Unit 8 Chapter 14 Flashcards
1
Q
Which of the following is true, according to the medical model?
a. All physical illnesses have a psychological component.
b. Abnormal behaviour can be thought of as a disease.
c. All mental illnesses are caused by biological factors.
d. All mental illnesses can be treated using drugs
A
b. Abnormal behaviour can be thought of as a disease.
2
Q
Which of the following models goes with the concept that abnormal behaviour is the result of
a disease?
a. psychological
b. humanistic
c. medical
d. behavioura
A
c. medical
3
Q
. With which model of abnormal behaviour are the terms “mental illness” and
“psychopathology” most closely associated?
a. humanistic
b. learning
c. psychodynamic
d. medical
A
d. medical
4
Q
Dr. Cueto believes that psychological disorders can be diagnosed, treated, and possibly cured,
just like physical illnesses. Which of the following models of abnormal behaviour are
reflected by Dr. Cueto’s beliefs?
a. medical
b. psychodynamic
c. behavioural
d. deviance
A
a. medical
5
Q
Thomas Szasz criticized the medical model. What was his major complaint?
a. The model is not well understood by its practitioners.
b. Uniformity of behaviour patterns cannot be established from the medical model
viewpoint.
c. No evidence exists to support the efficiency of the medical model’s treatment
approaches.
d. Most abnormal behaviour reflects a moral judgment about what is socially
acceptable or unacceptable behaviour.
A
d. Most abnormal behaviour reflects a moral judgment about what is socially
acceptable or unacceptable behaviour.
6
Q
Complete the following analogy: Diagnosis is to etiology as ____________
a. what is to why.
b. when is to where.
c. why is to what.
d. where is to when
A
a. what is to why.
7
Q
. What is the term for the apparent causation and developmental history of an illness?
a. etiology
b. epidemiology
c. prognosis
d. diagnosis
A
a. etiology
8
Q
What is etiology?
a. study of mental illness
b. collection of a group of symptoms
c. projected course of a condition
d. apparent cause of a condition
A
d. apparent cause of a condition
9
Q
Dr. Underhill is reviewing the records from a patient who has just been referred for treatment.
He is carefully considering the symptoms that have been documented, and is attempting to
identify the type of psychological disorder the individual is most likely to have. What is Dr.
Underhill trying to create?
a. diagnosis
b. etiology
c. histology
d. prognosis
A
a. diagnosis
10
Q
What is a prognosis?
a. plan for treating an illness
b. distinction between two similar illnesses
c. forecast about the probable course of an illness
d. apparent causation and developmental history of an illness
A
c. forecast about the probable course of an illness
11
Q
Which of the following terms refers to the future course of a condition or illness?
a. etiological forecast
b. prognosis
c. foreclosure
d. diagnosis
A
b. prognosis
12
Q
. Dr. Wabush is asking her newest client questions about his life history. She is particularly
interested in any recent stressful events that the client may have experienced. What is Dr.
Wabush doing?
a. developing a prognosis for her client
b. trying to determine an appropriate diagnosis
c. engaging in naturalistic observation
d. trying to understand the etiology of her client’s current illness
A
d. trying to understand the etiology of her client’s current illness
13
Q
Mario has just entered treatment for a major depressive episode. He is told that most patients
respond to treatment within a month, and many never experience a second depressive episode.
What does this information represent?
a. histology
b. prognosis
c. etiology
d. diagnosis
A
b. prognosis
14
Q
Complete the following analogy: Diagnosis is to prognosis as _______
a. outcome is to etiology.
b. what is to outcome.
c. why is to what.
d. ontogeny is to phylogeny
A
b. what is to outcome
15
Q
Complete the following analogy: Prognosis is to etiology as __________
a. why is to what.
b. outcome is to why.
c. what is to why.
d. why is to outcome.
A
b. outcome is to why.
16
Q
What is the term used to describe behaviour that does not coincide with cultural norms?
a. insane
b. personally distressing
c. maladaptive
d. deviant
A
d. deviant
17
Q
Wendy works at Dyne Corporation. At the last business executive meeting she showed up in
pyjamas and slippers. When her coworkers commented on the inappropriateness of her outfit,
Wendy did not seem the least bit disturbed or embarrassed by their comments. What is the
best description for Wendy’s style of dressing, in this example?
a. delusional
b. personally distressing
c. maladaptive
d. culturally deviant
A
d. culturally deviant
18
Q
Hamilton has embezzled over $3 million from the bank where he is employed as an executive
loan officer. He feels no remorse for his actions, and he is looking forward to an early
retirement in some South American country with no extradition agreement. Which term best
describes Hamilton’s embezzling behaviour in this example?
a. maladaptive
b. legal insanity
c. culturally deviant
d. personally distressing
A
c. culturally deviant
19
Q
Ben is not a very conscientious individual. He often sleeps late in the morning, and on
mornings when he oversleeps, he usually just skips work. He has been fired from four jobs in
the past year, but he is not concerned because he feels that there are lots of other jobs
available. Which of the following terms best describes Ben’s lack of dedication?
a. personally distressing
b. legally incompetent
c. culturally deviant
d. maladaptive
A
d. maladaptive
20
Q
Summer has anorexia nervosa and is slowly starving herself to death. When friends or family
tell her to seek professional help, she tells them that she feels fine. She can’t understand why
people won’t just leave her alone. Which of the following terms best describes Summer’s
eating disorder?
a. personally distressing
b. delusional
c. culturally deviant
d. maladaptive
A
d. maladaptive
21
Q
Kashi enjoys gambling so much that he does it every day, totally neglecting his family and
job. Which criterion of abnormality does Kashi’s behaviour satisfy most clearly?
a. persistence
b. maladaptive behaviour
c. personal distress
d. deviance
A
b. maladaptive behaviour
22
Q
Corrina constantly experiences feelings of dread and despair. Lately, she finds that she is
thinking more and more about committing suicide so she can end her feelings of desperation
and hopelessness. Which of the following terms best describes Corrina’s feelings of dread and
despair?
a. signs of incompetence
b. delusions
c. personally distressing
d. culturally deviant
A
c. personally distressing
23
Q
Treit’s best friend was seriously injured in a car accident last month. Since that time Treit has
been attending all his classes, but he feels like he is unable to pay attention because he is
constantly thinking about his friend. Treit finds he can’t seem to think about anything else,
and he is frequently overwhelmed by feelings of helplessness. Which of the following terms
best describes Treit’s feelings?
a. culturally deviant
b. personally distressing
c. delusional
d. compulsive
A
b. personally distressing
24
Q
Many people believe that those with mental illness are violence-prone. Why is this belief
common?
a. There actually is a strong association between mental illness and violent
tendencies.
b. Incidents of violence involving people with mental illness receive a great deal of
media attention.
c. Many people have personally been the victims of such violence.
d. Violence is much more common among mental patients than among the general
population.
