Unit 3 Chapter 10 Flashcards
1
Q
What is the term for the needs, wants, interests, and desires that lead people to behave in
particular ways?
a. deficiencies
b. ideals
c. motives
d. incentives
A
c. motives
2
Q
Which of the following is a simple definition of motivation?
a. Motivation is a precursor to dominance.
b. Motivation involves goal-directed behaviour.
c. Motivation includes all voluntary behaviour.
d. Motivation requires intentional behaviou
A
b. Motivation involves goal-directed behaviour
3
Q
What state is referred to as homeostasis?
a. psychological stability
b. psychological instability
c. physiological instability
d. physiological stability
A
d. physiological stability
4
Q
What is a drive?
a. internal state of equilibrium that is nonmotivating
b. internal state of tension that is nonmotivating
c. internal state of equilibrium that is motivating
d. internal state of tension that is motivating
A
d. internal state of tension that is motivating
5
Q
Rory is hungry and decides to go to the kitchen to make some toast. What is the state that
precedes the trip to the kitchen, according to a motivation theorist?
a. fugue
b. drive
c. homeostasis
d. biostate
A
b. drive
6
Q
Patrick ate a large breakfast. When he arrived for his 8:00 a.m. class, the student next to him
offered Patrick a large raisin muffin. Even though Patrick was still quite full from breakfast,
he ate the muffin that he was offered. Which of the following theories of motivation best
explains Patrick’s behaviour in this instance?
a. instinctive
b. drive
c. incentive
d. self-awareness
A
c. incentive
7
Q
What is the foremost motivation for all organisms, according to drive theorists?
a. maintain homeostasis
b. ensure their own survival and the survival of their species
c. achieve self-actualization
d. experience as much pleasant stimulation as possible
A
a. maintain homeostasis
8
Q
Food-deprived rats will learn a new response if given non-nutritive, saccharine-sweetened
water as a reward. Thus, the sweet-tasting water is motivating even though no actual hunger
reduction takes place. For which of the following theories of motivation is this evidence
problematic?
a. sociobiological
b. instinct
c. incentive
d. drive
A
d. drive
9
Q
Rita has just finished a large meal at her favourite restaurant. Although she is quite full, when
the waiter brings the dessert tray, she orders a piece of chocolate cheesecake. Which of the
following theories of motivation is Rita’s behaviour is least consistent with?
a. self-awareness
b. drive
c. expectancy-value
d. incentive
A
b. drive
10
Q
Which of the following pairs of terms characterizes drive theories and incentive theories of
motivation, respectively?
a. sociobiological; sociological
b. push; pull
c. external; internal
d. constrained; unconstrained
A
b. push; pull
11
Q
Expectancy-value models of motivation suggest that a person’s actions result from a balance
between which of the following factors?
a. person’s perception of the goal and of reality
b. strength of the person’s drive and size of the reward
c. size of the reward and effort demanded
d. chance of succeeding and value of the incentive
A
d. chance of succeeding and value of the incentive
12
Q
What is the term for an external goal that has the capacity to motivate behaviour?
a. drive
b. incentive
c. expectancy
d. homeostatic mechanism
A
b. incentive
13
Q
Psychologists who take an evolutionary view argue that natural selection favours behaviours
that maximize which of the following?
a. acquisition of territory
b. self-actualization
c. reproductive success
d. material wealth
A
c. reproductive success
14
Q
What motive is associated with the need to associate with others and maintain social bonds?
a. sociological
b. affiliation
c. psychosocial
d. competence
A
b. affiliation
15
Q
Dr. King is studying the effects of gender on motivation to achieve in competitive sports. Her
hypothesis is that males should have a greater motivation to win in sports with physical
contact because males are genetically predisposed to seek dominance and status using
physical prowess, whereas females should have a lower motivation in contact sports, because
females are predisposed to base dominance and status on other skills and traits. Which of the
following motivational theories is guiding Dr. King’s research?
a. drive
b. cognitive
c. organizational
d. evolutionary
A
d. evolutionary
16
Q
Which of the following statements regarding human motives is least accurate?
a. Humans have a larger number of social needs than biological needs.
b. Most biological motives reflect survival needs.
c. Everyone shares the same set of social needs.
d. The strength of social needs varies from person to person
A
c. Everyone shares the same set of social needs.
17
Q
How many biological needs are identified within most motivation theories, according to K. B.
Madsen?
a. fewer than 5
b. 10–15
c. 25–30
d. more than 40
A
b. 10–15
18
Q
What do the following have in common: achievement, autonomy, play, and dominance?
a. They are all social needs.
b. They are all biological needs.
c. They are all drives.
d. They are all social-based biological motives.
A
a. They are all social needs.
19
Q
Which of the following should we expect when we compare people’s various needs,
according to motivation theorists?
a. Males and females have quite different biological needs.
b. People are highly varied in both social and biological needs.
c. Children and adults are quite similar in both biological and social needs.
d. People are more similar in biological than in social needs
A
d. People are more similar in biological than in social needs
20
Q
Imogene grew up in a small town in northern England, Dexter grew up in a large city in West
Germany. What should you expect about their various needs?
a. They have the same biological needs, but different social needs.
b. They have the same social needs, but different biological needs.
c. They have the same biological and social needs.
d. They have different biological and social needs
A
a. They have the same biological needs, but different social needs.
21
Q
What did Cannon and Washburn propose as the cause of hunger?
a. lack of food
b. stomach contractions
c. changes in leptin levels
d. low blood sugar
A
b. stomach contractions
22
Q
Dr. Linzle has implanted an electrode in the hypothalamus of a rat. When the rat’s brain is
electrically stimulated, the rat starts to eat again, even if it has just finished a large meal. What
area of the hypothalamus is likely being activated?
a. magnocellular
b. ventromedial
c. lateral
d. parvocellular
A
c. lateral
23
Q
What typically happens to animals that have lesions in the ventromedial nucleus of the
hypothalamus?
a. They overeat and become obese.
b. They go for days without sleep.
c. They lose all interest in sex.
d. They ignore food and often starve
A
a. They overeat and become obese.
24
Q
A laboratory rat has had part of its hypothalamus destroyed by lesioning. The rat doesn’t seem
to know when to stop eating and has ballooned to several times its normal size. In this case,
which area of the hypothalamus would you expect to be damaged?
a. lateral
b. ventromedial
c. magnocellular
d. parvocellular
A
b. ventromedial
25
Dr. McCardle has implanted an electrode in the hypothalamus of a rat. When the rat’s brain is
electrically stimulated, the rat stops eating. The electrode is most likely activating which area
of the hypothalamus?
a. parvocellular
b. lateral
c. magnocellular
d. ventromedial
d. ventromedial
26
Which of the following represents current thinking about the role of various areas of the
hypothalamus for regulation of hunger?
a. The lateral and ventromedial portions of the hypothalamus are parts of the neural
circuit, but that circuit originates in the cortex.
b. The lateral and ventromedial portions of the hypothalamus are parts of the neural
circuit, but the paraventricular nucleus may play a larger role.
c. The lateral hypothalamus is the off-switch and the ventromedial hypothalamus is
the on-switch.
d. The lateral hypothalamus is the on-switch and the ventromedial hypothalamus is
the off-switch
b. The lateral and ventromedial portions of the hypothalamus are parts of the neural
circuit, but the paraventricular nucleus may play a larger role
27
In general, which of the following do contemporary theories regarding brain regulation of
hunger tend to focus on?
a. anatomical centres
b. overall size of the brain
c. neural circuits
d. amount of electrical activity in the hindbrain
c. neural circuits
28
What does an organism experience if you experimentally decrease its blood glucose levels?
a. increase in general arousal
b. decrease in hunger
c. decrease in general arousal
d. increase in hunger
d. increase in hunger
29
What does an organism experience if you experimentally increase its blood glucose levels?
a. decrease in general arousal
b. decrease in hunger
c. increase in general arousal
d. increase in hunger
b. decrease in hunger
30
When Giselle was in the hospital recently, she received glucose continuously through an
intravenous line. What would Giselle have begun to experience as her blood glucose levels
started to rise?
a. satiation
b. agitation
c. decreased autonomic arousal
d. thirst
a. satiation
31
In which of the following brain regions would you expect to find neurons that are sensitive to
changes in blood glucose?
a. parahippocampal gyrus
b. medial temporal lobe
c. arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus
d. prefrontal cortex
c. arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus
32
What is a primary control mechanism for the regulation of hunger, according to glucostatic
theory?
a. levels of glucose in the blood
b. levels of cholecystokinin in the bloodstream
c. numbers of lipids in the liver
d. numbers of metabolites in the pancreas
a. levels of glucose in the blood
33
Which of the following statements regarding the role of insulin in hunger is least accurate?
a. Insulin is a hormone secreted by the pancreas.
b. Insulin is secreted primarily when the stomach is full.
c. Increased insulin secretion causes increased hunger.
d. Insulin must be present for cells to utilize glucose
b. Insulin is secreted primarily when the stomach is full.
