Test #2 Flashcards

1
Q

The prime mover of any skeletal movement is called the?

A

Agonist

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2
Q

Each fascicle of a muscle is surrounded by the?

A

Perimysium

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3
Q

The light band of a skeletal muscle is known as the?

A

I band

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4
Q

Somatic motor neurons release the neurotransmitter ______ at the neuromuscular junction.

A

Acetylcholine

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5
Q

Each somatic motor neuron with all the muscle fibers it innervates is a ?

A

Motor unit

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6
Q

Subunits of skeletal muscle cells that are composed of sarcomeres are called?

A

Myofibrils

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7
Q

The thick filament is also called the?

A

A band

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8
Q

Myosin contains binding sites for ____ and ____.

A

ATP and actin

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9
Q

Which molecule blocks the myosin head from binding to actin in a relaxed muscle?

A

Tropomyosin

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10
Q

The inability of muscle cells to relax sue to high frequency stimulation is termed?

A

Tetanus

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11
Q

The first 1 to 2 minutes of moderate to heavy exercise relies on _____ for ATP production.

A

Anaerobic respiration of glucose

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12
Q

Type 1 skeletal muscle fibers?

A

have numerous mitochondria

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13
Q

Which of the following is NOT a contributing factor to skeletal muscle fatigue?

A

increased intracellular K+

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14
Q

The muscle spindle apparatus is associated with?

A

Intrafusal fibers

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15
Q

In smooth muscle cells, ______ functions in a manner analogous to troponin.

A

Calmodulin

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16
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of venous blood?

A

Always has lower oxygen content

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17
Q

How much blood does the average sized adult have?

A

5 liters

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18
Q

Which part of the red blood cell can bind to oxygen?

A

heme part of hemoglobin

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19
Q

Which of the following is NOT a granular leukocyte?

A

monocyte

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20
Q

The process of blood cell formation is?

A

Hematopoiesis

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21
Q

What organ secretes eyrthropoietin?

A

Kidneys

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22
Q

When the wrong blood type is given to a patient, the antibodies in the patient’s blood react with the antigens on the surface of the transfused blood causing a reaction called?

A

Agglutination

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23
Q

Erythroblastosis fetalis occurs when?

A

The mother has Rh- blood and the fetus has Rh+ blood

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24
Q

What ion is necessary for the clotting process?