A
b. Incidents of violence involving people with mental illness receive a great deal of
media attention
25
Rosa is the personnel director at Acme Enterprises. If she finds that an individual who has
applied for employment has ever been treated for a psychological disorder, she doesn’t
consider that person for a job. She is concerned that the person will have another breakdown
under the stressful conditions that exist at Acme Enterprises. Which of the following
stereotypes is illustrated in this example?
a. Psychological disorders are often over-diagnosed.
b. All psychological disorders are incurable.
c. People with psychological disorders behave in bizarre ways.
d. People with psychological disorders are often dangerous.
b. All psychological disorders are incurable
26
When Erskine found out that his daughter’s Grade 5 teacher had once been treated for a
psychological disorder, he insisted that his daughter be transferred to a different classroom.
He was concerned for her safety, and the safety of her classmates, and tried to have the
individual barred from teaching in the public school system. Which stereotype is illustrated in
this example?
a. Psychological disorders often go unrecognized.
b. Psychological disorders are incurable.
c. People with psychological disorders are often dangerous.
d. People with psychological disorders behave in bizarre ways.
c. People with psychological disorders are often dangerous.
27
Johanna was somewhat surprised when her study partner postponed a study session because
he had an appointment with his psychotherapist. When she was talking to a friend about the
postponed study session she commented, “I have been working on projects with this student
for several months now, and he has never shown any signs of having a psychological
disorder.” Johanna’s comment suggests that she holds which of the following inaccurate
stereotypes?
a. People with psychological disorders are often dangerous.
b. The mental health system has a powerful bias toward seeing pathology in
everyone.
c. Psychological disorders are incurable.
d. People with psychological disorders behave in bizarre ways.
d. People with psychological disorders behave in bizarre ways.
28
What was demonstrated in Rosenhan’s study using “pseudopatients”?
a. Our mental health system is biased toward seeing mental illness in all potential
patients.
b. Most mental patients are extensively observed before an initial diagnosis is made.
c. It is extremely difficult to successfully fake the symptoms of serious mental
illness.
d. Mental hospital staff often spend a great deal of time interacting with patients.
a. Our mental health system is biased toward seeing mental illness in all potential
patients.
29
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from Rosenhan’s study that used
“pseudopatients”?
a. Most behaviour patterns are basically the same in people being diagnosed as
abnormal.
b. The validity of diagnostic categories in DSM-III-R is very suspect in
distinguishing between normal and abnormal persons.
c. Once one has been diagnosed as abnormal, subsequent behaviour gets interpreted
in a manner consistent with the diagnosis.
d. Distinguishing between schizophrenic subtypes is almost impossible.
c. Once one has been diagnosed as abnormal, subsequent behaviour gets interpreted
in a manner consistent with the diagnosis.
30
Which of the following is true of the current classification system for psychological disorders
(DSM-IV)?
a. It contains fewer disorders than previous systems, making it easier to use.
b. It avoids giving people potentially stigmatizing diagnostic labels.
c. It recognizes the importance of information other than a traditional diagnostic
label.
d. It has been shown to be extremely unreliable.
c. It recognizes the importance of information other than a traditional diagnostic
label.
31
Using the DSM-IV, on which axis would disorders of mood be recorded?
a. Axis I
b. Axis III
c. Axis IV
d. Axis X
a. Axis I
32
Using the DSM-IV, where would personality and developmental disorders be recorded?
a. Axis I
b. Axis II
c. Axis III
d. Axis IV
b. Axis II
33
. DSM-IV uses five “axes” to describe a person’s problem. Which axis contains the actual
diagnosis of a disorder?
a. Axis I
b. Axis II
c. Axis I and/or Axis II
d. Axis V
c. Axis I and/or Axis II
34
Lydia has gone in for a psychiatric assessment. She tells the clinician that lately she has been
feeling completely hopeless and dejected, and she no longer enjoys doing any of the things
she used to look forward to. On which axis of the DSM-IV would these symptoms be
recorded?
a. Axis I
b. Axis III
c. Axis IV
d. Axis X
a. Axis I
35
Colton has gone in for a psychiatric assessment. He tells the clinician that he has been hearing
voices that tell him to start building a lab in his basement. On which DSM-IV axis should this
information be recorded?
a. Axis I
b. Axis III
c. Axis IV
d. Axis X
a. Axis I
36
Jaffir has gone in for a psychiatric assessment. He tells the clinician that he has been feeling
detached from his surroundings since he started taking medication to control his high blood
pressure. On which DSM-IV axis should this information be recorded?
a. Axis I
b. Axis II
c. Axis III
d. Axis IV
c. Axis III
37
Blair has gone in for a psychiatric assessment. She meets all the criteria for Major Depressive
Disorder. Blair also tells the clinician that, just before her symptoms began, her husband
moved out and she lost her job. Using the DSM-IV, where would these pieces of information
be recorded?
a. Axis I and Axis II
b. Axis II and Axis X
c. Axis I and Axis IV
d. Axis II and Axis III
c. Axis I and Axis IV
38
. Mayank has gone in for a psychiatric assessment. He tells the clinician that he has been
feeling apprehensive and edgy for the last month, but so far his anxiety hasn’t seemed to have
had a major impact on either his job or his home life. Which DSM-IV scale should be used if
the clinician wants to record this information as part of Mayank’s global assessment of
functioning?
a. Axis IV
b. Axis I or II
c. Axis V
d. Axis III
c. Axis V
39
Jeff has been diagnosed with both an anxiety disorder and a personality disorder. What term
refers to this joint diagnosis?
a. dual diagnosis
b. bipathology
c. comorbidity
d. additive diagnosis
c. comorbidity
40
Depression and addiction are frequently comorbid. What does this mean?
a. Addiction causes depression.
b. If an individual is diagnosed with one, then he or she cannot also receive a
diagnosis for the other.
c. They are frequently diagnosed in the same individual.
d. Depression causes addiction.
c. They are frequently diagnosed in the same individual.