34
Which of the following states are you in if you are currently secreting both insulin and
ghrelin?
a. hunger
b. thirst
c. anxiety
d. sexual arousal
a. hunger
35
How do ghrelin and CCK influence hunger?
a. Ghrelin and CCK both suppress hunger.
b. Ghrelin suppresses hunger and CCK stimulates hunger.
c. Ghrelin stimulates hunger and CCK suppresses hunger.
d. Ghrelin and CCK both stimulate hunger.
c. Ghrelin stimulates hunger and CCK suppresses hunger.
36
What should you expect if laboratory rats have artificially reduced levels of insulin, based on
the interaction between glucose levels and insulin levels in the body?
a. They will stop eating and lose weight.
b. They will show an increase in activity in the ventromedial hypothalamus.
c. They will stop eating, but still gain weight.
d. They will tend to overeat and gain weight
a. They will stop eating and lose weight.
37
Which of the following statements best reflects the current view regarding the role of leptin in
hunger regulation?
a. Leptin levels apparently regulate the hunger centres located in the stomach.
b. An excessive amount of leptin in the brain has been associated with obesity in rats.
c. When leptin levels are high, hunger tends to be reduced.
d. The presence of leptin in the bloodstream tends to increase feelings of hunger.
c. When leptin levels are high, hunger tends to be reduced.
38
In which area of the brain does information about the body’s levels of leptin, CCK, insulin
and ghrelin converge?
a. olfactory lobe
b. prefrontal cortex
c. cerebellum
d. hypothalamus
d. hypothalamus
39
Which of the following manipulations could help you with a goal to reduce the amount of
food that you eat at a meal?
a. Serve only one type of food.
b. Place foods on the table in larger bowls than usual.
c. Serve better tasting food.
d. Eat in the presence of a lot of other people.
a. Serve only one type of food
40
Which of the following manipulations would you employ if you wanted to use the
phenomenon of sensory-specific satiety to alter your food intake?
a. Change the colour of your dining room.
b. Alter the variety of foods served at each meal.
c. Change the size of the bowls you eat from.
d. Alter the times of day that you eat.
b. Alter the variety of foods served at each meal.
41
. How does the presence of others affect eating, according to Herman and Polivy’s inhibitory
norm model?
a. It always inhibits the rate of eating, unless the others are family members.
b. It increases the rate of disordered eating in vulnerable individuals.
c. It always enhances the rate of eating.
d. It generally inhibits eating, but in some situations may increase eating behaviour
d. It generally inhibits eating, but in some situations may increase eating behaviour
42
Which of the following would NOT be considered an environmental factor in the regulation
of hunger?
a. hormonal fluctuations
b. stress
c. food-related cues
d. learned preferences and habits
a. hormonal fluctuations
43
When Harvey was a child, the only time he ate turnips was when he was at his grandmother’s
house for Christmas dinner. Now, as an adult, Harvey loves the taste of turnips because he
associates them with Christmas at his grandmother’s house. Which of the following best
explains Harvey’s preference for the taste of turnips, in this example?
a. operant conditioning
b. observational learning
c. classical conditioning
d. homeostatic conditioning
c. classical conditioning
44
Which of the following is most accurate regarding the roles of genetic predispositions and
learning for flavour preferences?
a. At birth, we have a preference for only high-fat foods; other preferences are
learned.
b. Flavour preferences are innate, and change across the lifespan only due to
maturation.
c. Flavour preferences are entirely learned, and dependent upon degree of exposure.
d. Some flavour preferences are innate but learning modifies our preferences
d. Some flavour preferences are innate but learning modifies our preferences
45
Which of the following statements regarding the influence of stress on eating behaviour is
least accurate?
a. Stress leads to increased eating in a substantial portion of people.
b. Stress-induced eating appears to be more common among men than among
women.
c. It appears to be stress-induced arousal rather than stress itself that stimulates
eating.
d. It is essentially a myth that stress is associated with increased eating.
b. Stress-induced eating appears to be more common among men than among
women.
46
What has happened to the rate of obesity in Canada in the last two decades?
a. It has dropped to 15 percent below the American rate.
b. It has remained constant.
c. It has doubled.
d. It has increased 15 percent over the American rate.
c. It has doubled.
47
What do recent surveys suggest about the incidence of obesity in Canada since 1996?
a. It has decreased.
b. It has remained constant.
c. It has virtually disappeared.
d. It has increased.
d. It has increased.
48
Which of the following is a measure of weight that controls for variations in height and is
increasingly used in research on obesity?
a. reaction range
b. obesity quotient
c. set point
d. body mass index
d. body mass index
49
Increases in the rate of obesity in modern industrialized societies may have an evolutionary
basis. What is the specific evolutionary hypothesis about body weight?
a. We have genes for obesity.
b. We evolved to have a metabolism that speeds up dramatically whenever we gain
weight.
c. Being obese increases your reproductive capacity.
d. It was adaptive to overeat and store fat to survive environments where food was
scarce
d. It was adaptive to overeat and store fat to survive environments where food was
scarce
50
How should obesity be understood according to evolutionary theorists?
a. It is associated with genetic flaws that will be selected against in future
generations.
b. It is the result of adaptations to conserve energy, which are not needed in an
environment with constant access to food.
c. It is a result of selection for heavier and heavier bodies over time.
d. It is a modern disorder that results from a series of mutations in the genes
associated with hunger control
b. It is the result of adaptations to conserve energy, which are not needed in an
environment with constant access to food.
51
What have researchers found about adoptees during adoption studies designed to examine the
role of genetic disposition in obesity?
a. They were halfway between the two sets of parents in weight.
b. They were more like their adoptive parents in weight.
c. They were more like their biological parents in weight.
d. They did not resemble either set of parents in weight.
c. They were more like their biological parents in weight.
52
What is suggested by the fact that the correlation in weight between identical twins reared
apart is higher than that between fraternal twins reared together?
a. Weight is influenced more by genetics than by environmental factors.
b. Weight is influenced more by environmental factors than by genetics.
c. Weight is affected equally by genetics and environmental factors.
d. Weight not affected by either genetics or environmental factors.
a. Weight is influenced more by genetics than by environmental factors.
53
Which of the following groups of Canadians seems to have the lowest levels of exercise?
a. children in the top income brackets
b. urban individuals with low income
c. rural adults
d. women who are stay-at-home parents
b. urban individuals with low income
54
What does the set point for body weight refer to?
a. the lowest possible weight at which the person can survive
b. a person’s current weight
c. the highest weight the person can attain by unrestricted eating
d. a person’s natural point of stability in body weight
d. a person’s natural point of stability in body weight
55
What does the body monitor, according to set-point theory?
a. level of glucose in the bloodstream
b. level of fat stores
c. activity of the hypothalamus
d. basal metabolic rate
b. level of fat stores
56
What does set point theory suggest about set point and weight change?
a. Those with a low set point will have the hardest time losing weight.
b. Those with a high set point will often lose any weight they gain.
c. Those with a low set point will often regain any weight they lose.
d. Those with a high set point will often regain any weight they lose.
d. Those with a high set point will often regain any weight they lose.
