Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

NR > Tiltrotor Instruments > Flashcards

Tiltrotor Instruments Flashcards

1
Q

Actual Instrument Approach

A

When actual instrument conditions are encountered below 1,000 ft above the airport/flight deck elevation during an instrument approach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

For a standard instrument rating, what must have occurred within the 6 months preceding the instrument evaluation

A
  1. 6 hours in actual or simulated IMC2. 12 instrument approaches under actual or simulated IMC, of which 6 must be precision and 6 must be non-precision
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

For a standard instrument rating, what must have occurred within the 12 months preceding the instrument evaluation

A
  1. 12 hours in actual or simulated IMC2. 18 instrument approaches under actual or simulated IMC, of which 12 must be precision and 6 must be non-precision
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Approved flight simulators may be used to meet ___ of the minimum instrument rating requirements

A

half

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Requirements for special instrument rating

A
  1. 5 years of military and non-military flying experience2. 2,000 hours military/civil time as commercial pilot or ATP3. 100 hours of military actual instrument time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Requirements for special instrument rating for pilots who display exceptional judgment and proficiency in instrument flying

A
  1. 3 years of military/civil flying experience2. 1,500 hours pilot/co-pilot time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Pilot time minimum hours for pilots with less than 20 years aviation service (annually and semi-annually)

A

Semi-annual: 40 hoursAnnual: 100 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Night Pilot time minimum hours for pilots with less than 20 years aviation service (annually and semi-annually)

A

Semi-annual: 6 hoursAnnual: 12 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

For annual and semi-annual minimum flight hour requirements how much must be First Pilot

A

50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Pilot time minimum hours for pilots with more than 20 years aviation service (annually and semi-annually)

A

Semi-annual: 24 hoursAnnual: 48 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Night and Instrument Pilot time minimum hours for pilots with more than 20 years aviation service (annually and semi-annually)

A

Semi-annual: 3Annual: 6Fiscal year requirements do not reduce minimum hours between instrument checks as per NATOPS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Instrument renewal can occur how many days before expiration and is valid for how long?

A

Can be accomplished 60 days preceding expiration of current evaluation and is valid for 12 months from the last day of the month in which the current evaluation expires, or 12 months from the last day of the month that the evaluation is flown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What regions are covered in AP/1, AP/1A

A

North and South America

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What regions are covered in AP/2, AP/2A

A

Europe, Africa, and Middle East

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What regions are covered in AP/3, AP/3A

A

Pacific, Australia, and Antactica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What regions are covered in AP/4, AP/4A

A

Eastern Europe and Asia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What do AP/1-4 contain

A

Theatre, regional, and national procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What do AP/1A-4A contain

A

Data on special use airspace within the region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

AP1/B

A

Information on Military Training Routes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When shall position lights be on

A

30 minutes before sunset to 30 minutes after sunrise, or if the prevailing visibility is less than 3 statute miles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When shall anti-collision lights be on

A

anytime the engine is running, except when they adversely affect ground operations, or during flight in the clouds when they reflect into the cockpit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Lighting for formation flights in restricted areas

A

Up to 4 aircraft can fly on NVDs with lead through dash three’s navigation and anti-collision lights off, with the last aircraft having these lights on

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Fuel consumption for fuel requirements shall be based on ___

A

Maximum endurance operation at 10,000ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Fuel Requirements Alternate Not Required