41
What would you study if you were an epidemiologist?
a. treatments for psychological disorders
b. distribution of mental or physical disorders in a population
c. how cultural values affect judgments of abnormality
d. sudden “epidemics” involving specific mental or physical disorders
b. distribution of mental or physical disorders in a population
42
What is the discipline that studies the incidence and distribution of mental or physical
disorders within a population?
a. demography
b. psychobiology
c. epidemiology
d. etiology
c. epidemiology
43
With regard to psychological disorders, what does prevalence refer to?
a. the percentage of a population that has ever been treated for a psychological
disorder
b. the reliability of the diagnosis of psychological disorders
c. the absolute number of people who are experiencing any psychological disorder at
a given point in time
d. the percentage of a population that exhibits a disorder during a specified time
period
d. the percentage of a population that exhibits a disorder during a specified time
period
44
Which of the following has been demonstrated in epidemiological studies of psychological
disorders?
a. There has been a significant decrease in prevalence rates of mental illness in
Canada in recent years.
b. Psychological disorders are more common than many people realize.
c. Epidemics involving psychological disorders are common.
d. Nearly everyone who needs treatment for psychological disorders receives it.
b. Psychological disorders are more common than many people realize
45
What percentage of the population will experience a psychological disorder at some time in
their lives, using the DSM-IV listings and lifetime prevalence?
a. less than 10 percent
b. 15 to 25 percent
c. approximately 50 percent
d. greater than 60 percent
c. approximately 50 percent
46
What proportion of individuals who reported symptoms consistent with mental disorders did
NOT seek assistance or treatment, according to data provided by Statistics Canada?
a. approximately 10 percent
b. approximately 25 percent
c. approximately 40 percent
d. approximately 65 percent
d. approximately 65 percent
47
Which disorder is characterized by free-floating anxiety?
a. phobic disorder
b. panic disorder
c. obsessive-compulsive disorder
d. generalized anxiety disorder
d. generalized anxiety disorder
48
Which of the following anxiety disorders does the cartoon character Charlie Brown, with his
chronic dread, pessimism, worrying, and brooding, have symptoms consistent with?
a. panic disorder
b. phobic disorder
c. obsessive-compulsive disorder
d. generalized anxiety disorder
d. generalized anxiety disorder
49
Which disorder is characterized by worry and fear, muscle tension, trembling, faintness, and
difficulty in concentrating?
a. conversion disorder
b. dissociative disorder
c. paranoid disorder
d. generalized anxiety disorder
d. generalized anxiety disorder
50
Which of the following symptoms is NOT associated with generalized anxiety disorder?
a. trembling
b. dizziness
c. delusions
d. diarrhea
c. delusions
51
Jim came home from the office trembling, irritable, unable to concentrate, experiencing
shortness of breath, and worrying about whether his business would still be open next week,
despite the fact that his business was evidencing its highest profit ever. Which disorder is
most consistent with these symptoms?
a. generalized anxiety disorder
b. phobic disorder
c. minor psychotic break
d. major depression
a. generalized anxiety disorder
52
Tak feels like he has been worrying constantly for the past four months. He is worried about
making his car payments, losing his job, and how his children are doing in school. He has also
started to experience dizziness and occasional heart palpitations. Which disorder is most
consistent with these symptoms?
a. panic disorder
b. obsessive-compulsive disorder
c. generalized anxiety disorder
d. hypochondriasis
c. generalized anxiety disorder
53
Elise is so terrified of enclosed places that she had to quit her new job because her office had
no windows. She knows that her fear is irrational, but she can’t seem to control her anxiety.
Which disorder is most consistent with Elise’s symptoms?
a. obsessive-compulsive disorder
b. phobic disorder
c. conversion disorder
d. generalized anxiety disorder
d. generalized anxiety disorder
54
What is the major difference between a phobic disorder and a generalized anxiety disorder?
a. Only the generalized anxiety disorder depends on past conditioning.
b. A phobic disorder is more severe and more difficult to treat.
c. Anxiety is specific to one object or situation in a phobic disorder, but is “free
floating” in generalized anxiety disorder.
d. Generalized anxiety disorder occurs primarily in men, and phobic disorders occur
primarily in women.
c. Anxiety is specific to one object or situation in a phobic disorder, but is “free
floating” in generalized anxiety disorder.
55
Ankha is so terrified of fire that she cannot light a match or even enjoy dinner by candlelight.
Which of the following disorders is most consistent with Ankha’s symptoms?
a. panic disorder
b. generalized anxiety disorder
c. phobic disorder
d. obsessive-compulsive disorder
c. phobic disorder
56
Charlie cannot tolerate heights. When walking up several flights of stairs, he breaks out in a
cold sweat, shakes, and believes he is going to fall and seriously injure himself. Consequently,
Charlie avoids any type of height at all costs. Which disorder is most consistent with Charlie’s
symptoms?
a. somatoform disorder
b. generalized anxiety disorder
c. phobic disorder
d. panic disorder
c. phobic disorder
57
Which condition is characterized by recurrent, intense, and sudden onset of anxiety?
a. panic disorder
b. paranoid disorder
c. generalized anxiety disorder
d. phobic disorder
a. panic disorder
58
Which of the following has been experienced by nearly one-third of students, according to
results of questionnaire studies of Canadian university students?
a. post-traumatic stress disorder
b. phobias
c. depression
d. panic
d. panic
59
Damian has brief attacks of overwhelming anxiety in which his heart pounds and he can’t
control his breathing. He never knows when the next attack will occur. Which disorder is most
consistent with Damian’s symptoms?
a. conversion disorder
b. generalized anxiety disorder
c. schizophrenia
d. panic disorder
d. panic disorder
60
Doris feels terrified every time she leaves her house, and avoids doing so whenever possible.
Which of the following is most consistent with Doris’s experience?
a. agoraphobia
b. claustrophobia
c. generalized anxiety disorder
d. obsessive-compulsive disorder
a. agoraphobia
61
What fear is most prominent in agoraphobia?
a. closed spaces
b. spiders
c. heights
d. going out to public places
d. going out to public places
62
What is the term for an unwanted thought that repeatedly intrudes upon an individual’s
consciousness?
a. hallucination
b. delusion
c. compulsion
d. obsession
d. obsession
63
Selena constantly thinks about climbing up the stairs to the roof of her building and jumping
into the street below. Which of the following could Selena’s uncontrollable thoughts be
considered an example of?
a. obsession
b. delusion
c. compulsion
d. hallucination
a. obsession
64
What is the term used to describe the behaviour of checking your alarm clock 20 times before
going to sleep?
a. compulsive
b. obsessive
c. amnesiac
d. phobic
a. compulsive
65
Grayson seems to be preoccupied with the possibility that he might miss an important
message from someone in his family. He checks for new messages on his phone every 15
minutes. Which of the following terms best describes this behaviour?
a. compulsion
b. obsession
c. hallucination
d. delusion
a. compulsion
66
Jack thinks constantly about dirt and germs. He washes his hands hundreds of times a day.