57
What does set point depend on, according to theorists?
a. bone structure
b. number of fat cells
c. activity level
d. current body weight
b. number of fat cells
58
Juan has been obese for most of his life, maintaining a very high body weight that did not
seem to fluctuate much over time. Juan changed his diet and dramatically increased his
exercise level, and subsequently lost a lot of weight. Over the next few years, Juan maintained
his new, lower, body weight. Which of the following theories best accounts for this type of
example?
a. lipostatic theory
b. set-point theory
c. glucostatic theory
d. settling-point theory
d. settling-point theory
59
When does weight remain stable according to settling-point theory?
a. when the individual is healthy
b. when the individual gradually increases food intake across the lifespan
c. when the individual gradually decreases food intake across the lifespan
d. when there are no durable changes in any of the factors that influence it
d. when there are no durable changes in any of the factors that influence it
60
Which of the following concepts best explains the behaviour of a person who believes she has
cheated on a diet, and then proceeds to go on an eating binge because “I’ve already blown my
diet anyway”?
a. genetic predisposition
b. reaction range
c. set point
d. dietary restraint
d. dietary restraint
61
What is the relationship between dietary restraint and overeating?
a. People tend to see themselves as being either restrained or not, and this selfconcept drives a great deal of their food-related choices.
b. Some people have a genetic predisposition toward restraint, while others have a
predisposition toward overeating.
c. Those who tend to be restrained eaters have a paradoxical tendency to overeat due
to their all-or-nothing mentality.
d. Individuals who tend to overeat have a more difficult time learning the behavioural
strategies associated with dietary restraint.
c. Those who tend to be restrained eaters have a paradoxical tendency to overeat due
to their all-or-nothing mentality.
62
Eating disorders affect approximately what percentage of Canadian women in their lifetime?
a. 1 percent
b. 3 percent
c. 10 percent
d. 13 percent
b. 3 percent
63
Among which of the following groups is development of an eating disorder most common?
a. females, athletes, those who idealize a thin body type
b. males, academics, people with low self-esteem
c. males, athletes, people with high self-esteem
d. females, academics, people with inherently poor appetites
a. females, athletes, those who idealize a thin body type
64
Approximately what percentage of 15- to 17-year-olds report engaging in sexual intercourse,
according to recent surveys and reports by government agencies?
a. 12 percent
b. 28 percent
c. 50 percent
d. 78 percent
b. 28 percent
65
. According to recent surveys and reports by government agencies, approximately what
proportion of sexually active 20- to24-year-olds reported having more than one sex partner in
the past year?
a. one quarter
b. one third
c. one half
d. three quarters
b. one third
66
Which of the following groups are most likely to have sex at an early age?
a. girls who are physically mature
b. girls with weak self-concepts
c. girls with strong self-concepts
d. girls who are emotionally mature
b. girls with weak self-concepts
67
Which of the following represents the correct sequence of the phases of the human sexual
response?
a. excitement, plateau, resolution, orgasm
b. plateau, excitement, resolution, orgasm
c. plateau, excitement, orgasm, resolution
d. excitement, plateau, orgasm, resolution
d. excitement, plateau, orgasm, resolution
68
During which two phases of the human sexual response do heart rate, respiration rate, and
blood pressure increase sharply?
a. plateau and orgasm
b. excitement and orgasm
c. excitement and plateau
d. orgasm and resolution
b. excitement and orgasm
69
Justus is reading an erotic story in a men’s magazine when he finds his respiration rate and
heart rate increasing. He is also experiencing penile erection. Which phase is Justus
experiencing based on the phases described by Masters and Johnson?
a. orgasmic
b. excitement
c. resolution
d. plateau
b. excitement
70
Irene is listening to a romance novel on her MP3 player while she is on her daily walk.
Although she is not walking especially fast, she finds that as she listens to one of the love
scenes in the novel her respiration rate and heart rate increase. She is also experiencing
vaginal moistness. Which phase is Irene experiencing based on the phases described by
Masters and Johnson?
a. plateau
b. excitement
c. resolution
d. orgasmic
b. excitement
71
What causes penile erection in males and the swelling of the clitoris in females?
a. engorgement of blood vessels
b. decrease in respiration
c. muscular contractions
d. increased blood pressure
a. engorgement of blood vessels
72
Alayna and her husband have been kissing and caressing for about 15 minutes. Her level of
arousal is still increasing, and she can feel some tightening in her vagina. Which phase is she
in based on the phases described by Masters and Johnson?
a. resolution
b. orgasmic
c. plateau
d. excitement
c. plateau
73
During which phase of the human sexual response cycle does a series of muscular
contractions pulsate through the pelvic area?
a. phallic
b. resolution
c. orgasmic
d. excitement
c. orgasmic
74
Talia and her husband are having sex when Talia suddenly experiences a series of muscular
contractions throughout her pelvis. Which of the following is true based on research
conducted by Masters and Johnson?
a. Talia will now pass into the plateau stage of the sexual response cycle.
b. It will be at least 20 minutes before Talia can become sexually aroused again.
c. Talia’s muscular contractions will prevent her from experiencing the orgasm
phase.
d. Talia may experience another orgasm without going through a refractory period.
d. Talia may experience another orgasm without going through a refractory period.
75
Which of the following statements regarding the human sexual response is least accurate?
a. It is normal for sexual arousal to vary during lengthy foreplay.
b. Men are more likely than women to engage in intercourse without an orgasm.
c. The subjective experience of orgasm is very similar for males and females.
d. Women are far more likely than men to be multiorgasmic
b. Men are more likely than women to engage in intercourse without an orgasm.
76
Scott just experienced an orgasm. For about an hour he cannot achieve another orgasm.
Which phase of the sexual response cycle is Scott in?
a. orgasmic
b. plateau
c. resolution
d. excitement
c. resolution
77
Peter and his wife are having sex when Peter’s blood pressure increases sharply, and he
experiences a series of muscular contractions throughout his pelvis. Which of the following is
likely based on research conducted by Masters and Johnson?
a. Peter’s muscular contractions are likely to produce an orgasm in his wife.
b. Peter will be relatively unresponsive to sexual stimulation for a period of time
following his orgasm.
c. Peter is likely to experience several more orgasms before he enters a refractory
period.
d. Peter will now pass into the plateau stage of the sexual response cycle
b. Peter will be relatively unresponsive to sexual stimulation for a period of time
following his orgasm.
78
Annette was experiencing a high level of sexual excitement as her boyfriend kissed and
caressed her. However, the phone rang and interrupted them. Her heart rate and respiration
rate are slowly returning to normal, but she feels a sense of frustration. Which phase is
Annette in, based on the phases described by Masters and Johnson?
a. post-orgasmic
b. plateau
c. resolution
d. refractory
c. resolution
79
Jarrod experienced an orgasm just over 30 minutes ago. He is still largely unresponsive to
sexual stimulation. Which phase is Jarrod in, based on the phases described by Masters and
Johnson?
a. post-orgasmic
b. excitement
c. resolution
d. plateau
c. resolution
80
Which of the following best describes the refractory period?
a. the time between orgasms in multiorgasmic women
b. a time following female orgasm during which females are largely unresponsive to
further stimulation
c. the time between initiation of intercourse and orgasm
d. a time following male orgasm during which males are largely unresponsive to
further stimulation
d. a time following male orgasm during which males are largely unresponsive to
further stimulation
81
Which of the following generalizations was NOT supported by Masters and Johnson’s human
sexuality research?
a. Men are more apt to be multiorgasmic than women are.
b. The subjective experience of orgasm is very similar for men and women.
c. Women are more apt than men to have intercourse without orgasm.
d. Sexual difficulties are most typically caused by psychological factors
a. Men are more apt to be multiorgasmic than women are.
82
Which of the following questions would likely lead to the largest sex difference in responses?
a. Do you have an orgasm every time you have sex?
b. Have you ever experienced an orgasm?
c. Have you ever been sexually aroused without having an orgasm?
d. Did you experience an orgasm in your most recent sexual encounter?
a. Do you have an orgasm every time you have sex?
83
Which of the following researchers proposed parental investment theory?
a. Robert Trivers
b. Walter Cannon
c. David Buss
d. Stanley Schachter
a. Robert Trivers
84
Which theory asserts that a species’ mating patterns depend on what each sex has to invest in
the way of time, energy, and survival risk to maximize the transmission of its genes to the
next generation?
a. inclusive fitness theory
b. drive theory
c. parental investment theory
d. physiological equilibrium theory
c. parental investment theory
85
Imagine that scientists have just discovered a new species in which the males put their lives at
risk to have offspring, and the females do very little. Which sex should be more likely to be
promiscuous, according to parental investment theory, and why?
a. males, because of the greater risk associated with reproduction
b. females, because of the effects of estrogen
c. males, because of the effects of testosterone
d. females, because of the lesser risk associated with reproduction
d. females, because of the lesser risk associated with reproduction
86
Imagine that scientists have just discovered a new species in which the females are highly
promiscuous and the males are very picky about their sexual partners. Which of the following
should you predict about this species according to parental investment theory?
a. The females of the species are not successful at reproduction, because their
offspring are not taken care of.
b. The males of the species have very high sex drives.
c. The males of the species do not help raise the offspring.
d. The females of the species provide less care to the offspring than do the males.
d. The females of the species provide less care to the offspring than do the males.
87
. Which of the following partner characteristics is NOT emphasized by women, as predicted by
evolutionary theory?
a. intelligence
b. ambition
c. physical attractiveness
d. social status
c. physical attractiveness
88
Which of the following is the evolutionary hypothesis tested by Buss and his colleagues in a
cross-cultural study of mating preferences?
a. Preferences in the characteristics of mating partners will be the same for females
but differ for males from culture to culture.
b. Preferences in the characteristics of mating partners will differ from males to
females.
c. Preferences in the characteristics of mating partners will be the same from culture
to culture.
d. Preferences in the characteristics of mating partners will be basically the same for
males but differ for females from culture to culture.
c. Preferences in the characteristics of mating partners will be the same from culture
to culture.
89
. Which of the following characteristics in a potential mate is likely to be rated highly by both
males and females, according to the results of Buss’s study of over 10,000 people in 37
cultures?
a. youthfulness
b. kindness
c. financial prospects
d. status
b. kindness
90
Which of the following characteristics in a potential mate is likely to be rated more highly by
women than by men, according to the results of Buss’s study of over 10,000 people in 37
cultures?
a. youthfulness
b. status
c. kindness
d. physical attractiveness
b. status
91
Which of the following characteristics in a potential mate is likely to be rated more highly by
men than by women, according to the results of Buss’s study of over 10,000 people in 37
cultures?
a. youthfulness
b. financial prospects
c. status
d. kindness
a. youthfulness
92
The results from the Featured Study on women’s ratings of male attractiveness suggested that
women pick up on cues that are relevant to reproductive success. Which of the following is
associated with women finding men attractive for a long-term relationship?
a. high levels of salivary testosterone
b. high levels of parental interest
c. high ratings of masculinity
d. high ratings of income potential
b. high levels of parental interest
93
Which of the following was associated with males whom women found most attractive for
short-term sexual relationships, in the Featured Study on women’s ratings of male
attractiveness?
a. high ratings of parental interest
b. high levels of testosterone
c. high ratings of promiscuity
d. high levels of cortisol
b. high levels of testosterone
94
Which of the following effects has NOT been supported by research?
a. Viewing erotic materials may make some people dissatisfied with their own sexual
interactions.
b. Viewing erotic materials elevates the likelihood of overt sexual activity for a few
hours immediately after the exposure.
c. Viewing erotic materials changes one’s attitudes to be more liberal about sexual
practices.
d. Viewing erotic materials tends to cause sex crimes
d. Viewing erotic materials tends to cause sex crimes
95
Dudley enjoys watching sexually explicit films, especially films that include some violence
and aggression. What might you predict about Dudley’s behaviour after viewing these types
of films, based on the results from research studies in this area?
a. Dudley will be more likely to seek out bisexual relationships.
b. Dudley is less likely to find the women that he meets sexually attractive.
c. There will be a decrease in Dudley’s aggressiveness toward women.
d. There will be an increase in Dudley’s aggressiveness toward women
d. There will be an increase in Dudley’s aggressiveness toward women
96
About what proportion of women surveyed on 32 American college campuses by Koss,
Gidycz, and Wisniewski reported having been victimized by date rape?
a. 2 in 3
b. 1 in 2
c. 1 in 7
d. 1 in 15
c. 1 in 7
97
What percentage of reported rapes are committed by someone who is known by the victim?
a. 20 percent
b. 40 percent
c. 60 percent
d. 90 percent
d. 90 percent
98
What term describes a person who seeks emotional-sexual relationships with members of the
other sex?
a. homosexual
b. bisexual
c. monogamous
d. heterosexual
d. heterosexual
99
What term describes a person who seeks emotional-sexual relationships with members of
either sex?
a. bisexual
b. homosexual
c. heterosexual
d. asexual
a. bisexual
100
Which of the following terms is most likely to be used by a homosexual woman to describe
her sexual orientation?
a. bisexual
b. lesbian
c. straight
d. gay
b. lesbian
101
Joel is primarily attracted to and prefers to have sex with other men, but has had a sexual
interaction with a woman. How would Joel be categorized on Kinsey’s continuum of sexual
orientation?
a. Step 4 (bisexual)
b. Step 3 (bisexual)
c. Step 5 (homosexual)
d. Step 6 (homosexual)
a. Step 4 (bisexual)
102
What did Alfred Kinsey suggest about homosexuality and heterosexuality?
a. They are orientations that are a function of genetics.
b. They are end points on a continuum.
c. They are value judgments and should be of little concern to scientists.
d. They are orientations based on early learning.
b. They are end points on a continuum.
103
What proportion of the population could reasonably be characterized as homosexual,
according to recent studies?
a. between 12 and 15 percent
b. less than 1 percent
c. just over 18 percent
d. approximately 5 to 8 percent
d. approximately 5 to 8 percent
104
Which of the following approaches to explaining the origins of homosexuality has received
the most empirical support?
a. classical conditioning
b. biological
c. psychoanalytic
d. operant conditioning
b. biological
105
Which of the following statements regarding homosexuality has NOT been supported by
empirical evidence?
a. Homosexuality is a learned preference acquired when same-sex stimuli have been
paired with sexual arousal.
b. Many individuals who are homosexual may initially deny their orientation,
because of negative social and parental attitudes toward homosexuality.
c. In some cases, female homosexuality has been linked to prenatal exposure to
abnormally high levels of androgens.
d. There are anatomical differences in the brain between homosexual and
heterosexual men
a. Homosexuality is a learned preference acquired when same-sex stimuli have been
paired with sexual arousal.
106
Which of the following experiences during prenatal development has been associated with the
development of sexual orientation?
a. hormonal secretions
b. severe physical trauma
c. neural abnormalities
d. loss of oxygen
a. hormonal secretions
107
What type of motive is associated with the need to master difficult challenges, outperform
others, and meet high standards of excellence?
a. competence motive
b. intellect motive
c. power motive
d. achievement motive
d. achievement motive
108
Max has the need to master difficult challenges, to outperform others, and to meet high
standards for excellence. According to researchers such as McClelland, Max most likely has
which of the following?
a. low achievement motivation
b. high fear of failure
c. high achievement motivation
d. high affiliation needs
c. high achievement motivation
109
Which of the following needs is NOT generally considered a component of the achievement
motive?
a. outperforming others
b. being accepted by others
c. desiring to excel
d. meeting high standards of excellence
b. being accepted by others
110
Maria is pursuing a highly competitive career, and she works very hard and persistently at her
tasks. What does Maria’s behaviour reflect?
a. high power need
b. obsessive-compulsive personality structure
c. high achievement motivation
d. external locus of control
c. high achievement motivation
111
Which of the following psychologists is most closely identified with research on the
achievement motive?
a. David Buss
b. Henry Murray
c. David McClelland
d. Walter Cannon
c. David McClelland
112
What is assessed by the Thematic Apperception Test?
a. psychocybernetic motive
b. competence motive
c. arousal level
d. achievement motive
d. achievement motive
113
What type of test is the Thematic Apperception Test?
a. aptitude test
b. achievement test
c. projective test
d. criterion-based test
c. projective test
114
Which test has been used a great deal to measure affiliation and achievement needs?
a. Thematic Apperception Test
b. Rorschach Ink Blot Test
c. Sarason Sociability Scale
d. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Test
a. Thematic Apperception Test
115
Royce is telling a story about a character on a TAT card. In his story, Royce focuses on the
character’s anxiety as she prepares a speech that will be presented in front of her classmates.
He indicates that the character has spent a great deal of time worrying whether the speech may
alienate some of her friends. Which of the following does Royce’s response to this TAT card
suggest that he most likely has?
a. low need for achievement
b. high need for achievement
c. low need for affiliation
d. high need for affiliation
d. high need for affiliation
116
Breana is telling a story about a character on a TAT card. In her story, Breana focuses on the
fact that the character is daydreaming about being away from all the pressures of work and
family, and spending quiet time in an isolated location. Which of the following does Breana’s
answer suggest that she most likely has?
a. low need for achievement
b. high need for achievement
c. low need for affiliation
d. high need for affiliation
c. low need for affiliation
117
Alisha is telling a story about a character on a TAT card. In her story, Alisha focuses on the
individual’s lack of persistence when undertaking projects, and she also describes how the
individual prefers situations that have little competition. Which of the following does Alisha’s
answer suggest that she most likely has?
a. low need for affiliation
b. high need for affiliation
c. low need for achievement
d. high need for achievement
b. high need for affiliation
118
Which of the following characteristics is least likely to be found in individuals high in
achievement motivation?
a. tendency to select the hardest tasks
b. tendency to delay gratification
c. future orientation
d. persistence
a. tendency to select the hardest tasks
119
Stefan is an individual who has a high need for achievement. His boss has three jobs that need
to be completed; one job is easy, one job is moderately difficult, and one job is extremely
difficult. Which of the following should you expect Stefan to do if he is allowed to choose
which of the three jobs he will undertake for his boss?
a. ask his boss to make the choice, to avoid a potentially negative evaluation
b. choose the moderately difficult job
c. choose the easy job, to maximize his chance for success
d. maximize the task difficulty by selecting the hardest job
b. choose the moderately difficult job
120
Which of the following statements regarding the need for achievement is the most accurate?
a. Achievement motive is generally determined by situational factors.
b. The need for achievement is a fairly stable aspect of one’s personality.
c. There is a strong genetic component in the need for achievement.
d. The need for achievement is highly variable in a given person throughout his or
her lifetime.
b. The need for achievement is a fairly stable aspect of one’s personality.
121
Which of the following characteristics is NOT expected from a person high in achievement
motivation?
a. tendency to choose tasks of intermediate difficulty
b. tendency to seek immediate gratification
c. greater persistence on tasks
d. tendency to choose competitive occupations
b. tendency to seek immediate gratification
122
Noor is an individual who has a high need for achievement. She is trying to decide which one
of four possible courses to take. The first is supposed to be easy, with an “A” practically
guaranteed for very little effort. The second is supposed to be moderately difficult, but with
effort an “A” is possible. The third is supposed to be a “killer” course with little chance of
earning a grade higher than a “B.” The fourth is a seminar-style course with no grades
assigned. What should you expect Noor to choose?
a. the moderately difficult course that requires effort for a high grade
b. the course that has no assigned grades
c. the easy course, which practically guarantees a high grade
d. the “killer” course to maximize her level of task difficulty
a. the moderately difficult course that requires effort for a high grade
123
Which of the following statements regarding the motive to avoid failure is least accurate?
a. People vary in their motivation to avoid failure.
b. The fear of failure is a stable aspect of personality.
c. Women score significantly higher than men on the motive to avoid failure.
d. The fear of failure may stimulate achievement.
c. Women score significantly higher than men on the motive to avoid failure.
124
Lauren and Tran both spend six hours per week studying for their botany course. Lauren is
concerned that if she doesn’t study she will fail the course; Tran is concerned that if he
doesn’t study he won’t earn the highest grade in the class. Which of the following is likely
true?
a. Both students are motivated by a need for achievement.
b. Tran is motivated by a fear of failure, and Lauren is motivated by a need for
achievement.
c. Lauren is motivated by a fear of failure, and Tran is motivated by a need for
achievement.
d. Both students are motivated by a fear of failure
c. Lauren is motivated by a fear of failure, and Tran is motivated by a need for
achievement.
125
Given a high level of achievement motivation, which type of task should maximize one’s
sense of accomplishment?
a. any task that is completed
b. intermediate difficulty task
c. very easy task
d. very difficult task
b. intermediate difficulty task
126
When does the pursuit of achievement increase, according to Atkinson’s expectancy-value
model?
a. as the probability of success increases and the incentive value of success decreases
b. as the probability of success and the incentive value of success both increase
c. as the probability of success decreases and the incentive value of success increases
d. as the probability of success and the incentive value of success both decrease
b. as the probability of success and the incentive value of success both increase
127
Boris has a high need for achievement, and he is currently enrolled in a philosophy course that
is required for his major. The professor has never been known to give a student a grade higher
than a B. What will Boris likely do under these conditions?
a. He will drop the course and switch to a different major.
b. He will exert the maximum effort he can because he has a high need for
achievement.
c. He will not exert his maximum effort because the course has a low incentive value
for him.
d. He will not exert his maximum effort because he has a low expectation of success
d. He will not exert his maximum effort because he has a low expectation of success
128
What are the three components of emotion?
a. behavioural, physiological, social
b. social, situational, cognitive
c. cognitive, situational, physiological
d. cognitive, behavioural, physiological
d. cognitive, behavioural, physiological
129
Which of the following do psychologists generally rely on in studying the cognitive
components of emotions?
a. heart rate
b. subjects’ verbal reports
c. galvanic skin response
d. scores on the Thematic Apperception Test
b. subjects’ verbal reports
130
Which component of an emotion refers to the subjective conscious experience of that
emotion?
a. cognitive
b. behavioural
c. physiological
d. affective
a. cognitive
131
Paolo is about to give a speech in front of a roomful of strangers. As he steps up to the podium
he feels anxious and nervous. What does this example illustrate?
a. behavioural component in Paolo’s emotional experience
b. cognitive component in Paolo’s emotional experience
c. objective component in Paolo’s emotional experience
d. physiological component in Paolo’s emotional experience
b. cognitive component in Paolo’s emotional experience
132
Janie is listening to several of her friends describe the miserable conditions they saw when
they were in Bosnia as part of the peacekeeping force. As she listens to the stories of
starvation and ruin, Janie feels overwhelmed by sadness. What does this example illustrate?
a. physiological component in Janie’s emotional experience
b. cognitive component in Janie’s emotional experience
c. objective component in Janie’s emotional experience
d. behavioural component in Janie’s emotional experience
b. cognitive component in Janie’s emotional experience
133
Imagine that you’ve just won the lottery and are thrilled to have millions of dollars at your
disposal. Which of the following would likely be true if you actually did win the lottery, based
on evidence about affective forecasting?
a. You would actually be happier than you can possibly imagine right now.
b. You would actually have very little change in your average emotions from pre-win
to post-win.
c. You would likely be quite happy about the win, but then become depressed as a
result of compensatory responses.
d. You would be disappointed, because you had built it up too much in your mind
b. You would actually have very little change in your average emotions from pre-win
to post-win.
134
Which of the following is associated with most of the discernible physiological arousal
associated with emotion?
a. medulla
b. autonomic nervous system
c. forebrain
d. central nervous system
b. autonomic nervous system
135
In what ways are motivation and emotion similar to each other and different from each other?
Both can activate and influence behaviour. But it’s more difficult to predict the behaviour that
an emotion will lead to. The same motive or emotion can lead to different behaviours in
different individuals, or in the same individual at different times. Also, the same behaviour
might result from different motives or emotions. Both can operate on us without our
awareness. Both are most often activated by some internal or external stimulus. According to
some prominent theories, there are both primary motives and primary emotions. Primary
motives are biological in nature; there are also social motives. Your text offers no comparable
division of emotions into biological and social. According to prominent theories, the
experiences of both motivation and emotion are influenced by cognitive factors. Similar areas
of the brain (especially the hypothalamus and the ANS) appear to be involved in both
136
As you’ll learn in Chapter 11, research on temperament shows that from the earliest days of
life, infants differ from each other in things like emotional tone, tempo of activity, and
sensitivity to environmental stimuli. Discuss these findings from the viewpoint of
evolutionary theories of emotion.
Answers should reveal students’ understanding that when newborns exhibit characteristics
such as these, this strongly suggests that those characteristics are innate, based on heredity
rather than experience. The evolutionary perspective would state that such innate
characteristics probably have adaptive value. Good answers should explore the possible
adaptive benefits that temperamental differences might confer.
137
Some psychologists have suggested that the function of emotions is to motivate the organism.
What do you think this means? Illustrate your points with examples.
It’s hard to think of any explanation for why we have emotions unless it’s to motivate
behaviour. Darwin believed emotions have adaptive value, that is, that they promote
individual and species survival by directing behaviour that is beneficial to the individual or
species. This included the notion that the apparently innate and universal facial expressions
that accompany emotions serve as signals to others and thereby influence their behaviour.
When emotions are experienced, autonomic arousal occurs, probably for the purpose of
preparing the body to respond to whatever stimuli led to the emotion being activated. This
also suggests that the purpose of emotion is to motivate. Schachter’s two-factor theory
suggests that environmental cues influence one’s interpretation of the autonomic arousal being
experienced so that particular labels are applied to emotional experiences. We then behave in
accordance with the label. This also implies that the mechanism of emotion operates for the
purpose of guiding behaviour in particular directions.
138
Suppose you are a university counsellor who wants to develop a program to improve students’
academic performance. You believe that many students perform poorly because of
motivational problems, including simple lack of motivation as well as being motivated by the
wrong things. What are some of the considerations that should guide the design of your
program?
Much of what theory and research have to say about motivation is relevant in designing such a
program. Good answers to this question should include and flesh out several of the following
points:
The problem of lack of incentive can be dealt with, in part, by remembering that motivation
can be influenced by incentives. Expectancy-value models can be useful here. It’s important
to know that some motives are biological, some social. One’s level of motivation to perform
well in school depends on social experiences and can thus be manipulated through social
experience. It may be possible to link motivation to perform well in school with other motives
that are already stronger, such as the need for affiliation. Success along these lines will require
understanding the nature of individual differences in levels of these other motives. People
with different levels of achievement motivation respond differently to different levels of
challenge. Finally, fear of failure also influences efforts toward achievement.
139
Compare and contrast sexual motivation with the basic motives of hunger and thirst. How
well do the concepts of drive and homeostasis contribute to understanding sexual motivation?
Good answers will include and elaborate upon the following points: All are biologically
based, though hunger and thirst are necessary for individual survival and sex is not (though
some individuals might argue this point). All three seem to conform to the definition of
“drive.” But sexual motivation is not driven by deprivation as much as the other two, so that
its satisfaction is not as easily explained in terms of homeostasis or maintaining equilibrium.
Sexual motivation in humans appears to be more under the influence of incentives than are
hunger and thirst. All are influenced by a complex network of biological and social factors
140
When John clenches his fists and thinks about hitting his supervisor, which components of
emotions are illustrated?
a. behavioural and affective
b. cognitive and behavioural
c. cognitive and physiological
d. physiological and self-protective
b. cognitive and behavioural
141
2. Which area of John’s brain would become active as he gains control over his emotions?
a. right hemisphere
b. prefrontal cortex
c. amygdala
d. mesolimbic dompamine pathway
b. prefrontal cortex
142
. Which type of logical fallacy was uttered by John’s supervisor?
a. slippery slope
b. false dichotomy
c. weak analogy
d. non sequitur
d. non sequitur
143
Which areas of the brain are likely to be active as John experiences fear about his big
presentation?
a. lateral hypothalamus
b. right frontal lobe
c. amygdala
d. cerebellum
c. amygdala
144
Which theory best accounts for John’s interest in eating at the breakfast meeting?
a. incentive
b. drive
c. settling-point
d. homeostatic
a. incentive
145
Which theorists agree that autonomic arousal precedes the conscious experience of emotion?
a. James, Lange, and Schachter
b. Maslow, McClelland, and Murray
c. Cannon, Bard, and Atkinson
d. Tomkins, Izard, and Plutchik
a. James, Lange, and Schachter
146
“We can ban cyberporn, or we can hasten the moral decay of modern society.” Which fallacy
does this example illustrate?
a. slippery slope
b. weak analogy
c. false dichotomy
d. circular reasoning
c. false dichotomy
147
“Either the government reduces taxes or it demonstrates that it hates entrepreneurs.” Which
fallacy does this example illustrate?
a. false dichotomy
b. weak analogy
c. circular argument
d. slippery slope
a. false dichotomy
148
Which of the following asserts that two concepts or events are similar in some way?
a. dichotomy
b. slippery slope
c. analogy
d. argument
c. analogy
149
Which of the following asserts that two concepts or events are similar in some way?
a. dichotomy
b. slippery slope
c. analogy
d. argument
c. analogy
150
Which of the following is this statement an example of: “If marijuana is legalized, then the
next thing you know heroin will be legal.”
a. weak analogy
b. irrelevant reasoning
c. slippery slope
d. circular reasoning
c. slippery slope
151
Which of the following is this statement an example of: “We need to control cyberporn
because it currently is unregulated.”
a. irrelevant reasoning
b. circular reasoning
c. weak analogy
d. false dichotomy
b. circular reasoning
152
“We need to ban the use of videogames for children under the age of 12, because obesity
leads to serious health consequences.” Which fallacy does this example illustrate?
a. non sequitur
b. circular argument
c. weak analogy
d. false dichotomy
a. non sequitur
153
What is a non sequitur?
a. circular argument
b. weak analogy
c. false dichotomy
d. irrelevant reason
d. irrelevant reason
154
Complete the following analogy: Premises are to conclusions as _____
a. a bird is to feathers
b. legs are to a table
c. a USB key is to a computer
d. a pencil is to a pen
b. legs are to a table
155
Which of the following is a premise for which no proof of evidence is offered?
a. statement
b. argument
c. assumption
d. attribution
c. assumption
156
What is the term for reasons that are presented to persuade someone that a conclusion is true
or probably true?
a. arguments
b. attributions
c. pretences
d. premises
d. premises
157
What is hedonic adaptation?
a. the tendency to discount positive events that you have never experienced
b. the tendency to view positive events relative to a standard that is based on your
experience
c. the tendency for natural selection to act on beneficial emotional traits, but not on
maladaptive ones
d. the tendency to seek out pleasurable events
b. the tendency to view positive events relative to a standard that is based on your
experience
158
Marina and Deven both received a “C” on their last English papers. When she handed her
paper in, Marina didn’t think she had done very well. However, Deven was convinced that she
had written an “A” paper. What should you expect, based on the research into the emotional
impact of unexpected outcomes?
a. Both students will be equally disappointed by the grades they received.
b. Marina will be more disappointed by the grade that she received.
c. Deven will be more disappointed by the grade that she received.
d. Neither student will be disappointed by the grades they received, because a “C” is
still a passing grade.
c. Deven will be more disappointed by the grade that she received.
159
Fernando and Isabelle are both seniors at Central High, and their school’s basketball team just
won the divisional championship. Fernando was certain the Central High team would be
eliminated early, while Isabelle was certain their team would win the divisional title. What
will Isabelle do compared to Fernando, based on the research into the emotional impact of
unexpected outcomes?
a. be less excited by Central High’s win, because it was what she expected
b. be more excited by Central High’s win, because it was what she expected
c. underestimate Central High’s chances for future victories
d. overestimate Central High’s chances for future victories
a. be less excited by Central High’s win, because it was what she expected
160
Which of the following statements regarding happiness is least accurate?
a. The quest for happiness is never hopeless.
b. Increases in income generally bring increases in happiness.
c. When it comes to happiness, everything is relative.
d. Objective realities are not as important as subjective feelings.
b. Increases in income generally bring increases in happiness.
161
Which of the following variables would be considered the best predictor of happiness?
a. intelligence
b. health
c. money
d. personality
d. personality
162
Which of the following is true when comparing various factors associated with happiness?
a. Income and status play larger roles than do health and social activity.
b. Internal factors are more important than external factors.
c. Parenthood and culture play larger roles than do work and personality.
d. Physical factors are more important than emotional factors
b. Internal factors are more important than external factors
163
Which would be considered the best predictor of happiness out of the following variables?
a. parenthood
b. intelligence
c. health
d. money
c. health
164
What is the correlation between health status and subjective well-being?
a. negligible
b. strongly positive
c. moderately positive
d. negative
c. moderately positive
165
. If Mary is very attractive, what can you predict about her level of happiness?
a. She is likely exactly average in terms of happiness.
b. She is likely happier than average.
c. She is likely less happy than average.
d. She may have any level of happiness
d. She may have any level of happiness
166
Which of the following statements regarding the relationship between parenthood and
happiness is most accurate?
a. The more children people have, the happier they tend to be.
b. People who have children are less happy than people without children.
c. People who have children are happier than people without children.
d. People who have children are neither more, nor less, happy than people without
children.
d. People who have children are neither more, nor less, happy than people without
children
167
Which of the following best characterizes the correlation between income and subjective
feelings of happiness?
a. positive, but weak
b. positive and strong
c. negative, but weak
d. negligible
a. positive, but weak
168
Which of the following has research shown is NOT very important in determining one’s
happiness?
a. work
b. personality
c. money
d. love and marriage
c. money
169
What is typically found when people are asked to rate their happiness?
a. Only those who are relatively healthy consider themselves happy.
b. The vast majority indicate that they are unhappy.
c. About half the respondents indicate that they are happy.
d. A small minority place themselves below the neutral point on the scale.
d. A small minority place themselves below the neutral point on the scale
170
Your text describes a number of approaches for explaining the experience of emotion. Which
of the following is supported by these differences?
a. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes.
b. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context.
c. Psychology is empirical.
d. Psychology is theoretically diverse
d. Psychology is theoretically diverse
171
The controversies surrounding evolutionary theory, aggressive pornography, and the
determinants of sexual orientation are evidence for which of the following unifying themes of
your text?
a. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes.
b. Psychology is empirical.
c. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context.
d. Our behaviour is shaped by our cultural heritage
a. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes.
172
As the three children approached the house that everyone claimed was haunted, Yvette was
apprehensive, Mackenzie was afraid, and Jayme was terrified. What would Robert Plutchik
suggest about the experience of the three children?
a. They were experiencing different unique primary emotions.
b. They were each labelling their emotions differently due to differences in
experience.
c. They were experiencing different intensities of the same primary emotion.
d. They were experiencing different unique secondary emotions.
c. They were experiencing different intensities of the same primary emotion.
173
When the strikers learned that their union’s latest offer had been turned down by management,
Raj was annoyed, Sylvester was angry, and Levi was enraged. What would Robert Plutchik
suggest about the emotions of the three men?
a. They were each labelling their emotions differently due to differences in
experience.
b. They were experiencing different unique primary emotions.
c. They were experiencing different intensities of the same primary emotion.
d. They were experiencing different unique secondary emotions
c. They were experiencing different intensities of the same primary emotion.
174
Evolutionary theorists propose that there are only a few innate primary emotions. What do
they use to explain the great variety of emotions that people describe?
a. suppressing natural reactions to stimuli
b. forming new associations to original cues
c. blends of primary emotions and variations in intensity
d. learning new reactions later in life
c. blends of primary emotions and variations in intensity
175
How do evolutionary theorists account for the many different emotions that humans are
capable of experiencing?
a. Humans use their advanced cognitive skills to make fine distinctions between
emotions.
b. Each emotion is associated with its own distinctive pattern of autonomic arousal.
c. A small number of primary emotions can occur in various combinations and at
various intensities.
d. Each and every specific emotion evolved separately
c. A small number of primary emotions can occur in various combinations and at
various intensities
176
Which of the following is NOT part of the assumptions of evolutionary theories of emotion?
a. Humans have a relatively small number of innate emotions with adaptive value.
b. Emotions evolved after thought did.
c. Emotions originate in subcortical brain structures.
d. Emotions are largely innate
b. Emotions evolved after thought did.
177
Imagine that your house is on fire and you are afraid. Which of the following explanations
best represents evolutionary theories of emotion?
a. “My fear is a built-in, primary reaction to a dangerous situation.”
b. “My shaking must be due to fear, since my house is on fire.”
c. “I'm shaking because I’m afraid.”
d. “I'm afraid because I’m shaking.”
a. “My fear is a built-in, primary reaction to a dangerous situation
178
Which of the following reflects evolutionary theories of emotion?
a. The experience of emotion depends on autonomic arousal and your cognitive
interpretation of that arousal.
b. Emotions occur when the thalamus sends signals simultaneously to the cortex and
to the autonomic nervous system.
c. Emotions developed because of their adaptive value.
d. Different patterns of autonomic activation lead to the experience of different
emotions.
c. Emotions developed because of their adaptive value.
179
Akbar takes an antihistamine, but he doesn’t realize that the medication will also increase his
overall level of autonomic arousal. Thirty minutes after he has taken the medication, he is
introduced to Stella. If Akbar incorrectly attributes his increased arousal as attraction for
Stella, which of the following theories would be supported by this example?
a. Cannon-Bard theory of emotion
b. James-Lange theory of emotion
c. Izard’s evolutionary theory of emotion
d. Schachter’s two-factor theory of emotion
d. Schachter’s two-factor theory of emotion
180
It is Emilie’s ninth birthday, and her parents have just brought out the biggest birthday present
she has ever seen. Her eyes widen and her heart starts to race as she eagerly tears the
wrappings off her gift. How should Emilie describe her experience based on the two-factor
theory of emotion?
a. “My pulse is racing because I am happy.”
b. “This huge present makes my pulse race and it makes me feel happy.”
c. “My racing pulse means I am happy because I interpret this as an enjoyable
situation.”
d. “I feel happy because my pulse is racing.”
c. “My racing pulse means I am happy because I interpret this as an enjoyable
situation.”
181
Imagine that your house is on fire and you are afraid. Which of the following explanations
best represents Schachter’s two-factor theory?
a. “I'm afraid because I’m shaking.”
b. “I'm shaking because I’m afraid.”
c. “My fear is a built-in, primary reaction to a dangerous situation.”
d. “My shaking must be due to fear, since my house is on fire.”
d. “My shaking must be due to fear, since my house is on fire.”
182
“General bodily arousal contributes to emotion, but one’s interpretation of what is happening
gives the specific emotion.” Which of the following theorists is most likely to have made that
statement?
a. Ivan Pavlov
b. Stanley Schachter
c. William James
d. Walter Cannon
b. Stanley Schachter
183
What is emphasized in Schachter’s concept of emotion?
a. We can have emotions without bodily arousal.
b. Thoughts precede felt emotion.
c. Different emotions must be based on different patterns of arousal.
d. Both bodily arousal and our interpretation of the arousal play a role in emotion
d. Both bodily arousal and our interpretation of the arousal play a role in emotion
184
What do we use to distinguish between the experience of different emotions, according to
Schachter’s two-factor theory of emotion?
a. our interpretation of the situation
b. emotional expression of others
c. type of behaviour involved
d. type of bodily pattern involved
a. our interpretation of the situation
185
Which of the following reflects Schachter’s two-factor theory of emotion?
a. The experience of emotion depends on autonomic arousal and your cognitive
interpretation of that arousal.
b. Emotion occurs when the thalamus sends signals simultaneously to the cortex and
to the autonomic nervous system.
c. Emotions develop because of their adaptive value.
d. Different patterns of autonomic activation lead to the experience of different
emotions.
a. The experience of emotion depends on autonomic arousal and your cognitive
186
Which of the following factors is NOT considered in the common-sense view of emotions, the
James-Lange theory of emotions, or the Cannon-Bard theory of emotions?
a. interaction between physiological responses and conscious experiences
b. expressive reactions
c. physiological responses
d. cognitive interpretations
d. cognitive interpretations
187
While Walter is out riding, his horse suddenly rears up when a small animal scurries across
the path. How should Walter describe his experience based on the Cannon-Bard theory of
emotions?
a. “My heart is racing because I am terrified.”
b. “The rearing of the horse makes my heart race and it makes me feel terrified.”
c. “My racing heart must mean I’m terrified because this situation is dangerous.”
d. “I feel terrified because my heart is racing.”
b. “The rearing of the horse makes my heart race and it makes me feel terrified
188
When does the conscious experience of emotion occur, relative to physiological arousal,
according to the Cannon-Bard theory?
a. only when arousal is absent
b. after physiological arousal
c. at the same time as physiological arousal
d. prior to physiological arousal
c. at the same time as physiological arousal
189
As Erica watched the televised drawing of lottery numbers, she realized she had the winning
combination. Which theory would be supported if her heart starts to race at the same instant
that she feels euphoria over winning the lottery?
a. James-Lange theory of emotion
b. Schachter’s two-factor theory of emotion
c. Izard’s evolutionary theory of emotion
d. Cannon-Bard theory of emotion
d. Cannon-Bard theory of emotion
190
Imagine that an individual has taken medication that has lowered his or her overall level of
autonomic arousal. Which theory would be supported if this person reports less intense
emotional experiences??
a. common-sense view of emotion
b. Cannon-Bard theory of emotion
c. James-Lange theory of emotion
d. facial feedback hypothesis
c. James-Lange theory of emotion
191
Dylan is on a roller coaster that has just reached the top of the first climb and is starting to
drop. How should Dylan describe his experience based on the James-Lange theory of
emotions?
a. “My racing heart must mean I’m terrified because everyone else is screaming.”
b. “The sight of the drop makes my heart race and it makes me feel terrified.”
c. “I feel terrified because my heart is racing.”
d. “My heart is racing because I am terrified.”
c. “I feel terrified because my heart is racing.”
192
Imagine that your house is on fire and you are afraid. Which of the following explanations
best represents the James-Lange theory?
a. “I’m afraid because I’m shaking.”
b. “My fear is a built-in, primary reaction to a dangerous situation.”
c. “My shaking must be due to fear, since my house is on fire.”
d. “I’m shaking because I’m afraid.
a. “I’m afraid because I’m shaking.”
193
. Which determinants of emotion are central to the James-Lange theory?
a. behavioural
b. cognitive
c. physiological
d. psychological
c. physiological
194
Your perception of which of the following results in your conscious experience of emotion,
according to the James-Lange theory of emotions?
a. tension in the facial muscles
b. autonomic arousal
c. others’ emotions
d. skin conductancy
b. autonomic arousal
195
As Tevin walked into the strange house, the lights suddenly went out and he heard a loud
growl off to one side. What should Tevin report, based on the common sense view of
emotions?
a. “This situation makes me tremble and it makes me feel afraid.”
b. “I feel afraid because I am trembling.”
c. “I am trembling because I am afraid.”
d. “My trembling must be fear because this situation is dangerous.”
c. “I am trembling because I am afraid.”
196
What is the term for cultural norms that regulate the appropriate expression of emotions?
a. polygraphs
b. display rules
c. emotional cues
d. cognitions
b. display rules
197
Which of the following does NOT share cross-cultural similarity?
a. the types of events that trigger specific emotions
b. identification of basic emotions from facial expressions
c. the categorization of different emotions
d. the physiological arousal that accompanies emotion
c. the categorization of different emotions
198
Which of the following has been found by Ekman, who has conducted a number of studies of
facial expressions associated with emotions?
a. There is variance in expression of the same emotion from culture to culture.
b. There are six fundamental emotions that almost everyone agrees on.
c. There are too many different emotions to identify.
d. There are common expressions for happiness and sadness only
b. There are six fundamental emotions that almost everyone agrees on.
199
Which of the following emotional expressions is NOT consistently identified cross-culturally,
according to research results?
a. sadness
b. suspicion
c. fear
d. happiness
b. suspicion
200
Which of the following is NOT an emotion that is easily identified from facial cues in
photographs, according to research by Paul Ekman and Wallace Friesen?
a. anger
b. happiness
c. contentment
d. fear
c. contentment
201
Which of the following statements regarding the behavioural expression of emotion is least
accurate?
a. The facial expressions that go with the basic emotions seem to be innate.
b. Facial expressions reveal a variety of basic emotions.
c. People are reasonably skilled at deciphering emotions from others’ facial
expressions.
d. People who have been blind since birth do not smile and frown as sighted people
do
d. People who have been blind since birth do not smile and frown as sighted people
do
202
Diane has been feeling somewhat down for the past few days. Her sister suggests that if Diane
smiled a little more, she might feel better. Which of the following is consistent with that
suggestion?
a. common-sense view of emotion
b. James-Lange theory of emotion
c. two-factor theory of emotion
d. facial feedback hypothesis
d. facial feedback hypothesis
203
Warrick was posing for his girlfriend while she painted a picture for her art class. She had
asked him to hold his mouth in a frown because she was trying to depict someone who was
sad and dejected. Now that he has finished posing, Warrick finds that he is feeling somewhat
unhappy, but he is not really sure why. Which of the following is this type of reaction
consistent with?
a. facial feedback hypothesis
b. common-sense view of emotion
c. James-Lange theory of emotion
d. two-factor theory of emotion
a. facial feedback hypothesis
204
Which of the following states that muscles of the face send information to the brain and that
information affects the emotion we feel?
a. James-Lange theory
b. Darwin’s facial expression theory
c. facial feedback hypothesis
d. Schachter’s cognitive theory
c. facial feedback hypothesis
205
What does the facial feedback hypothesis suggest?
a. The internal state causes the facial expression.
b. A facial expression is simply an external sign of the internal feelings.
c. You can affect how you feel by making a certain facial expression.
d. Other people can identify your emotional state by observing your facial
expressions..
c. You can affect how you feel by making a certain facial expression.
206
Ezra is watching a movie, and as the star of the movie tries to deal with various difficulties,
Ezra finds himself laughing uncontrollably, with tears streaming down his face. What does
this example illustrate?
a. behavioural component in Ezra’s emotional experience
b. physiological component in Ezra’s emotional experience
c. objective component in Ezra’s emotional experience
d. cognitive component in Ezra’s emotional experience
a. behavioural component in Ezra’s emotional experience
207
Renaud is describing a whitewater rafting trip. As he talks about the raft crashing through
rapids, Tiana’s mouth drops, and she finds she is clutching at the arms of her chair. What does
this example illustrate?
a. behavioural component in Tiana’s emotional experience
b. physiological component in Tiana’s emotional experience
c. objective component in Tiana’s emotional experience
d. cognitive component in Tiana’s emotional experience
a. behavioural component in Tiana’s emotional experience
208
Which of the following brain areas is associated with voluntary control over emotions?
a. limbic system
b. prefrontal cortex
c. thalamus
d. amygdala
b. prefrontal cortex
209
Karen is about to be attacked by a snarling dog. The sensory information about this event
arrives at her thalamus. What happens next in her brain?
a. Information is sent on a fast pathway to the amygdala, and a slow pathway to the
cortex.
b. Information is sent to visual and auditory cortex for rapid perception of the stimuli.
c. Information is sent rapidly to the cortex so that the emotional content of the event
can be processed.
d. The thalamus immediately inhibits the emotional content of the event so she can
cope with the event
a. Information is sent on a fast pathway to the amygdala, and a slow pathway to the
cortex
210
Which of the following emotions has research on the role of the amygdala in the modulation
of emotion focused on mainly?
a. surprise
b. fear
c. sadness
d. happiness
b. fear
211
Which of the following plays a particularly central role in the modulation of emotion?
a. temporal lobe
b. amygdala
c. pineal gland
d. thalamus
b. amygdala
212
. Victoria is extremely upset because she has been falsely accused of stealing money from her
employer. Her lawyer has suggested that Victoria take a polygraph test to prove her
innocence. Victoria asks for your opinion. What should you tell her based on the research into
the accuracy of polygraphs?
a. They sometimes wrongly indicate that innocent people are guilty, but are highly
accurate in detecting guilt.
b. They measure only overall arousal levels and are not reliable indicators of whether
or not people are lying.
c. They are extremely accurate, and if Victoria is truly innocent she will pass with no
problem.
d. They sometimes wrongly indicate that guilty people are innocent, but are highly
accurate in detecting innocence.
b. They measure only overall arousal levels and are not reliable indicators of whether
or not people are lying.
213
Which of the following statements about polygraphs is most accurate?
a. Polygraphs can detect lying with almost 100 percent accuracy.
b. Polygraphs can detect positive emotional states with a high degree of accuracy and
negative emotional states with a low degree of accuracy.
c. Polygraphs can detect emotionality that accompanies lying some of the time, but
with a high error rate.
d. Polygraphs cannot detect emotionality at all
c. Polygraphs can detect emotionality that accompanies lying some of the time, but
with a high error rate.
214
What is the name for a device that measures autonomic arousal by recording heart rate,
respiration rate, and blood pressure?
a. electromyocardiograph
b. galvanic response meter
c. electroencephalograph
d. polygraph
d. polygraph
215
What is the galvanic skin response used for?
a. general measure of autonomic arousal
b. measure of the subjective experience of emotion
c. index of honesty
d. measure of conscious emotion
a. general measure of autonomic arousal
216
As Danica saw the headlights coming directly at her through the fog on the highway, her
blood pressure rose quickly, and she felt her heart start to race. What does this example
illustrate?
a. behavioural component in Danica’s emotional experience
b. physiological component in Danica’s emotional experience
c. objective component in Danica’s emotional experience
d. cognitive component in Danica’s emotional experience
b. physiological component in Danica’s emotional experience
