Unit 3 Case 2: GIT infection Flashcards

1
Q

what is crohns

A

type of inflammatory bowel disease
most commonly occurs in small intestine and colon, can affect part of GIT from mouth to the anus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

symptoms of crohns

A

diarrhoea
abdominal cramps
blood in stool
fissures in the lining of the anus
stricture
fistula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

fistula

A

caused by inflammation
abnormal channel formed between one part of intestine or another
may be between intestine and vagina or bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

tests used to help diagnose crohns

A

bloods
stool
endoscopy
colonoscopy
CT and MRIs
tissue scan or biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

classifications of drugs that can be used for crohns

A

anti-inflammatory
immunosuppressors
pain relievers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

anti-inflammatory drugs in crohns

A

corticosteroids such as prednisolone and budesonide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

immunosuppressors in crohns

A

azathiopurine
mercaptopurine
methotrexate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

other medications used in crohns treatment

A

acetaminophen- pain reliever
anti diarrhoeals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

other treatments of crohns

A

nutrition therapy
surgery in more severe cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

amoeba

A

single-celled eukaryotic organism that changes its shape
moves by pseudopodia
found in water, soil and damp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

pseudopodia

A

temporary projections of the cell
engulf bacteria and other particles as food by phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

amoebiasis

A

GI infections that develops when entamoeba histolytica enters intestines
parasite lays eggs that develop into mature cysts and leave through stool
infection is transmitted when you eat or drink something the parasite has contaminated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

symptoms of amoebiasis

A

cramping
diarrhoea
nausea
fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

parasite

A

organism that lives on/in host organism and gets food from expense of its host
3 main classes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

3 main classes of parasites

A

protozoa
helminths
ectoparasites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

protozoa

A

unicellular
live and multiply inside of your body
transmits through faecal oral route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

helminths

A

multicellular
live in and outside of your body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

ectoparasites

A

multicellular
ticks fleas lice mites that live and feed off your skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

parasitic infections

A

spread via contaminated food water soil blood equal contact and insect vectors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

6 strains of E coli known to cause diarrhoea

A

shiga toxin producing E coli/verocytotoxin producing e coli/ Enterhohemorrhagic e coli
enteropathogenic e coli
enteroaggressive e coli
enteroinvasive e coli
diffusely adherent e coli
enterotoxigenic E. coli

STEC ETEC EAEC VTEC EHEC EIEC EPIC DAEC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

STEC VTEC EHEC

A

severe food borne disease
severe diarrhoea, stomach cramps, vomiting
can lead to haemolytic ureic syndrome that can cause kidney damage/failre
toxins in intestines from STEC travel into bloodstream and destroy RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

EPEC

A

adheres to intestinal epithelial cells
causes diarrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

EAEC

A

adheres to small and large intestinal epithelia
causes acute and chronic diarrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

