The Newborn

Question 1

What does the acronym APGAR stand for?

Answer 1

Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, Respiration

Question 2

True or False: The APGAR score is assessed at one and five minutes after birth.

Answer 2

True

Question 3

Fill in the blank: The APGAR score ranges from ___ to ___.

Answer 3

0 to 10

Question 4

What is the purpose of the APGAR scoring system?

Answer 4

To quickly assess the health of a newborn immediately after birth.

Question 5

Which APGAR category assesses the baby’s color?

Answer 5

Appearance

Question 7

What is Neonatal Respiratory Distress Syndrome (NRDS)?

Answer 7

NRDS is a condition in newborns characterized by breathing difficulties due to insufficient surfactant in the lungs.

Question 8

True or False: NRDS is most commonly seen in full-term infants.

Answer 8

False. NRDS is most commonly seen in preterm infants.

Question 9

Fill in the blank: The primary cause of NRDS is __________.

Answer 9

surfactant deficiency.

Question 10

What are the common symptoms of NRDS?

Answer 10

Common symptoms include rapid breathing, grunting, flaring of the nostrils, and cyanosis.

Question 11

Which diagnostic test is typically used to confirm NRDS?

Answer 11

Chest X-ray is typically used to confirm NRDS.

Question 12

Multiple Choice: Which of the following factors increases the risk of NRDS? A) Maternal diabetes B) Prematurity C) Cesarean delivery without labor D) All of the above

Answer 12

D) All of the above.

Question 13

What is the primary treatment for NRDS?

Answer 13

The primary treatment for NRDS is the administration of exogenous surfactant.

Question 14

True or False: NRDS can lead to long-term respiratory issues in infants.

Answer 14

True.

Question 15

What role does oxygen therapy play in the management of NRDS?

Answer 15

Oxygen therapy is used to maintain adequate oxygen saturation in infants with NRDS.

Question 16

What is the typical gestational age of infants most affected by NRDS?

Answer 16

Infants born before 34 weeks of gestation are most affected by NRDS.

Question 17

What is transient tachypnea of the newborn (TTN)?

Answer 17

TTN is a respiratory condition characterized by rapid breathing in newborns, typically occurring within the first few hours after birth.

Question 18

True or False: Transient tachypnea of the newborn is usually a serious condition requiring immediate intervention.

Answer 18

False. TTN is generally self-limiting and resolves within 72 hours without aggressive treatment.

Question 19

Fill in the blank: The primary cause of TTN is _______.

Answer 19

delayed clearance of fetal lung fluid.

Question 20

What are common risk factors associated with TTN?

Answer 20

Common risk factors include cesarean delivery, maternal diabetes, and preterm birth.

Question 21

Multiple Choice: Which of the following is a typical clinical finding in a newborn with TTN? A) Cyanosis B) Grunting C) Mild respiratory distress D) All of the above

Answer 21

C) Mild respiratory distress

Question 23

What is Meconium Aspiration Syndrome (MAS)?

Answer 23

Meconium Aspiration Syndrome is a condition that occurs when a newborn inhales a mixture of meconium and amniotic fluid into the lungs during or before delivery.

Question 24

True or False: Meconium aspiration only occurs in full-term infants.

Answer 24

False: Meconium aspiration can occur in both term and preterm infants.

Question 25

What are the main risk factors for developing Meconium Aspiration Syndrome?

Answer 25

The main risk factors include post-term pregnancy, fetal distress, and a history of meconium-stained amniotic fluid.

Question 26

Fill in the blank: The primary clinical manifestation of MAS is _______.

Answer 26

respiratory distress.

Question 27

What is the recommended initial management for a newborn diagnosed with Meconium Aspiration Syndrome?

Answer 27

Initial management includes ensuring clear airways, providing supplemental oxygen, and potentially administering mechanical ventilation if respiratory distress is severe.

Question 29

What is the primary physiological cause of neonatal jaundice?

Answer 29

The primary physiological cause of neonatal jaundice is the immature liver's inability to process bilirubin effectively.

Question 30

True or False: All newborns will experience some degree of jaundice.

Answer 30

True

Question 31

What is the normal range for bilirubin levels in newborns before jaundice is considered?

Answer 31

Bilirubin levels below 5 mg/dL are typically considered normal in newborns.

Question 32

Fill in the blank: The condition in which bilirubin accumulates in the blood is known as __________.

Answer 32

hyperbilirubinemia

Question 33

Which type of bilirubin is primarily elevated in hemolytic jaundice?

Answer 33

Unconjugated bilirubin

Question 34

What are the common risk factors for developing significant neonatal jaundice?

Answer 34

Common risk factors include prematurity, breastfeeding difficulties, and Rh or ABO incompatibility.