A

Fuel to fly to destination plus 10% of planned fuel requirements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Fuel Requirements Alternate Required
Fuel to fly to fix serving destination approach, then to alternate airfield plus 10% of planned fuel requirements
26
Minimum planned fuel reserve upon landing at destination or alternate
Minimum of that needed for 20 hours of flight
27
When is an alternate airfield required
When weather at destination is forecast to be less than 3000/3 at ETA +/-1 hour
28
Weather required at the alternate if weather at destination is 0-0
3000/3 or better
29
Weather required at alternate if weather at destination meets published minimums for an instrument approach
Non-Precision: Published minimums plus 300-1Precision: Published minimums plus 200-1/2
30
When can you fly through a WW
1. Storm has not progressed as forecast2. If VMC can be maintained3. Aircraft has operative radar and can detect and avoid isolated thunderstorms4. Aircraft performance allows flight above the storm
31
Purpose of Pilot Metro Service (PMSV)
To communicate weather to pilots To update the DD-175-1 Flight Weather BriefingTo receive PIREPS
32
EFAS (Enroute Flight Advisory Service) Flight Watch Frequencies
122.0 below 17,500ftDiscrete frequencies between 18,000 and 45,000ft
33
WST
Convective SIGMET
34
What conditions warrant a WST
Implies severe turbulence or icing, and/or low level windshearThunderstorms generating winds greater than 50 kts, hail larger than 3/4", or tornados
35
WS
Non-Convective SIGMET
36
What conditions warrant a WS
Turbulence or icing not associated with thunderstormsDust or Volcanic eruption that reduces visibility to below 3 mi
37
WA
AIRMET
38
What conditions warrant a WA
Moderate icing or turbulenceWinds 30 kts or lessLess than 1000/3
39
How often are WAs issued
Scheduled every 6 hours
40
Takeoff minimums for a pilot with a Standard Instrument Rating
1. Must have the published minimums for the available Non-Precision Approach but not less than 300/12. If precision approach is available then can takeoff with less than 300/1 if weather is at least equal to precision approach minimums, but not less than 200-1/2
41
When can turn be made after an IFR departure
400ft unless specifically required by departure procedure by terms "immediate" or "as soon as practical"
42
Climb rate required for IFR departure
minimum of 200ft/nm
43
Trouble T
Identifies airports with obstacles or other than standard takeoff minimums
44
When does a Trouble T apply to a SID
When the SID does not have a published climb gradient
45
When does the controller assume responsibility for obstacle clearance
Not until he starts giving radar vectors.Departure instructions issued prior to takeoff do not constitute radar vectors
46
MOCA
Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude:1. Lowest altitude that meets obstacle clearance requirements for the entire route segment
47
Navigational signal coverage of a MOCA
Only guarantees coverage within 22 nm of VORTAC or VOR
48
Communication signal coverage of a MOCA
Does not guarantee communications coverage
49
MEA
Minimum Enroute Altitude:Lowest altitude between radio fixes which assures navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements
50
When should you advise ATC of a change in airspeed
Change of 5% or 10kts (whichever is greater) from the filed flight plan
51
Leave clearance limit when the clearance limit is a fix from which an approach begins
Begin descent at EFC time or at the expected time of arrival as calculated from the filed ETE if no EFC is given
52
Leave clearance limit when the clearance limit is not a fix from which an approach begins
Leave the clearance limit at EFC time or upon arrival over the clearance limit and proceed to the fix from which an approach begins and commence descent at the ETA as calculated in the filed flight plan if no EFC is given
53
When should you initiate lost communications procedures on a radar approach
If no transmissions are heard for:1 minute while being vectored15 seconds on ASR final5 seconds on PAR final
54
Minimum fuel
Fuel state is such that you can accept no undue delay. It is not an emergency but an undue delay may result in an emergency
55
When should you declare emergency fuel
When you need traffic priority to ensure safe landing. State fuel remaining in minutes
56
Minimum equipment required for IFR operation in Class B Airspace
VOR or TACAN Receiver
57
Class E Airspace for Federal Airways
Extends from 1,200ft up to but not including 18,000ft
58
Restricted Areas
Flight is not wholly prohibited but is subject to restrictions due to unusual, often invisible hazards. Should get authorization from controlling agency before entering.
59
Warning Areas
Airspace from 3nm outward from the coast of the US which contains activity that may be hazardous to non-participating aircraft. Purpose is to warn non-participating aircraft of potential danger.
60
Who should you contact to receive information about operations within a MOA
Any FSS within 100 miles of the MOA
61
Alert Area
Purpose is to warn nonparticipating aircraft of an area that contains high volume of pilot training or unusual aerial activity
62
When a controller gives a speed to be maintained it must be maintained within ___
10 kts
63
Holding pattern maximum outbound timing (when the pattern is based on timing)
1 minute below 14,000ft1.5 minutes above 14,000 ft
64
When does outbound timing for a holding pattern begin
When abeam the holding fixIf the fix cannot be determined, when wings are level outbound
65
Maximum holding airspeed at Navy Airfields
230 KIAS
66
When should airspeed be reduced to holding airspeed
Within 3 minutes of reaching the holding fix
67
Maximum holding airspeed at 6,000ft and below
200 KIAS
68
Maximum holding airspeed from 6,001ft to 14,000ft
230 KIAS
69
Maximum holding airspeed above 14,000ft
265 KIAS
70
TWEB
Transcribed Weather Broadcast - On selected NAVAIDS and/or VORs. Identified within a white T in a black circle at the VOR facility
71
HIWAS
Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory - Broadcast over selected NAVAIDs as necessary with SIGMETs, Convective SIGMETs, AIRMETs, Center Weather Advisories
72
Restriction for Instrument Approaches by Aircraft in Formation
Instrument approaches with or without the intent to land in IMC by formations of more than 2 aircraft are not authorized. Formation flights shall not commence an instrument approach when weather is less than circling minimums.
73
Weather minimums for a formation flight if circling approach is not authorized
1000/3
74
What does "Established on a Segment" of an instrument approach mean?
Within one-half full scale deflection of ILS or VOR and +/-5 degrees of NDB bearing
75
Minimum approach visibility minimum for helicopter and tiltrotor aircraft
May reduce visibility minimum to one-half the visibility minimum for CAT A aircraft, but in no case can it be lower than 1/4 sm or 1,200 RVR (Except for COPTER approaches)
76
Where is obstruction clearance provided on VASI
Within +/-10 degrees of centerline out to 4 nm from the threshold
77
PAPI Indications
3 white: 0.2 degrees above glidepath4 white: 0.5 degrees above glidepath3 red: 0.2 degrees below glidepath4 red: 0.5 degrees below glidepath
78
Runway edge lighting colors
WhiteAmber for last 2,000ft or half of the runway whichever is less
79
Runway centerline lighting colors
WhiteAlternate red and white from last 3,000ft to last 1,000ftRed for the last 1,000ft
80
How long will lights remain on when using pilot controlled lighting
15 minutes after most recent activation
81
Approach Category A
below 91 knots
82
Approach Category B
91 to 121 knots
83
Approach Category C
121 to 141 knots
84
Approach Category D
141 to 166 knots
85
Approach Category E
above 166 knots
86
During missed approach, delay turns until ___
Above 400ft AGL and past the departure end of the runway (if visibility permits)
87
What altitude should be flown if a mountain wave is unavoidable
At least 50% higher than the height of the mountain that is causing the wave
88
At what temperatures is structural icing possible
Between 0 and -40 degrees C, but most icing occurs between 0 and -17 degrees
89
What is the most serious form of icing
Clear, because it adheres so firmly to the aircraft
90
Temperature range where clear ice is most likely to form
between 0 and -8 degrees C
91
Temperature range where rime ice is most likely to form
between 0 and -15 degrees C
92
What engine indications are should make you suspect engine icing
Rise in EGT with a drop in RPM
93
Conditions that are clues that wind shear may exist in a thunderstorm
Temperature change of 10 degrees F or more across a frontFront that is moving 30 kts or more

NR (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions