THE CELL TIM Flashcards

1
Q

What are the four building blocks of life? How can these transition to disease?

A

lipids, carbs, proteins, nucleic acids

atherosclerosis
diabetes mellitus
sickle cell anemia
genetic disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the 8 broad causes for conversion from health to disease?

A
physical agents
biological agents
chemical agents
lack of oxygen
immunologic reactions
nutritional imbalance
genetic disorders endocrine imbalance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are the three jobs of the cell?

A

survive
sense
respond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

most abundant element on earth’s crust?

A

oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the major elements of life? most abundant?

A

carbon
oxygen
hydrogen
nitrogen

carbon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

after combining the 4 most abundant elements, which molecule of life is most plentiful?

A
water (60%)
protein (20%)
lipid (12%)
minerals (6%)
carbs (1.5%)
RNA/DNA (0.5%)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the total body water percent intracellularly and extracellular?

A

60% intracellular fluid (28L)

40% extracellular fluid (14L)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how is the extracellular fluid broken down?

A
interstitial fluid (10.5L) 75%
plasma (3L) 25%, note 93% H2O, 7% Protein and lipids
transcellular fluid (1L) variable
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

T/F, non polar gases, such as oxygen and CO2, are poorly soluble in water, yet we depend on them getting into solution in order to get to or from cells?

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

this type of bond is most important in stabilizing the hydrophobic core of lipid bilayers and in stabilizing tertiary protein structure?

A

van der Waals bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the examples of saturated fatty acids discussed in class?

A

palmitate 16:0

stearate 18:0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are the examples of monounsaturated fatty acids discussed in class?

A

oleate 18:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are the examples of poly unsaturated fatty acids discussed in class?

A

linoleate 18:2
linolenate 18:3
arachidonate 20:4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

why do fatty acids exist in their salt form?

A

because the carboxyl group has a pKa of less than ambient pH so

palmitic acid=palmitate +H+
linoleic acid=linoleate +H+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

so the polyunsaturated fatty acids cannot be produced by the body so they have to be consumed, what are they important in the synthesis of?

A

prostaglandins
leukotrienes
thromboxanes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the recipe for triglyceride (triacylglycerol (TAG) or neutral fat)?

A

three fatty acids and one glycerol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the recipe for a phosphatidate (the simplest phosphoglyceride but uncommon)? what is this the starting point for?

A

2 FFA, add a glycerol, one phosphate, an alcohol can be added if desired

glycerol based phospholipids in membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

T/F, all cells including RBCs can synthesize phospholipids?

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are the most abundant lipids in the membranes?

A

phosphoglycerides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are the different types of phospholipids?

A
phosphatidylcholine
phosphatidyserine
phosphatidyethanolamine
phosphatidylinositol
phosphatidylglycerol
plasmalogen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

phosphatidylcholine is also known as?

A

lecithin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

phosphatidylglycerol is also known as?

A

cardiolipin (inner mito membrane and bacterial cell membrane)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

this phosphglyceride is found primarily in heart membrane?

A

plasmalogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is a ceramide made of?