Question 35

Multiple Choice: Which of the following tests is essential to differentiate the cause of jaundice in neonates? A) Complete Blood Count B) Liver Function Tests C) Blood Type and Coombs Test D) All of the above

Answer 35

D) All of the above

Question 36

What is the significance of the Coombs test in the workup of neonatal jaundice?

Answer 36

The Coombs test helps determine if hemolytic disease due to blood type incompatibility is the cause of jaundice.

Question 37

True or False: Phototherapy is a common treatment for severe neonatal jaundice.

Answer 37

True

Question 38

What is the threshold bilirubin level for initiating phototherapy in term infants?

Answer 38

Phototherapy is typically initiated when bilirubin levels exceed 15 mg/dL in term infants.

Question 39

What does the acronym TORCH stand for?

Answer 39

Toxoplasmosis, Other, Rubella, Cytomegalovirus, and Herpes simplex virus.

Question 40

True or False: TORCH infections can cause congenital defects.

Answer 40

True.

Question 41

Which TORCH infection is associated with cat litter exposure?

Answer 41

Toxoplasmosis.

Question 42

Fill in the blank: The 'O' in TORCH refers to _____.

Answer 42

Other infections, which typically include syphilis, varicella-zoster virus, and others.

Question 43

What is a common clinical feature of congenital rubella syndrome?

Answer 43

Congenital heart defects.

Question 44

Multiple choice: Which of the following is NOT a TORCH infection? A) Syphilis B) Toxoplasmosis C) Influenza D) Cytomegalovirus

Answer 44

C) Influenza.

Question 45

What is the primary mode of transmission for cytomegalovirus (CMV) during pregnancy?

Answer 45

Transplacental transmission.

Question 46

True or False: Herpes simplex virus can be transmitted during delivery.

Answer 46

True.

Question 47

What is the most common neurological complication associated with congenital toxoplasmosis?

Answer 47

Chorioretinitis.

Question 48

Fill in the blank: The TORCH infections are most critical during the _____ trimester of pregnancy.

Answer 48

First.

Question 49

What laboratory test is commonly used to diagnose rubella immunity in pregnant women?

Answer 49

Rubella IgG serology.

Question 50

Multiple choice: Which of the following is a potential consequence of untreated syphilis in pregnancy? A) Preterm birth B) Low birth weight C) Stillbirth D) All of the above

Answer 50

D) All of the above.

Question 51

Short answer: What is a key clinical feature of congenital herpes simplex infection?

Answer 51

Skin lesions or vesicular rash.

Question 52

True or False: All TORCH infections can be detected through routine prenatal screening.

Answer 52

False.

Question 53

What is the recommended preventive measure for rubella during pregnancy?

Answer 53

Vaccination prior to pregnancy.

Question 54

What does the acronym TORCH stand for?

Answer 54

Toxoplasmosis, Other, Rubella, Cytomegalovirus, and Herpes simplex virus.

Question 55

True or False: TORCH infections are primarily associated with congenital disorders.

Answer 55

True

Question 56

Which laboratory test is commonly used to diagnose Toxoplasmosis?

Answer 56

Serological testing for IgM and IgG antibodies.

Question 57

Fill in the blank: Rubella infection during pregnancy can lead to ___ defects.

Answer 57

Congenital

Question 58

What is the recommended treatment for congenital Cytomegalovirus infection?

Answer 58

Ganciclovir or Valganciclovir.

Question 59

Which TORCH infection is known for causing microcephaly in newborns?

Answer 59

Zika virus (part of 'Other').

Question 60

What is the primary prevention method for TORCH infections during pregnancy?

Answer 60

Vaccination and avoiding exposure to infectious agents.

Question 61

True or False: Herpes simplex virus can be transmitted during delivery.

Answer 61

True

Question 62

List two common symptoms of congenital Toxoplasmosis.

Answer 62

Chorioretinitis and hydrocephalus.

Question 63

What is the most effective way to diagnose a rubella infection in pregnant women?

Answer 63

Serological testing for rubella-specific IgM antibodies.

Question 64

Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT a TORCH infection? A) Toxoplasmosis B) Syphilis C) Herpes simplex D) Cytomegalovirus

Answer 64

B) Syphilis

Question 65

What is the treatment for a pregnant woman with an active Herpes simplex virus infection?

Answer 65

Acyclovir.

Question 66

True or False: TORCH infections can be asymptomatic in the mother but still affect the fetus.

Answer 66

True

Question 67

Fill in the blank: The 'Other' category in TORCH includes infections such as ___.

Answer 67

Syphilis and HIV.

Question 68

Anesthetics effect on baby

Answer 68

Respiratory and CNS depression

Question 69

What effect do barbiturates have on a baby?

Answer 69

Respiratory and CNS depression

Question 70

What effect does magnesium sulfate have on the baby?

Answer 70

Respiratory depression

Question 71

What effect does phenobarbital have on the baby?

Answer 71

Vitamin K deficiency

Question 72

What effect do sulfonamides have on the baby?

Answer 72

Displaces bilirubin from albumin

Question 73

What effect do NSAIDS have on the baby?

Answer 73

Premature closure of ductus arteriosis

Question 74

What effect do ACE inhibtors have on the baby?

Answer 74

Craniofacial abnormalities

Question 75

What effect does isoretinoin have on the baby?

Answer 75

Facial and ear abnormalities

Question 76

What effect does phenytoin have on the baby?

Answer 76

Hypoplastic nails, typical facies, IUGR

Question 77

What effect does Diethylstilbestrol have on the baby?

Answer 77

Vaginal adenocarcinoma

Question 78

What effect does tetracycline have on the baby?

Answer 78

Enamel hypoplasia and discolored teeth

Question 79

What effect does lithium have on the baby?

Answer 79

Ebstein anomaly: downward displacement of the tricuspid valve on the RV

Question 80

What effect does warfarin have on the baby?

Answer 80

FAcial dysmorphism and chondroplasia

Question 81

What effect does valproate/carbemazepine have on the baby?

Answer 81

Intellectual disasbility, neural tube defects

Question 83

What is Trisomy 13 also known as?

Answer 83

Patau syndrome

Question 84

What is the primary chromosomal abnormality in Trisomy 18?

Answer 84

An extra copy of chromosome 18

Question 85

True or False: Trisomy 13 is associated with a high mortality rate in the first year of life.

Answer 85

True

Question 86

Which of the following is a common physical finding in infants with Trisomy 18? (A) Cleft lip, (B) Heart defects, (C) Polydactyly

Answer 86

B) Heart defects

Question 87

Fill in the blank: Trisomy 13 is characterized by severe ___________ and multiple organ anomalies.

Answer 87

intellectual disability

Question 88

What are two common physical findings in Trisomy 13?

Answer 88

Cleft lip/palate and postaxial polydactyly

Question 89

True or False: Most children with Trisomy 18 survive into their teenage years.

Answer 89

False

Question 90

What is a key feature of physical examination in infants with Trisomy 18?

Answer 90

Low birth weight and growth deficiency

Question 91

Which syndrome is associated with the presence of a single palmar crease?

Answer 91

Trisomy 18

Question 92

What is the average life expectancy for infants with Trisomy 13?

Answer 92

Less than one year

Question 93

What is Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome characterized by?

Answer 93

Overgrowth, abdominal wall defects, macroglossia, and increased risk of tumors.

Question 94

True or False: Prader-Willi syndrome is caused by a deletion of paternal chromosome 15.

Answer 94

True

Question 95

Fill in the blank: Angelman syndrome is primarily caused by a deletion or mutation of the _____ gene on chromosome 15.

Answer 95

UBE3A

Question 96

Which syndrome is associated with obesity, hypogonadism, and developmental delays?

Answer 96

Prader-Willi syndrome

Question 97

What chromosomal change is commonly associated with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome?

Answer 97

Imprinting errors on chromosome 11p15.

Question 98

Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT a typical feature of Angelman syndrome? A) Happy demeanor B) Severe speech impairment C) Macroglossia

Answer 98

C) Macroglossia

Question 99

True or False: Individuals with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome have a normal risk of tumors.

Answer 99

False

Question 100

What is the primary genetic cause of Prader-Willi syndrome?

Answer 100

Deletion of the paternal 15q11-q13 region or maternal uniparental disomy.

Question 101

Fill in the blank: Individuals with Angelman syndrome often exhibit _____ seizures.

Answer 101

Epileptic

Question 102

What is the inheritance pattern associated with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome?

Answer 102

It is associated with genomic imprinting and can be inherited in an autosomal dominant manner.

Question 103

At what age should a child typically begin to walk independently?

Answer 103

Around 12 months.

Question 104

True or False: A 2-year-old child should be able to speak in simple sentences.

Answer 104

True.

Question 105

Fill in the blank: By age 6 months, infants should be able to _____ at faces.

Answer 105

Smile.

Question 106

Which milestone is typically expected by 3 years of age? A) Riding a bicycle B) Using a fork C) Jumping on one foot

Answer 106

B) Using a fork.

Question 107

What is the expected number of words a 2-year-old should be able to say?

Answer 107

At least 50 words.

Question 108

At what age do most children start to show interest in potty training?

Answer 108

Around 2 to 3 years.

Question 109

True or False: A child should be able to say their first word by 12 months.

Answer 109

True.

Question 110

What fine motor skill is typically developed by age 4?

Answer 110

Drawing a circle.

Question 111

By what age do most children begin to understand the concept of sharing?

Answer 111

Around 3 years.

Question 112

At what age should a child be able to hop on one foot for a few seconds?

Answer 112

Around 4 years.