A

Ca2+

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25
Aspirin inhibits blood clotting by directly preventing?
Platelet plug formation
26
What is the enzyme that converts soluble fibrinogen to insoluble fibrin?
Thrombin
27
The amount of blood ejected by the ventricles per beat is termed the?
Stroke Volume
28
During isovolumetric ventricular relaxation?
Atrial pressure is less than ventricular pressure
29
What occurs when the pressure in the ventricles drops below the pressure of the atria?
AV valves open
30
The action potential of cardiac pacemaker cells is caused by?
Inward diffusion of Ca2+
31
All blood vessels are lined with?
Endothelial cells
32
Cardiac output is equal to?
Stroke volume x cardiac rate
33
What type of receptors do norepinephrine and epinephrine bind to in the heart?
B1-adrenergic
34
Acteylcholine binds to _____ receptors of the heart and causes the opening of ____ channels.
Muscarinic, K+
35
The cardiac control center of the ____ coordinates the autonomic innervation of the heart.
Medulla oblongata
36
Cardiac output would be increased by?
Positive chronotropic agents
37
Hydrostatic pressure is ______ and colloid osmotic pressure is _____ at the arterial end of a capillary.
Higher, lower
38
_____ is a steroid hormone secreted by the adrenal cortex which stimulates kidney salt reabsorption.
Aldosterone
39
Angiotensin 1 is formed from the plasma protein ____ by the action of the enzyme ____.
Angiotensiogen; renin
40
Sweat glands can also secrete ____ that stimulates vasodilation of skin arterioles to help reduce body temperature.
Bradykinin
41
Which blood vessels have the highest cross-sectional area?
Capillaries
42
Which blood vessels have the lowest pressure?
Veins
43
Increased blood pressure stimulates?
decreased sympathetic outflow of the heart
44
The last Korotkoff sound occurs when the blood pressure is equal to?
Diastolic Pressure
45
The mean arterial pressure of a person with a blood pressure of 128/68 would be?
88
46
Secondary hypertension may result rom?
a renin secreting tumor
47
Cardiogenic shock can result from?
Myocardial infarction
48
A measure of the distensibility of the lungs is?
Compliance
49
How does surfactant reduce the surface tension of water in the lungs?
reduces hydrogen bonding between water molecules
50
Quiet inspiration will _____ thoracic and lung volume and _____ intrapulmonary pressure.
Increase, decrease
51
Cessation of breathing is known as?
apnea
52
The total amount of gas in the lungs after a maximum inspiration is the?
Total lung capacity
53
Normal venous Pco2 is?
40 mm Hg
54
Normal venous Po2 is?
100 mm Hg
55
Peripheral chemoreceptors that can detect changes in blood pH are located in the?
aortic and carotid bodies
56
Central chemoreceptors in the medulla oblongata directly detect changes in the pH of the?
Cerebrospinal fluid
57
The primary drive to breath is elicited by which of the following?
Increased Pco2
58
What is the condition of having low blood oxygen levels?
Hypoxemia
59
The rhythmicity center is located in the?
Medulla oblongata
60
Limits on stretching the lungs are due to the?
Hering-Breuer reflex
61
If Po2 and hemoglobin content of blood is normal, how much oxygen is the blood carrying?
20 mL O2/ 100mL blood
62
The form of hemoglobin with iron in a reduced state and bonded to carbon monoxide is?
Carboxyhemoglobin
63
The affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen is _____ as the partial pressure of oxygen is raised.
increased
64
The Bohr effect?
describes the effect of pH on the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen
65
Smooth muscle cells?
may contain gap junctions
66
What are the swellings on autonomic nerves that release neurotransmitter to smooth muscle called?
Varicosities
67
The P wave of an ECG represents?
Atrial depolarization
68
Bipolar limb lead three uses the?
Left arm and left leg
69
Which vessels are most important for controlling resistance to blood flow?
Arterioles
70
WIthin the blood vessels, valves are found in the ?
Veins
71
During skeletal muscle contraction?
thin filaments slide across thick filaments
72
The movement of the troponin-tropomyosin complex requires?
Ca2+
73
When a muscle is stimulated to contract, calcium release channels in the SR will release Ca2+ by?
Passive Diffusion
74
In regards to the relationship between resting muscle fiber length and tension generated?
maximal tension is generated when the thick and thin filaments slightly overlap
75
Skeletal muscles at rest obtain most of their energy from the aerobic respiration of ?
Fatty acids
76
Muscle hypertrophy is due to?
both increased number of myofibrils in the muscle fiber and increased size of the myofibrils
77
Alpha motor neurons innervate?
Extrafusal fibers
78
John has blood type B. In an emergency, John could receive which of the following blood types?
B or O
79
Damage to tissues stimulants that activation of the ____ blood clotting pathway.
Extrinsic
80
Normal alveolar Po2 is?
105 mm Hg
81
Normal alveolar Pco2 is?
40 mm Hg
82
The final protein that forms a blood clot is?
Fibrin
83
During isovolumetric ventricular contraction ventricular pressure is?
increasing
84
What part of the heart's conduction system acts as the primary pacemaker?
SA node
85
The production and conduction of action potentials in the heart produces a recordable tracing of the electrical activity of the heart called an ?
ECG
86
The lymphatic system can help cancer ____ since cancer cells may enter, circulate, and later exit porous lymphatic capillaries.
Metastasize
87
All blood vessels are lined with?
Endothelial Cells
88
The volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole is known as the?
End diastolic volume (EDV)
89
The _____ is equal to the hydrostatic pressure of the blood in the capillaries minus the hydrostatic pressure of tissue interstitial fluid outside the capillaries.
Net filtration Pressure
90
Increased blood flow resistance is caused by ?
Increased blood vessel length
91
During exercise, all of the following occur EXCEPT?
Increased vasoconstriction of coronary arteries
92
In response to increased internal temperature blood flow to the skin will?
Increase
93
If cardiac output increases, the peripheral resistance must ______ for arterial blood pressure to remain constant.
Decrease
94
Dangerously low blood pressure that results from infection is?
Septic shock
95
The conducting zone contains all of the following EXCEPT
The respiratory bronchioles
96
During inspiration,
intrapulmonary pressure is less than atmospheric pressure
97
What law states that the pressure of a given quantity of gas is inversely proportional to its volume?
Boyle's Law
98
The tendency of the lungs to return to their initial size after stretching is?
Elasticity
99
According to who's law, is the pressure in a small alveolus greater than a large alveolus as long as the surface tension is equal?
Laplace's Law
100
The volume of gas inspired or expired in a quiet respiration cycle is the?
Tidal Volume
101
Gas X makes up 15% of a gas mix, at 760 mm Hg, the partial pressure of gas X would be?
114 mm Hg
102
Pulmonary circulation is a ____ resistance and _____ pressure pathway.
low, low
103
Pulmonary arterioles ____ and system arterioles ____ when Po2 is low.
constrict, dilate
104
Central chemoreceptors in the medulla oblongata directly detect changes in the pH of the?
Cerebrospinal Fluid
105
The I neurons of the dorsal respiratory group stimulate the?
Phrenic Nerve
106
What is the normal value of arterial percent hemoglobin saturation?
97%
107
The ____ complex contains three proteins designated as the I, T, and C types.
Troponin
108
Which of the following is NOT true of the venous blood?
always has lower oxygen content
109
Norepinephrine is released from _____ nerves, causing heart rate to ______.
Sympathetic; increase
110
Vasodilation is induced by all of the following EXCEPT
decreased tissue metabolism