A

FFA and sphingosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
ceramide + phosphorylcholine produces?
sphingomyelin
26
sphingomyelins structure is very similar to what phospholipid?
phosphatidylcholine
27
where is sphingomyelin found abundant?
the glial cell membranes that insulate some neuronal axons, called the myelin sheath
28
what is a glycolipid comprised of? if a single sugar is added what is the structure called? sugar polymer?
ceramide and sugar cerebroside (glucosylcerebroside and galactocerebroside) ganglioside
29
how do gangliosides carry a negative charge?
they carry a N-Acetylneuraminic acid giving the polar head a negative charge
30
what are the three diseases due to abnormal glycolipid metabolism?
Tay-Sachs Gaucher Niemann-Pick
31
this type of molecule can insert in gaps in the lipid bilayer produced by the presence of c=c bonds
cholesterol
32
why are membranes important?
they define the limit of the cell compartmentation of processes allow adaptation because their composition can change
33
what properties of membranes enhance the chance of survival?
``` membranes are flexible -fluid mosaic model -movement of cell -allow for growth of cell self-sealing -barrier remains intact after a minor tear -cell division -exocytosis -increase intracellular calcium, SNARE/SNAP proteins, hydrolysis of ATP -endocytosis selectively permeable ```
34
what is the composition of membranes?
lipids (passive function) proteins (active function) sugars (recognition) membrane turnover
35
what are some functions that take place at membranes?
transport receptors pumps other (immunological functions, ECM attachment, interface with world)
36
what types of transport exhibit saturable kinetics?
active transport and facilitated diffusion
37
what is the most common type of active transport?
secondary active transport
38
what does not exhibit selectable kinetics?
facilitated transporters HCO3/Cl GLUT I glucose transporter (found in RBCs)
39
GLUTI
ubiquitous
40
GLUTII
liver, pancreatic islets, intestines
41
GLUTIII
brain/neurons
42
GLUTIV
muscle, fat, heart
43
which of the glut transporters is insulin-dependent?
glutIV
44
Na/K ATPase is what type of active transporter? secondary or primary active transport?
electrogenic antiporter, primary active transport
45
SERCA pump is what type of active transporter? secondary or primary active transport?
electrogenic uniporter, primary active transport
46
what are the factors hat increase membrane fluidity?
shorter length fatty acid chain increased presence of unsaturated fatty acids decreased cholesterol content of the membrane
47
what are the three primary types of lipids found in membranes?
phospholipids glycolipids cholesterol
48
name two disaccharides?
sucrose, lactose, maltose
49
name two oligosaccharides?
glycolipids and glycoproteins
50
name two polysaccharides?
glycogen, dextran, GAGs, cellulose
51
changing carbon #6 on glucose from -CH2OH to -COOH yields?
glucuronate
52
shifting the -COOH on glucuronate from above to below the pyranose ring converts it from glucuronate yields?
iduronate
53
amine groups can be added to hexoses to form?
hexosamines like glucosamine or galactosamine
54
what are the important components of GAGs?
glucuronate, iduronate, glucosamine, galactosamine
55
name the examples of GAGs?
``` Hyaluronan Chondroitan Sulfate Heparan Sulfate Heparin Keratan Sulfate Dermatan Sulfate ```
56
active functions of proteins?
``` enzymatic catalysis transport and storage movement support receptors and signaling immune system blood clotting control of growth/differentiation ```
57
amino acids in proteins are in what configuration?
L-configuration
58
what types of amino acids do not participate in hydrogen bonding? what else does this mean? where are they prevalent?
- non polar amino acids - they are hydrophobic so the non polar R groups clump together - core of globular proteins and in the transmembrane portion of membranous proteins
59
T/F, uncharged polar R groups are uncharged at physiological pH?
T (but cysteine and tyrosine do have pKs) | this also means they participate in H-bonding
60
what type of reactions are uncharged polar R groups involved in?
reactions that modify initial amino acid structures like post translational processing in proteins, the -SH groups of the cysteines can form a dimer:cystine
61
what amino acids can be used as sites for attaching phosphate?
serine, threonine, tyrosine
62
when R groups are phosphorylated on a protein, what is the protein called?
phosphoprotein
63
what is the effect on protein configuration from protein phosphorylation? what amino acid is important to the enzymes that catalyze these reactions?
it adds a negative charge and changes protein configuration serine
64
