____ blood clotting pathway.

Extrinsic

80

Normal alveolar Po2 is?

105 mm Hg

81

Normal alveolar Pco2 is?

40 mm Hg

82

The final protein that forms a blood clot is?

Fibrin

83

During isovolumetric ventricular contraction ventricular pressure is?

increasing

84

What part of the heart's conduction system acts as the primary pacemaker?

SA node

85

The production and conduction of action potentials in the heart produces a recordable tracing of the electrical activity of the heart called an ?

ECG

86

The lymphatic system can help cancer ____ since cancer cells may enter, circulate, and later exit porous lymphatic capillaries.

Metastasize

87

All blood vessels are lined with?

Endothelial Cells

88

The volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole is known as the?

End diastolic volume (EDV)

89

The _____ is equal to the hydrostatic pressure of the blood in the capillaries minus the hydrostatic pressure of tissue interstitial fluid outside the capillaries.

Net filtration Pressure

90

Increased blood flow resistance is caused by ?

Increased blood vessel length

91

During exercise, all of the following occur EXCEPT?

Increased vasoconstriction of coronary arteries

92

In response to increased internal temperature blood flow to the skin will?

Increase

93

If cardiac output increases, the peripheral resistance must ______ for arterial blood pressure to remain constant.

Decrease

94

Dangerously low blood pressure that results from infection is?

Septic shock

95

The conducting zone contains all of the following EXCEPT

The respiratory bronchioles

96

During inspiration,

intrapulmonary pressure is less than atmospheric pressure

97

What law states that the pressure of a given quantity of gas is inversely proportional to its volume?

Boyle's Law

98

The tendency of the lungs to return to their initial size after stretching is?

Elasticity

99

According to who's law, is the pressure in a small alveolus greater than a large alveolus as long as the surface tension is equal?

Laplace's Law

100

The volume of gas inspired or expired in a quiet respiration cycle is the?

Tidal Volume

101

Gas X makes up 15% of a gas mix, at 760 mm Hg, the partial pressure of gas X would be?

114 mm Hg

102

Pulmonary circulation is a ____ resistance and _____ pressure pathway.

low, low

103

Pulmonary arterioles ____ and system arterioles ____ when Po2 is low.

constrict, dilate

104

Central chemoreceptors in the medulla oblongata directly detect changes in the pH of the?

Cerebrospinal Fluid

105

The I neurons of the dorsal respiratory group stimulate the?

Phrenic Nerve

106

What is the normal value of arterial percent hemoglobin saturation?

97%

107

The ____ complex contains three proteins designated as the I, T, and C types.

Troponin

108

Which of the following is NOT true of the venous blood?

always has lower oxygen content

109

Norepinephrine is released from _____ nerves, causing heart rate to ______.

Sympathetic; increase

110

Vasodilation is induced by all of the following EXCEPT

decreased tissue metabolism