EIEC

A

invades colonic epithelial cells
lyses phagosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
DAEC
defined by a pattern of diffuse adherence where bacteria covers entire cell surface
26
ETEC
prodcue special toxnis which stimulate the lining of the intestines causing them to secrete excess fluid therefore diarrhoea produces heat stable and heat liable toxins causes diarrhoea, abdominal cramping, fever, nausea
27
microbiological testing of E.coli
cultures of samples of urine, stool and other infected material taken to culture bacteria and specific toxins idenitfid suscpetibility testingmay occur if the bacteria are identified to see which antibiotics are effective
28
what is the stool smaple tested for
colour consistency shape odour mucus looks for parasites and their cysts
29
gram staining of E coli
negative bacilli motile variable capsule flagellated catalase psoitive
30
what is c.difficile
clostridium difficule is anaerobic, spore-formig gram postive bacillus causes spectrum of antibiotic associated colitis through release of exotoxins called clostridial toxins infiltrate and destroy target cells
31
symptoms of C difficile
diarrhoea high temperature loss of appetite feeling sick stomach ache
32
what are the c difficile symptoms caused by
imbalance of bacteria in the bowel due to antibiotics causing infection
33
how can c difficile be spread
by faeces
34
who is at risk of C difficile
over 65 taking or have recently taken antibiotics staying at hospital or care home for long period of time immunosuppressed long term health conditions like dioabetes or kidney failure or chemotherapy taking PPI if you have had a C diff infection
35
treatment for C difficile
stop antibiotics you are taking if possible 10 day course of another antibiotic that can treat the c difficile infection advice on how to avoid dehydration dont take medication to relieve diarrhoea
36
common bacteiral gut infections
campylobacter jejuni salmonella shingella
37
common parasitic gut infections
giardia lamblia cryptosporidium parvum entamoeba histolytica
38
common viral gut infections
adenovirus rotavirus norovirus
39
surveillance of worldwide diseases
world health organisation uses global burden of disease
40
reducing worldwide gut infections
care in selecting food/ drink good sanitisation proper sewage disposal and drainage safe drinking water wide spread vaccination
41
drugs in this case
prednisolone adalimumab picolax metronidazole
42
what is a pre-surgical prophylaxis antibiotic
antibiotics given to patient before a surgery in order to reduce the risk of post-surgical infections
43
3 main antibiotics used as a pre-surgical prophylaxis
cafazolin vancomycin gentamicin
44
limitations of pre-surgical prophylaxis antibiotics
should be discontnued before 24 hous as there may be alteration in patient or hospital bacteria lflora leading to bacterial resistance, colonisation
45
what is an ileocolic resection
surgical removal of the cecum and the ileum most common operation performed for Crohn may be accomplished by open or laparoscopy surgery
46
open surgery
once large incision made in the abdomen where the surgery will be carried out
47
laproscopy surgery
several smaller incisions made in the abdomen safer option with the aid of a small camera
48
procedure of ileocolic resection
patient asked to eat low residue diet for few days prior and take some laxatives open or laprascopic removal of caecum and ileum anastomosis of end of small intestine to the beginning of the large intestin intravenous drip given to the pateint patient usually remains in hospital for week
49
stool testing for parasites
amoebic dysentery giardia duodenalis OCP testing: 3 samples over 10 dya period with no more than 24 hours, cyst and ova shedding is intermittent barium, oil, magnesium or rystalline compounds can lead to unsatisfactory results
50
ova
egg
51
cyst
shell that protects the parasites during a stage in their life
52
testing for C diff
stool chart 5-7 stool sample GDH EIA: rule out C diff rapid C diff toxin EIA: detect c diff toxins, low sensitivity, alongside other testing PCR; detect presence of c diff and toxins that produce these genes
53
Stool testing
54
what is an IV fluid
liquids injected into a persons veins through an IV tube prevent or treat dehydration and electrolyte imbalances
55
3 categories of IV fluids
hypertonic hypotonic isotonic
56
hypertonic
solute has highe rconcentration than cell direction of osmosis is water drawn out of cells cells shrink can result in intravascular fluid overload and pulmonary edema cant be used extensively
57
isotonic IV fluids
no change in concentration gradeint cells neither shrink or exppand treat vomiting diarrhoea shock
58
hypotonic IV fluids
solute concentration lower than the cells osmotic direction is into the cells shouldnt be given to patients ith icnreased intercranial pressure as may exacerbate effects of cerebral edema
59
further cateogries of IV fluids
crystalloid colloid
60
crystalloids
small molecules able to diffuse across semi-permeable membranes intracellular used to increase fluid volume and intravascular space incase of hypovolemia
61
colloid
larger molecules dont cross semi-permeable membranes remain intravascular rather than entering the cells remain in the blood longer used as plasma expandrs
62
normal saline
0.9% nacl crystalloid isotonic hydration due to vomiting and diarrhoea can be used in conjunction with blood administration not for cardiac or renal complications as high sodium can cause excess fluid retention
63
half normal saline
0.45% normal salie hypotonic crystalloid raise fluid volume waterreplacement sodium chloride depletion
64
lactated ringers
normal saline with additional electrolytes isotonic crystalloid contains Na, Cl, Ca, K for dehydration, burn victims, hypovolemia, acute blood loss not for renal failure or liver disease as contains potassijm
65
dextrose IV fluids categories
in water in saline in lactated ringers
66
dextrose in water
istonic in bag hypotonic absorbed rehydration
67
dextrose in saline
isotonic in the bag hypertonic absorbed circulatory insufficiency
68
dextrose in lactated ringers
isotonic in the bag hypotonic absorbed can't be used for renal or liver failure or if diabetic
69
rehydration therapy
solution msuyt contain Na and gluocse sodium ions pass through the glucose symporter process of active transport driven by the high sodium concentration sodium only passes if glucose prwsent sodium high to low glucose low to high higher concentration of sodium and glucose in the cell on the basal cell is na/k+ atpase sodium against concentration gradient gluocse through gluocse uniporter passively increased glucose and sodium concentration in blood lowers water potential water moves by osmosis from small intestine to the blood rehydration
70
what is dehydration
condition resulting when body loses more fluid than takes in imbalance dirsupts usualy levels of salt and sugar in the blood can interfere with body functions
71
diuresis
increased or excessive production of urine
72
electrolytes
minerals in body with natural positive or negative charge in blood, urine, tissues and other body fluids balance water
73
serum sodium concentration
amount of sodium relative to volume of water in the blood
74
pathophysiology of dehydration
total body water distributed into extracellular and intracellular components fluid from extracellular depletes first then intra intra loss results in cell shrinkage and metabolic dysfunciton can be classified according to serum sodium concentration
75
hypernatremia
may produce body cavity effusions (ascites) pitting edema
76
hyponatremia
decreased produces signs of volume depletion dry mucous membranes decreased skin turgor decreased bloodpressyre increased pulse when sitting up from supine positions
77
isonatremia
normal skin turgor and hydration
78
pathophysiology of the vomiting reflex
involuntary forceful expulsion of contents of ones stomach throug hthe mouth 3 steps: vomitng develops, retching and act controlled by vomiting centre and chemoreceptor trigger zone in the medulla oblongata
79
emesis
deep breath taken glottis closed and larynx raised opens upper oesophageal sphincter diaphragm contracted sharply downwards created negative pressure in thorax facilitates opening of oesphagus and idstal oesphageal sphincter simultaneously with the downward movement of the diaphragm the muscles of the abdomen vigorously contract and squeeze the stomach and increasing intragastric pressure pylorsu is closes and oesphagus is relatively open there is an exit route
80
impact of crohns disease
diet fatigue brain-gut axis relatiosnhips and sex reproductive health travelling and insurance pregnancy and breast feeding
81
mental health crohns
anxiety depresison stress low mood self esteem disordered eating