phosphorylating a catabolic enzyme does what to its activity? what does this do to an anabolic enzyme's activity?
increases | decreases
65
what amino acids can be used to attach sugars?
asparagine serine threonine
66
what is produced when we add sugars to proteins?
glycoproteins, used for cell recognition mucin usually branched
67
what two amino acids can be used as condensation point for hydroxyapatite in calcified tissue?
proline(non polar) and lysine(basic), these are hydroxylated and then serve as condensation points for hydroxyapatite
68
this amino acid cross-links with another lysine, similar to how cysteine could form cystine?
lysine
69
by convention from left to right, what is the organization of the amino acid?
amine terminal to carboxyl terminal
70
the stiffness of hair is dependent on the number of what?
disulfide bridges between alpha helices creates cross linking of keratins
71
these types of proteins are fibrous proteins with a high% of B pleated sheets?
amyloid proteins seen deposited in the brains of Alzheimers patients
72
what amino acids are involved in the B-turns?
proline and glycine
73
this is a 2ndry protein structure that refers to how neighboring alpha helices, beta sheets and beta turns are oriented to each other? super secondary structures like greek key and B meander
motie
74
what do disulfide bonds give rise too?
tertiary structure
75
what is replication?
making a new set of DNA, reading DNA to write DNA
76
what is transcription?
making RNA from segments of DNA, read DNA to write RNA
77
what is translation?
making protein from an RNA code, reading RNA to write protein
78
A-T base pairs can form how many hydrogen bonds? C-G base pairs can form how many hydrogen bonds?
2 hydrogen bonds 3 hydrogen bonds
79
what enzymes perform supercoiling and uncoiling?
DNA Gyrase Topoisomerase
80
what are the five types of histones? what is the overall charge?
``` H1 H2A H2B H3 H4 ``` positive charge
81
how can the charges on histones be altered post translationally?
methylation ADP-ribosylation phosphorylation
82
T/F, stem cells and cancer cell telomeres shorten?
false, they do not shorten
83
what do reverse transcriptase read and write?
they read RNA, but write DNA
84
how is prokaryotic replication accomplished?
semiconservative replication
85
what serves as the template for DNA polymerase?
ssDNA
86
what prevents and stabilizes the ssDNA?
single stranded DNA binding protein for prokaryotes and RPA for eukaryotes
87
what type of supercoils, negative or positive, are used to compact DNA while also making it easier to separate the strands for transcription?
negative supercoils
88
what type of topoisomerase is DNA Gyrase?
Type II, this enzyme produces negative supercoils for compacting DNA
89
what anticancer agents act by inhibiting human topoisomerase?
campothecins | Etoposides
90
what inhibits bacterial DNA Gyrase?
Flouroquinolones like ciprofloxacin, this produces an antibiotic effect
91
T/F, DNA polymerase can read in one direction and write in one direction?
T
92
this is the strand in which the DNA polymerase can just keep running right behind the fork, thus replication is completed?
leading strand
93
this is the lower strand that must wait until a primer can be produced before the DNA polymerase can begin? what are the short lengths of the new DNA that characterize called?
lagging strand okazaki fragments
94
What is significant about DNA polymerase activity in prokaryotic replication?
DNA polymerases add 1 base at a time to the free 3'end of the new strand of DNA and write from 5'-3'
95
which polymerase does most of the work in prokaryotes?
DPIII
96
what are the three important activities of DPI in prokaryotic replication ?
DNA polymerase reads and writes DNA 5'-3' exonuclease 3'-5' exonuclease
97
what is exonuclease activity?
it removes a base and the polymerase then adds a new base
98
what is the effect of exonucleases in prokaryotic replication?
exonucleases allow DPI to correct mistakes and remove primers to be replaced with appropriate DNA
99
this enzyme is known as the 'backspace' in prokaryotic replication?
3'-5' exonuclease
100
this enzyme is known as the 'typeover' in prokaryotic replication?
5'-3' exonuclease
101
what is the KLENOW fragment in prokaryotic replication?
like DPIII which has no 5'-3' exonuclease because it doesn't remove the primer, found in the lagging strand
102
this DNA polymerase type, found in prokaryotic replication, is part of DNA repair?
DPII, it lacks 5'-3' exonucleases and so there is proofreading between replications
103
t/f, all mitochondrial DNA is inherited from the mother? how can this be useful in clinical diagnosis?
T | we can use maternal lineage to track mitochondrial DNA
104
what are the different types of mutations that can occur in replication?
``` substitutions transition transversions deletions insertions chemical analogs chemical reactions interference UV ```
105
what are the significant differences from replication?
RNA is single stranded only a portion of DNA is transcribed at a given time transcription occurs throughout the cell cycle because transcription is used to direct protein synthesis regulation of transcription is complex
106
what are the three major forms of RNA present in the cytosol?
mRNA tRNA rRNA
107
this type of RNA is the most diverse and least abundant?
mRNA
108
this type of RNA is more abundant than mRNA and represents 15% of the cytosolic RNA. This is the shortest of the RNAs and is from 75-95 bases in length?
tRNA
109
this type of RNA is the most abundant and least diverse?
rRNA
110
in order to perform transcription, what will we need?
double stranded DNA ATP, GTP, CTP, UTP RNA polyermase signals to allow transcription to begin
111
is a primer required for transcription?
no primer is required
112
for transcription, what bond is formed when we add bases to the RNA strand?
phosphodiester bond (3'5') on the free 3' end of RNA
113
what direction does RNA polymerase read and write?
reads 3'-5' (DNA) | writes 5'-3' (RNA)
114
T/F, unlike the DNA polymerases, RNA polyermases have no exonuclease
T
115
why is there no exonuclease activity?
either because the RNA polymerase makes no mistakes or mistakes are not as critical for DNA remember that a mistake in DNA sequence is handed down to all generations to come while RNA has a short life span
116
what are the types of mutations that can result from a point mutation?
silent mutation missense mutation nonsense mutation
117
what is the wobble hypothesis?
the first and second bases primarily determine the AA which is encoded for and there is significant wobbling allowed for the third
118
T/F, errors in RNA are not nearly as bad as DNA errors because the faulty RNA can be replaced?
T
119
for prokaryotes, how many RNA polymerase are there and what does this make? what is it made of?
one rRNA, tRNA, mRNA 2 alpha units, 2 beta units, and 1 sigma unit.
120
what is significant of the sigma unit in RNA polymerase for prokaryotes?
the sigma unit is used to recognize where to initiate transcription (the promoter site on DNA) and drops off when transcription begins (leaving behind the core enzyme)
121
what are the 3 distinct group of RNA polymerase in eukaryotes?
RNA polymerase I (rRNA),II (mRNA),III (tRNA)
122
where is the RNA polymerase I located in Eukaryotes?
nucleolus, and so this contains multiple copies of the rRNA that have to be clipped out using RNAase III
123
what are the three main stages of transcription?
initiation elongation termination
124
this subunit of the RNA polymerase is used to recognize the promoter site and so initiate transcription?
sigma subunit
125
how many genes does a promoter site control in eukaryotes and prokaryotes?
1 gene in Eukaryotes | multiple genes in prokaryotes
126
gene+control DNA results in?
operon
127
what are some mechanisms affecting initiation?
``` promoter site -transcription factors operator site -repressor protein regulator site -upstream, downstream, TF ```
128
what is an example of a repressor removed by binding with an inducer?
steroid hormone
129
for transcription, do we use the sense or antisense strand when coding for the protein?
antisense strand
130
what is the end point of transcription?
it is signaled by the DNA code, the palindromic sequence which is a poly-A sequence. The palindromic sequence allows RNA to base pair with itself and not with the antisense strand, destabilizing it
131
this protein terminates transcription?
the rho protein which is an RNA dependent ATPase which hydrolyzes ATP and uses the released energy to tug the RNA off the antisense strand
132
T/F, there is not one strand of DNA which is the sense strand with the other being the antisense strand?
T
133
how do we yield the final mRNA code for a protein?
we remove portions of the hnRNA to yield the final product
134
what RNA polymerase makes hnRNA?
RNA polymerase II
135
in post transcriptional processing, as the 5' end of the RNA begins to emerge from RPII, what is added to that end?
a methylated G is added to the 5' end and protects the hnRNA from rapid digestion and also is important for initiating protein synthesis
136
these enzymes clip out introns and splice exons?
snRNPs
137
what portion of the tRNA is the site of attachment of the specific amino acid?
3' end
138
this part of the tRNA base pairs with the codon and is called this too?
anticodon | "decoder"
139
why is the DNA code said to be degenerate?
because 1 codon codes for only 1 amino acid, but 1 amino acid can have several different codons
140
so we know that the bacterial cell has 20,000 ribosomes, which make up 25% of the cell mass, what does this mean?
it indicates that protein synthesis is very active and important (adapting to new conditions)
141
in order for translation to occur, where must the ribosome assemble?
it assembles near the 5' end of the mRNA
142
T/F, multiple ribosomes can be active on one strand of mRNA simultaneously and this called what?
T | polysome
143
what is the term used for the code for several proteins on mRNA translated by prokaryotes?
polycistronic
144
translation begins with what codon? to the left of this is what sequence?
AUG | shine delgarno sequence
145
the S-D sequence can base pair with a portion of which part of the rRNA?
16s, small subunit of the ribosome
146
what are the three initiation factors bound to the 30s subunit promoting its attachment to mRNA for prokaryotes? how many eukaryotic initiation factors are there?
IFI IFII IFIII 9
147
which of the initiation factors (IF, eIF) is important for recognition of AUG by initiator tRNA?
IF2 or eIF2
148
what amino acid does the initiator tRNA bind with in eukaryotes? prokaryotes? (for the prokaryotes, what enzyme carries out this reaction?
methionine formylmethionine by transformylase
149
what is the effect of the binding of met-tRNA?
release of IF1, IF2. IF3 hydrolysis of GTP attachment of the large (50s) subunit
150
what site does the initiator tRNA project?
the P site
151
what is the third site to the left of the P site?
E site
152
this type of enzyme in prokaryotic translation breaks up the 3' bond to the amino acid on the aminoacyl tRNA at the _____ site and forms a peptide bond between the freed amino acid and the AA of the aminoacyl tRNA at the A site?
peptidyl transferase
153
this enzyme in prokaryotic translation prompts hydrolysis of GTP to GDP+Pi and the energy is used to slide the ribosome 3 nucleotides in the 3' direction? another name for this in eukaryotes and prokaryotes
translocase EF-G in prokaryotes eEF2 in eukaryotes
154
how much ATP is required per amino acid added?
4 ATP 2 ATP to attach AA to tRNA 1 GTP for EF-Tu 1 GTP for EF-G note how GTP is a prime energy donor
155
what are the three stop codons and what signifies the end of elongate for translation?
UAA UGA UAG when the anyone of the stop codons reaches the A site
156
how many prokaryotic releasing factors are there? what is the effect?
3 RFs, RF-1, RF-2 and a third RF-3 which binds to GTP and stimulates RF-1 and RF-2 the activated releasing factors cause the polypeptide to be released from the P site but not allowed to attach at the A site
157
each nucleated cell type in our body contains what kind of a set for the genetic code?
complete set
158
cells that selectively express some genes and not others result in what effect on the tissues of the body?
differentiation
159
differentiation results from the expression of what type of proteins in each cell?
unique proteins
160
T/F, we can get very different cells from very small variations in gene expression and regulation of which proteins are expressed determines differentiation?
T
161
in terms of regulating transcription, what are steroid receptors?
GRPs
162
how many unique cell types can be produced from the combination of 25 GRPs?
10,000 unique cell types
163
what are the gene regulatory proteins called? how?
master gene regulatory proteins (MGRPs) controlling the expression of certain genes whose combinations result in cell types
164
how does gene regulation respond to changes in environment? how does protein kinase affect gene expression?
`some GRPs are bound to DNA but are only activated when they are phosphorylated protein kinase can alter gene expression in some cases
165
how can we prevent early termination? )what must bind)
A regulatory protein must bind and stabilize the hnRNA to prevent the early palindrome from forming the loop
166
what happen in the absence of the stabilizing protein?
mRNA will not be produced
167
what is the average length of hnRNA? how much is made?
10 times longer than the mRNA produced from it, yet 1/20 is made
168
where is untransported mRNA catabolized?
nucleus
169
in translation, these proteins bind to mRNA and block translation? name an example too what is the name of the proteins which promote translation of some mRNAs?
translation repressor protein (TRP); ferritin translation enhancer proteins
170
shorter half life mRNAs encode for what?
regulatory proteins
171
how can mRNA stability be changed or regulated by signals?
these signals regulate the extent of response at the level of mRNA degradation, ie steroid signals increase transcription and inhibit mRNA catabolism to increase duration and effect of hormone