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Y2 MSK > Trauma > Flashcards

Trauma Flashcards

(78 cards)

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1
Q

when is an open reduction of a dislocation indicated

A

if soft tissue in way or late presentation

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2
Q

what is necessary following a closed joint reduction

A

assess neurovascular status and XR to confirm reduction

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3
Q

what are the common causes of joint replacements failing

A

loosening in high inflam/stress or pseduotumour

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4
Q

what is the infection risk in joint replacements

A

1-2%

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5
Q

what is the management of fulminant infection of a joint replacement diagnosed <3wk after surgery

A

washout & debride, 6wk IV ABx, salvage

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6
Q

what process is occurring in fulminant infections of joint replacements diagnosed >3wk after surgery

A

biofilm

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7
Q

what is the management of fulminant infection of a joint replacement diagnosed >3wk after surgery

A

no joint 6wk + ABx, revision;

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8
Q

what is a resection arthroplasty

A

bone/cartilage removal on 1/both joint sides

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9
Q

give an example of a resection arthroplasty and when its indicated

A

Keller’s procedure; hallux valgus

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10
Q

what is arthrodesis

A

artificial induction of joint ossification between 2 bones

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11
Q

give an example of an indication of osteotomy

A

redistributing load for knee OA in a young patient

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12
Q

what are the 3 grades of ligament rupture

A

1 sprain
2 partial tear
3 complete tear

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13
Q

what is the management of a sprain

A

RICE, early ROM

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14
Q

what cancers commonly metastasise to bone

A

lung, kidney, breast, prostate

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15
Q

give examples of surgeries which use primary bone healing

A

plate/screws

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16
Q

give examples of surgeries which use secondary bone healing

A

ex-fix

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17
Q

what is the management of intra-articular fractures and why

A

IM nail since > post traumatic OA risk

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18
Q

what is enthesopathy

A

tendon origin or the insertion into bone inflam

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19
Q

what is tenosynovitis

A

tendon sheath inflam

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20
Q

what is tendonitis

A

tendon inflam

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21
Q

what is tendinopathy

A

disease of a tendon

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22
Q

what is tendonosis

A

chronic tendon injury & tendon ECM damage

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23
Q

what is a sprain

A

some ligament/tendon fibres tear on rapid resisted contraction

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24
Q

what is the management of an achilles tear

A

conservative

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25
what is the management of a patellar or quadriceps tendon tear
surgical repair
26
what is the management of a meniscal tear
arthroscopic removal if pain doesn’t settle or if locking/catching
27
what is the management of a rotator cuff tear
conservative
28
what is the management of a acetabulum/glenoid tear
resect or repair
29
what is the management of a biceps tendon tear
conservative
30
what is the management of a tibialis posterior tear
tendon transfer
31
what is the management of extensor pollicis longus tendon tear
tendon transfer
32
what technique can be used for limb length discrepancies
external fixation
33
what drugs should be given for open fractures
anti-tetanus thing and prophylactic antibiotics
34
what terms are used to describe the alignment of a fracture
displaced and angulated
35
how do you describe displacement of a fracture
according to distal fragment
36
what a tomogram
ct
37
which suspected fractures require ct
vertebrae, pelvis, calcaneus, glenoid
38
what suspected fractures require mri
hip and scaphoid
39
what suspected fractures requires more than 2 xr views
cervical spine: AP, lateral, odontoid peg | scaphoid: AP, lateral, oblique X2
40
what part of long bones can be a fracture mimic
physis
41
management of diaphyseal fracture
immobilize above & below joint
42
management of metaphyseal fracture
immobilize adjacent joint
43
what kills you in the golden hour after major trauma
airway compromise, head/chest injury, organ rupture, blood loss
44
what are the early local fracture complications
compartment synd, vascular injury, ischaemia, nerve injury, skin necrosis
45
what are the early systemic fracture complications
hypovolaemia, fat embolism, ARDS, SIRS, MODS, acute renal failure, death
46
what are the late local fracture complications
LOF, OA, nonunion, CRPS, AVN, Volkmann’s ischaemic contracture, malunion, infection, DVT
47
what are the late systemic fracture complications
PE
48
management of DVT
LMWH
49
what age are avulsion fractures commonest
children
50
what is an avulsion fracture
tendon/ligament rips off fragment
51
what are avulsion fracture mimics
accessory ossification, completely corticated bone sesamoid, old non-united #
52
what is a transverse fracture
horizontal through long bone
53
injury mechanism causing spiral fractures
torsion/rotation
54
management of spiral fracture
screw
55
injury mechanism of oblique fractures
fall from height/deceleration
56
management of oblique fracture
screw
57
what is a comminuted fracture
3+ fragments
58
what is the mechanism of comminuted fractures
high energy or poor bone
59
risk in comminuted fractures
compartment synd
60
management of comminuted fractures
IM nail
61
what is a segmental fracture
2 separate fractures of one bone
62
management of segmental fracture
stabilisation by long rod/plate
63
what is an impaction fracture
fragment driven in another
64
give 4 examples of bony rigns
spinal canal, pelvis, forearm, leg
65
what is a greenstick fracture
incomplete # of children's softer bone, opposite cortex ruptured
66
what is the management of a greenstick fracture
POP
67
what is a buckle fracture
bend of child's soft bone, opposite cortex intact
68
what is the management of a buckle fracture
3wk splint
69
what is another name for a buckle fracture
torus fracture
70
what bone are buckle fractures often of
radius
71
what is a salter harris fracture and what age do they occur
epiphyseal growth plate, children
72
what is a type I salter harris fracture
complete physeal #+- displacement
73
what is a type II salter harris fracture
physeal# though metaphysis, producing metaphysis chip
74
what is a type III salter harris fracture
physeal# though epiphysis
75
what is a type IV salter harris fracture
physeal+ epiphyseal+ metaphyseal
76
what is a type V salter harris fracture
growth plate compression#
77
what is the commonest salter harris fracture
II
78
which salter harris fractures are intra-articular
III and IV

Y2 MSK (20 decks)

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