Which disorder is most consistent with Jack’s behaviour?
a. obsessive-compulsive disorder
b. phobic disorder
c. somatization disorder
d. hypochondriasis
a. obsessive-compulsive disorder
67
Kate constantly thinks about jumping in front of an oncoming car when she is walking. The
only way she seems to be able to stop these self-destructive thoughts is to say Mother Goose
nursery rhymes over and over to herself. Which disorder is most consistent with Kate’s
symptoms?
a. generalized anxiety disorder
b. obsessive-compulsive disorder
c. panic disorder
d. bipolar disorder
b. obsessive-compulsive disorder
68
Which of the following is true of people who suffer from an obsessive-compulsive disorder?
a. They can be treated with a form of aversive conditioning.
b. They feel they have lost control of their thoughts or actions.
c. They need to be institutionalized, as they cannot function in society in an
appropriate manner.
d. They find their thoughts and acts reassuring
b. They feel they have lost control of their thoughts or actions.
69
Angela experiences a lot of anxiety associated with housekeeping. The house is never clean
enough for her perfectionistic standards. If she sees anything that she considers to be ‘out of
place’ she has to put it away immediately. Recently, she has been spending approximately 10
hours each day cleaning, organizing and checking things around the house. In fact, her
cleaning has prevented her from having a full-time job and it has really damaged her
relationship with her husband and children. She doesn’t spend time with them and she is often
scolding them for being ‘messy’. All of this cleaning seems to be tied to the intrusive thoughts
that Angela experiences. She is always worried about germs and contamination, and when she
sees a dirty dish she can’t help but imagine that her whole family will die of food poisoning.
Which disorder is most consistent with Angela’s symptoms?
a. obsessive-compulsive disorder
b. bipolar disorder
c. generalized anxiety disorder
d. delusional disorder
a. obsessive-compulsive disorder
70
. On which axis of the DSM-IV would Angela’s disorder be recorded?
a. Axis IV
b. Axis II
c. Axis I
d. Axis III
c. Axis I
71
Which criteria of abnormality does Angela’s behaviour meet?
a. maladaptiveness and personal distress
b. deviance and maladaptiveness
c. insanity and deviance
d. personal distress and insanity
a. maladaptiveness and personal distress
72
Abnormalities in which of the following neurotransmitter circuits have been demonstrated to
be involved in Angela’s disorder?
a. epinephrine
b. melatonin
c. serotonin
d. dopamine
c. serotonin
73
Would Angela’s disorder mean that she would be found not criminally responsible if she was
convicted of a crime?
a. Yes, because her disorder is a diagnosable mental disorder.
b. Yes, because her disorder causes her to act like an automaton.
c. No, because she is capable of understanding criminal proceedings.
d. No, because she is not delusional and knows right from wrong
d. No, because she is not delusional and knows right from wrong
74
Michenne was giving a presentation to her class when suddenly the roof collapsed. Michenne
was not injured, herself, but she watched, helplessly, as her classmates were pinned under
mounds of rubble. She saw horrific injuries, and several of her classmates were killed in the
accident. If Michelle develops symptoms of a mental disorder, what disorder is most likely?
a. post-traumatic stress disorder
b. panic disorder
c. nonspecific phobia disorder
d. generalized anxiety disorder
a. post-traumatic stress disorder
75
Approximately what proportion of the population has experienced post-traumatic stress
disorder?
a. 7 percent
b. 27 percent
c. 45 percent
d. 75 percent
b. 27 percent
76
What does a concordance rate indicate?
a. agreement rates between physicians in diagnosing psychological disorders
b. the degree to which biological factors affect psychological adjustment
c. the percentage of twin pairs or other pairs of relatives who exhibit the same
disorder
d. the degree to which psychological factors affect physical health
c. the percentage of twin pairs or other pairs of relatives who exhibit the same
disorder
77
Trish has been diagnosed with an anxiety disorder. What is the lifetime risk that her identical
twin will also develop an anxiety disorder?
a. 5 percent
b. 35 percent
c. 65 percent
d. 100 percent
b. 35 percent
78
Ali has a psychological disorder, and her doctor has prescribed a drug that affects the levels of
GABA in her nervous system. What type of disorder is Ali most likely being treated for,
based on this information?
a. dissociative
b. anxiety
c. somatoform
d. schizophrenic
b. anxiety
79
Anique is being treated for a psychological disorder. As part of her treatment program, she is
taking medication that alters the activity of GABA synapses. Which type of disorder is she
likely being treated for?
a. anxiety
b. somatoform
c. personality
d. schizophrenic
a. anxiety
80
Abnormalities in certain neural circuits have recently been implicated in panic and obsessivecompulsive disorders. Which neurotransmitter is used in those defective circuits?
a. dopamine
b. acetylcholine
c. endorphin
d. serotonin
d. serotonin
81
How are phobic responses acquired and then maintained, according to Mowrer?
a. They are acquired by classical conditioning and maintained by operant
conditioning.
b. They are acquired and maintained by operant conditioning.
c. They are acquired and maintained by classical conditioning.
d. They are acquired by operant conditioning and maintained by classical
conditioning
a. They are acquired by classical conditioning and maintained by operant
conditioning.
82
What does Seligman’s concept of “preparedness” refer to?
a. a biological predisposition to be easily conditioned to fear certain things
b. the physical state or condition associated with a panic attack
c. psychological processes that accompany obsessive-compulsive behaviour patterns
d. a particular type of learning situation in which negatively reinforced behaviours
reduce the level of anxiety
a. a biological predisposition to be easily conditioned to fear certain things
83
Which of the following stimuli should one develop a phobia toward most easily, according to
Seligman’s concept of “preparedness”?
a. heights
b. rabbits
c. feet
d. chairs
a. heights
84
Which of the following factors are conditioning theories of anxiety disorders being revised to
include a greater emphasis of?
a. neurotransmitter
b. cognitive
c. constitutional
d. genetic
b. cognitive
85
Quinton’s father had an irrational fear of railroad crossings and would sometimes spend hours
planning family trips so that all railroad crossings were avoided. Which of the following
processes would best explain the acquisition of his phobia if Quinton also develops a fear of
railroad crossings?
a. reciprocal stress
b. observational learning
c. classical conditioning
d. operant conditioning
b. observational learning
86
Which of the following is NOT typical of the thinking in anxiety-prone individuals, according
to cognitive theorists?
a. selectively recalling information that appears to be threatening
b. excessive reliance on the representative and availability heuristics
c. misinterpreting harmless situations as being threatening
d. focusing excessive attention on perceived threats
b. excessive reliance on the representative and availability heuristics
87
Frank witnessed a horrible car accident but cannot remember anything about it. Which of the
following disorders is associated with Frank’s experience?
a. conversion disorder
b. dissociative amnesia
c. psychosis-induced repression
d. dissociative fugue
b. dissociative amnesia
88
Chantel’s children were killed in an automobile accident, which Chantel survived. When
police question her about the events surrounding the accident, Chantel is unable to remember
anything. She remembers getting into her car to drive her children to school, and she
remembers her trip by ambulance to the local hospital, but everything in between is a
complete “blank.” Which disorder is most consistent with Chantel’s experience?
a. generalized anxiety disorder
b. dissociative fugue
c. dissociative amnesia
d. panic disorder
c. dissociative amnesia
89
Carlos recently lost his family in a tragic fire. He is unable to remember any of the events that
occurred in the hours just before the fire. He is also unable to remember anything about the
actual fire, even though he went into the house three times during the fire, attempting to
rescue his family members. Which of the following is most consistent with Carlos’s
experience?
a. dissociative fugue
b. dissociative amnesia
c. panic disorder
d. generalized anxiety disorder
b. dissociative amnesia
90
Rescue workers found Zita sitting in basement rubble after a tornado destroyed several homes
in a neighbourhood. Even though she doesn’t appear to have suffered any physical injuries,
Zita is unable to remember who she is, how she got where she was found, or anything about
her personal life. Which of the following is consistent with Zita’s symptoms?
a. dissociative fugue
b. panic disorder
c. dissociative amnesia
d. generalized anxiety disorder
a. dissociative fugue
91
Simon recently walked into a hospital emergency room in Vancouver. He had no
identification, and although he didn’t appear to be hurt in any way, he had no idea who he was
or where he lived. A check of missing-person reports showed that Simon had walked away
from his home in Winnipeg ten days earlier. Which of the following is most consistent with
Simon’s symptoms?
a. panic disorder
b. generalized anxiety disorder
c. dissociative amnesia
d. dissociative fugue
d. dissociative fugue
92
Oscar was recently taken into custody in Toronto when he was found wandering the streets
with no identification. When the police questioned him, Oscar had no idea who he was or
where he lived. A check of missing persons showed that he had been missing from his home
in Nova Scotia for the past ten days. Which of the following disorders is most consistent with
Oscar’s symptoms?
a. panic disorder
b. dissociative fugue
c. dissociative amnesia
d. generalized anxiety disorder
b. dissociative fugue
93
Alexa started a new job on Monday morning. For the first three days she showed up in bright
colours and was outgoing and extroverted. However, on Thursday she showed up in a dark
suit and appeared shy and introverted. She insisted that her name was Clara, and she couldn't
understand why her coworkers kept calling her Alexa. Which disorder is consistent with
Alexa’s behaviour?
a. disorganized schizophrenia
b. antisocial personality disorder
c. dissociative identity disorder
d. bipolar disorder
c. dissociative identity disorder
94
Which of the following statements is least accurate concerning dissociative identity disorder?
a. Most individuals with dissociative identity disorder also have anxiety, mood, or
personality disorders.
b. The separate personalities are usually aware of one another.
c. Transitions between the separate identities often occur suddenly.
d. The separate identities can differ in age, race, gender, or sexual orientation
a. Most individuals with dissociative identity disorder also have anxiety, mood, or
personality disorders.
95
What is the most likely cause of psychogenic amnesia and fugue?
a. neurotic personality
b. unconscious recollections of childhood trauma
c. neurotransmitter imbalance
d. extreme stress
d. extreme stress
96
What group of disorders is associated with emotional disturbances that affect one’s physical,
perceptual, social, and thought processes?
a. dissociative disorder
b. anxiety disorder
c. mood disorder
d. somatoform disorder
c. mood disorder
97
. Samha finds she is no longer interested in things she used to do, is sad most of the time, and
thinks she is a terrible person. Additionally, she has recently lost a lot of weight and doesn’t
sleep very much. Which category of disorders is most consistent with Samha’s behaviour?
a. dissociative disorder
b. personality disorder
c. anxiety disorder
d. mood disorder
d. mood disorder
98
Which type of mood disorder is major depressive disorder?
a. unipolar
b. dissociative
c. bipolar
d. cyclical
a. unipolar
99
Which of the following symptoms is NOT associated with a depressive disorder?
a. altered appetite
b. insomnia
c. impulsive behaviour
d. feelings of worthlessness
c. impulsive behaviour
100
Carrie has been sad a lot lately. She is down on herself, has very little appetite, can’t sleep,
and doesn’t want to be around her friends or family. Which of the following is most consistent
with Carrie’s symptoms?
a. major depressive disorder
b. schizophrenia
c. dissociative identity disorder
d. hypochondriasis
a. major depressive disorder
101
Janae is an 18-year-old college freshman. She has missed almost all her classes for the past
month, and she spends most of her time in her bedroom. Frequently, she is still in her pajamas
when her parents come home from work, and she often hasn’t eaten anything all day. She
thinks her whole life is a failure, and she blames herself for being a social misfit whom
everyone hates. Which disorder is most consistent with Janae’s symptoms?
a. hypochondriasis
b. antisocial personality disorder
c. major depressive disorder
d. generalized anxiety disorder
c. major depressive disorder
102
Dean seems to have lost the ability to enjoy things that he used to enjoy. It’s as if nothing is
pleasurable anymore. What is the term for Dean’s current experience?
a. cyclothymia
b. avolition
c. anhedonia
d. major depression
c. anhedonia
103
For the past month Miko seems to have lost interest in most of his normal activities. He feels
irritable, and he has had difficulty sleeping. He also finds that he has difficulty making
decisions. Which disorder is most consistent with Miko’s symptoms?
a. generalized anxiety disorder
b. major depressive disorder
c. bipolar disorder
d. disorganized schizophrenia
b. major depressive disorder
104
What is the mean duration of depressive episodes?
a. 7 to 14 days
b. 4 to 6 weeks
c. 6 months
d. 1 year
c. 6 months
105
Which of the following statements is most accurate concerning the onset of depression?
a. The peak age of onset is during middle or late adulthood (age 40 and on).
b. The onset of depression can occur at any point in the lifespan.
c. Symptoms tend to be most severe when the disorder has a late onset.
d. Early onset cases are typically acute and do not recur later in life.
b. The onset of depression can occur at any point in the lifespan.
106
Adena has just recovered from her first episode of major depression. What is the likelihood
that Adena will experience a relapse within the next five years, based on the findings from
longitudinal studies?
a. approximately 60 percent
b. between 40 and 45 percent
c. just over 25 percent
d. less than 10 percent
a. approximately 60 percent
107
Antero always seems to be grumpy and irritable. He has a poor self-image and is usually
socially withdrawn. Although he never feels totally dejected and out of control, he feels that
life is not very exciting or enjoyable. Which disorder is most consistent with Antero’s
symptoms?
a. generalized anxiety disorder
b. dysthymic disorder
c. cyclothymic disorder
d. antisocial personality disorder
b. dysthymic disorder
108
Approximately what percentage of Canadians will experience a depressive disorder at some
time in their lives?
a. at least 72 percent
b. between 42 and 48 percent
c. between 25 and 30 percent
d. up to 10 percent
d. up to 10 percent
109
Which of the following represents the sex difference in incidence rates for depression?
a. It is nearly twice as frequent in women as in men.
b. It occurs nearly twice as frequently in men as in women.
c. It is nearly four times as frequent in women as in men.
d. It occurs with equal frequency in women and in men.
a. It is nearly twice as frequent in women as in men.
110
Which disorder can be considered a milder version of bipolar disorder?
a. rapid-cycling disorder
b. cyclothymic disorder
c. manic disorder
d. dysthymic disorder
b. cyclothymic disorder
111
Carina is 50 years old, and her moods are rather unpredictable. Some days she is excited and
happy, other days she is sad and withdrawn. Her symptoms seem fairly mild, but she has had
mood swings of this type since she was in her early 20s. Which disorder is most consistent
with Carina’s symptoms?
a. dysthymic disorder
b. cyclothymic disorder
c. dissociative identity disorder
d. undifferentiated schizophrenia
b. cyclothymic disorder
112
What is the diagnosis for individuals who alternate between periods of depression and periods
of being manic?
a. dissociative disorders
b. multiple personality disorder
c. bipolar disorder
d. conversion disorder
c. bipolar disorder
113
Which of the following symptoms is NOT associated with bipolar disorder?
a. hallucinations
b. decreased need for sleep
c. inflated self-esteem
d. sexually reckless behaviour
a. hallucinations
114
Tina has been extremely hyperactive for the past week, and she has been getting by with only
three hours of sleep each night. Her thoughts seem to be racing out of control, and she is
convinced that the novel she started last week will become a best seller and win a Pulitzer
Prize, even though she has never had any of her writing published in the past. Which of the
following is most consistent with Tina’s symptoms?
a. manic episode
b. generalized anxiety disorder
c. dissociative fugue
d. dysthymic disorder
a. manic episode
115
After several weeks of feeling gloomy and being socially withdrawn, Marco has suddenly
become extremely sociable and talkative. He doesn’t seem to need any sleep, and he becomes
irritated when his friends tell him to slow down. Which disorder is consistent with Marco’s
behaviour?
a. obsessive-compulsive disorder
b. bipolar disorder
c. histrionic personality disorder
d. schizophrenia
b. bipolar disorder
116
Charlotte is in a heightened emotional state and hasn’t been sleeping much lately.
Additionally, she is making plans to solve the world’s hunger problem while simultaneously
composing music (even though she’s never had musical training). Which disorder is most
consistent with Charlotte’s symptoms?
a. antisocial personality disorder
b. seasonal affective disorder
c. bipolar disorder
d. dissociative identity disorder
c. bipolar disorder
117
In what proportion of the population do bipolar disorders occur?
a. a little over 1 percent
b. approximately 7 percent
c. approximately 12 percent
d. just over 15 percent
a. a little over 1 percent
118
Which of the following statements is most accurate concerning the onset of bipolar disorder?
a. The peak age of onset is during middle or late adulthood (age 40 and on).
b. The onset of bipolar disorder is spread evenly across almost all age groups.
c. The peak age of onset is usually in early adulthood (age 20 through 29).
d. The symptoms tend to be most severe when the disorder has a late onse
c. The peak age of onset is usually in early adulthood (age 20 through 29).
119
Which of the following represents the incidence rate of bipolar disorders in males and
females?
a. It occurs nearly twice as frequently in women as in men.
b. It occurs with equal frequency in women and in men.
c. It occurs nearly twice as frequently in men as in women.
d. It occurs nearly four times as frequently in women as in men.
b. It occurs with equal frequency in women and in men.
120
In which of the following places would you expect to find the highest incidence of seasonal
affective disorder?
a. in a city close to the equator where the heat and humidity are oppressive
b. in a city where there is a lack of rainfall or other forms of precipitation
c. in a city far from the equator where there is little daylight in the winter
d. in a city where there is very little variability in temperature across the seasons
c. in a city far from the equator where there is little daylight in the winter
121
Which mood disorder is most closely associated with melatonin production and circadian
rhythms?
a. cyclothymic disorder
b. seasonal affective disorder
c. major depressive disorder
d. bipolar disorder
b. seasonal affective disorder
122
Maria’s doctor recommended that she increase her exposure to natural light in order to
improve her symptoms. Which disorder has Maria’s doctor likely diagnosed?
a. seasonal affective disorder
b. post-partum depression
c. generalized anxiety disorder
d. cyclothymia
a. seasonal affective disorder
123
In approximately what proportion of women who have given birth do symptoms of
postpartum depression occur?
a. 1–2 percent
b. 3–5 percent
c. 5–10 percent
d. 10–20 percent
d. 10–20 percent
124
Which of the following does NOT appear to be a factor that influences the experience of
postpartum depression?
a. temperament of the baby
b. prior history of depression
c. age of the mother
d. overall stress levels
c. age of the mother
125
Sarah is a 23-year-old woman and Jacob is a 79-year-old man. Which of the following should
you predict based on evidence about suicide?
a. If both individuals attempt suicide, Sarah is more likely to die.
b. Jacob is more likely to contemplate suicide.
c. Sarah is more likely to contemplate suicide.
d. If both individuals attempt suicide, Jacob is more likely to die.
d. If both individuals attempt suicide, Jacob is more likely to die.
126
Which of the following disorders has the greatest risk of suicide?
a. major depressive disorder
b. bipolar disorder
c. alcoholism
d. schizophrenia
b. bipolar disorder
127
Penny has been diagnosed with a mood disorder. What is the likelihood that her identical twin
will also be diagnosed with a mood disorder at some point in her lifetime?
a. 100 percent
b. 65 percent
c. 35 percent
d. 10 percent
b. 65 percent
128
Which of the following neurotransmitters has been implicated in mood disorders?
a. serotonin
b. dopamine
c. substance-P
d. endorphins
a. serotonin
129
Jose has a psychological disorder, and his doctor has prescribed a drug that affects both the
levels of norepinephrine and serotonin in Jose’s nervous system. What is Jose most likely
being treated for, based on this information?
a. depression
b. personality disorder
c. schizophrenia
d. dissociative disorder
a. depression
130
Courtney has been diagnosed with depression. Which of the following would you expect to
find if you were to look at an MRI image of her brain?
a. increased activation in the frontal lobes
b. enlarged ventricles
c. reduced hippocampal volume
d. decreased activation in the limbic system
c. reduced hippocampal volume
131
What have Hewitt and Flett determined about perfectionism in their evaluation of
dispositional factors that may contribute to depression?
a. It may prevent an individual from becoming depressed, because of the high
standards that the individual has set for himself.
b. It is a very common coping mechanism for individuals with depression.
c. It may increase the individual’s risk for depression and eating disorders.
d. It may increase one’s risk of depression, but decrease the risk of other disorders.
c. It may increase the individual’s risk for depression and eating disorders.
132
Bennett is constantly frustrated by those around him. He can’t understand why they behave in
such ineffective and inefficient ways. What type of perfectionism does Bennett display?
a. other-oriented
b. self-oriented
c. socially prescribed
d. narcissistic
a. other-oriented
133
What is the relationship between sociotropic and autonomous personality styles, and risk of
depression, according to Beck?
a. Both are risk factors for depression.
b. Sociotropy increases the risk of depression and autonomy decreases the risk.
c. Sociotropy decreases the risk of depression and autonomy increases the risk.
d. Both are preventive against depression
a. Both are risk factors for depression.
134
Nico likes to avoid conflict, and does not want anyone to be unhappy. She spends a great deal
of time concerned with the opinions and feelings of others. What does Nico display, according
to Beck?
a. dependent personality disorder
b. autonomous personality style, which puts her at risk for depression
c. sociotropic personality style, which puts her at risk for depression
d. martyr syndrome
c. sociotropic personality style, which puts her at risk for depression
135
In his investigations of the cognitive factors that might contribute to depression, Seligman
found that people with a pessimistic explanatory style are especially vulnerable to depression.
To what do these individuals tend to attribute their setbacks?
a. external flaws
b. global factors
c. situational factors
d. personal flaws
d. personal flaws
136
Darla was fired from her most recent job. Which of the following attributions would make
Darla most prone to depression, based on Seligman’s investigations into the cognitive factors
that might contribute to depression?
a. She was fired due to her lack of ability to do her job successfully.
b. She was fired due to a downturn in the economy, which resulted in massive
layoffs.
c. She was fired because of the bad mood that her boss was in on the day she was
fired.
d. She was fired because her coworker started a number of false rumours about her.
a. She was fired due to her lack of ability to do her job successfully.
137
Darlene can’t stop thinking about her own flaws and failures. She replays negative events over
and over in her mind, and worries constantly about her lack of motivation. Which of the
following is illustrated in this example?
a. anhedonia
b. rumination
c. compulsion
d. perfectionism
b. rumination
138
n the Featured Study, Lauren Alloy and her colleagues investigated the link between negative
thinking and vulnerability to depression. Their study involved a group of first-year college
students who had no prior history of depression. What proportion of students with a negative
cognitive style developed major depressive disorder over a 2.5-year period?
a. 3 percent
b. 8 percent
c. 12 percent
d. 17 percent
d. 17 percent
139
In the Featured Study, Lauren Alloy and her colleagues investigated the link between negative
thinking and vulnerability to depression. Their study involved a group of first-year college
students who had no prior history of depression. What percentage of students who did NOT
have a negative cognitive style developed major depressive disorder over a 2.5-year period?
a. 1 percent
b. 5 percent
c. 20 percent
d. 40 percent
a. 1 percent
140
. What was the greatest strength of the research methods, compared to many other studies about
correlates of depression, in the Featured Study on negative thinking and depression?
a. It used a control group.
b. It used a prospective design.
c. It used participants who were not currently medicated.
d. It used a double-blind procedure
b. It used a prospective design.
141
What is the likely relationship between social skills and risk for depression?
a. Increased need for social interaction among extraverts puts them at risk for
depression after a relationship ends.
b. Both have common genetic foundations.
c. Those who are depressed lose their ability to interact appropriately with others, so
depression is the cause of poor social skills.
d. People with poor social skills have a harder time getting the social support and
reinforcers that we need.
d. People with poor social skills have a harder time getting the social support and
reinforcers that we nee
142
Which of the following athletes is most likely to suffer from depression?
a. one with a concussion that damaged the occipital lobes
b. one with compression of the cervical spine
c. one with a concussion that damaged the frontal lobes
d. one with compression of the thoracic spine
c. one with a concussion that damaged the frontal lobes
143
What does current evidence suggest about the relationship between stress and mood
disorders?
a. no link between stress and the onset of mood disorders
b. an inverse link between stress and the onset of mood disorders
c. a very weak link between stress and the onset of mood disorders
d. a moderately strong link between stress and the onset of mood disorders
d. a moderately strong link between stress and the onset of mood disorders
144
What is the basic type of disturbance associated with the schizophrenic disorders?
a. thought
b. motor function
c. emotion
d. perception
a. thought
145
Which of the following disorders is commonly mistaken for schizophrenia?
a. obsessive compulsive disorder
b. dissociative identity disorder
c. major depressive disorder
d. panic disorder
b. dissociative identity disorder
146
What is the term for the symptom experienced by a person who maintains bizarre, false
beliefs that have no basis in reality?
a. hallucinations
b. obsessions
c. delusions
d. compulsions
c. delusions
147
What is a delusion?
a. false belief that is maintained even though it is not supported by reality
b. consequence of loosening of associations
c. perceptual experience without a sensation
d. major symptom associated with dissociative disorders
a. false belief that is maintained even though it is not supported by reality
148
Cooper is an auto mechanic at a local garage. However, he is convinced that his phone line is
tapped and all the rooms in his house have listening devices planted, so that enemy agents can
learn all his secret conversations. He never takes the same route to work two days in a row, to
prevent the enemy agents from following him and learning where he works. What is Cooper
experiencing?
a. delusions
b. hallucinations
c. obsessions
d. alogia
a. delusions
149
Johnny believes he is the prime minister of Canada. If Johnny isn’t the prime minister, what
does his false belief represent?
a. hallucination
b. delusion
c. compulsion
d. obsession
b. delusion
150
Ivy excitedly tells you that she has been invited to sing at the coronation of the new King of
Cyprus. You find this difficult to believe, considering Ivy sings terribly and Cyprus has an
elected government, not a monarchy. Ivy’s statements are clearly out of touch with reality.
What is Ivy experiencing?
a. hallucinations
b. obsessions
c. delusions
d. compulsions
c. delusions
151
What is a person experiencing if he perceives stimuli that aren’t there?
a. obsessions
b. hallucinations
c. delusions
d. illusions
b. hallucinations
152
Nabeel hears voices singing even though none are present. What is Nabeel experiencing?
a. delusions
b. loosening of associations
c. obsessions
d. hallucinations
d. hallucinations
153
Norton hears disembodied voices all the time that give him strange commands. The voices
have told him that a spacecraft will land over the weekend and take him to a more advanced
civilization. What is the term for the voices that Norton hears?
a. obsessions
b. delusions
c. hallucinations
d. compulsions
c. hallucinations
154
. Abby was watching a documentary on some of the horrors of the Vietnam War. Even when
she saw soldiers being blown up after stepping on land mines, she showed no emotional
reaction or response. What symptom does this illustrate?
a. avolition
b. blunted or flat affect
c. catatonic stupor
d. antisocial personality disorder
b. blunted or flat affect
155
Which subtype of schizophrenia is marked by delusions of persecution and grandeur?
a. hebephrenic
b. catatonic
c. disorganized
d. paranoid
d. paranoid
156
Tony believes that he is Thomas Edison, and he is convinced that his neighbours are spies
who are trying to steal his inventions. He believes the neighbours break into his house and
search for plans for new inventions when he is not home. Which disorder is most consistent
with Tony’s symptoms?
a. catatonic schizophrenia
b. disorganized schizophrenia
c. undifferentiated schizophrenia
d. paranoid schizophrenia
d. paranoid schizophrenia
157
Tammy believes that a famous movie star is in love with her, and she saw a message from him
in the trailer for his most recent movie. She is also convinced that the star’s wife is trying to
kill her. Which of the following types of schizophrenia would fit Tammy’s symptoms best?
a. undifferentiated
b. catatonic
c. paranoid
d. disorganized
c. paranoid
158
Shii-An will sit in one position for long periods of time, evidencing muscular rigidity. Which
disorder includes this symptom?
a. catatonic schizophrenia
b. undifferentiated schizophrenia
c. paranoid schizophrenia
d. disorganized schizophrenia
a. catatonic schizophrenia
159
Klaus alternates between periods in which he remains motionless and seems oblivious to his
environment, and periods of hyperactivity and frenzied excitement. Which disorder is most
consistent with Klaus’s symptoms?
a. undifferentiated schizophrenia
b. catatonic schizophrenia
c. paranoid schizophrenia
d. disorganized schizophrenia
b. catatonic schizophrenia
160
Hope often sits for hours in extremely rigid positions; during these times she seems to lose
contact with the external world and does not respond to people who try to speak to her. At
other times she becomes extremely hyperactive and rambles on incoherently. Which disorder
is most consistent with Hope’s symptoms?
a. paranoid schizophrenia
b. disorganized schizophrenia
c. catatonic schizophrenia
d. undifferentiated schizophrenia
c. catatonic schizophrenia
161
Etienne sits all day alone on a park bench, babbling incoherently and giggling to himself.
Which disorder is most consistent with Etienne’s symptoms?
a. undifferentiated schizophrenia
b. paranoid schizophrenia
c. catatonic schizophrenia
d. disorganized schizophrenia
d. disorganized schizophrenia
162
Tyberius wears a hat 24 hours a day and becomes extremely agitated if anyone tries to remove
it. He is convinced that small robots made of Lego blocks nibbled his ears off while he was
sleeping, and if he removes his hat his brains will leak out through the holes in the sides of his
head. In which form of schizophrenia do you typically see this type of delusion?
a. undifferentiated schizophrenia
b. disorganized schizophrenia
c. paranoid schizophrenia
d. catatonic schizophrenia
b. disorganized schizophrenia
163
Which of the following is NOT a type of schizophrenia according to DSM-IV?
a. manic
b. undifferentiated
c. disorganized
d. paranoid
a. manic
164
Which type of schizophrenia are people said to have who are clearly schizophrenic but who
cannot be placed into any of the three main categories for schizophrenic disorders?
a. undifferentiated schizophrenia
b. disorganized schizophrenia
c. borderline schizophrenia
d. schizophrenia in remission
a. undifferentiated schizophrenia
165
What is characteristic of negative symptoms in schizophrenia?
a. behavioural deficits such as flattened emotion, apathy, and poverty of speech
b. behavioural excesses such as hallucinations, delusions, and bizarre behaviour
c. antisocial behaviours such as violence and rage reactions
d. dissociative behaviours and the emergence of multiple personalities
a. behavioural deficits such as flattened emotion, apathy, and poverty of speech
166
Jack hears voices and believes that he has supernatural powers. Which type of schizophrenic
symptoms are most prevalent in Jack’s case?
a. disorganized
b. positive
c. undifferentiated
d. negative
b. positive
167
Melanie has a blunted affect, rarely bathes, and she shows little evidence of interest in any
stimuli. If Melanie is diagnosed with schizophrenia, which type of symptoms is she
expressing?
a. positive
b. disorganized
c. undifferentiated
d. negative
d. negative
168
What is characteristic of positive symptoms in schizophrenia?
a. compliant behaviour such as medication monitoring
b. behavioural deficits such as flattened emotion, apathy, and poverty of speech
c. dissociative behaviours and the emergence of multiple personalities
d. behavioural excesses such as hallucinations, delusions, and bizarre behaviour
d. behavioural excesses such as hallucinations, delusions, and bizarre behaviour
169
When do individuals with schizophrenic disorders tend to show a greater responsiveness to
treatment?
a. when positive and negative symptoms alternate throughout the schizophrenic
episodes
b. when the predominant symptoms include behavioural deficits
c. when positive and negative symptoms are both evident at the same time
d. when the predominant symptoms include behavioural excesses or peculiarities
d. when the predominant symptoms include behavioural excesses or peculiarities
170
Which of the following statements is most accurate concerning the onset of schizophrenia?
a. The onset of schizophrenia is spread evenly across almost all age groups.
b. The peak age of onset is during middle or late adulthood (age 45 and on).
c. The symptoms tend to be most severe when the disorder has a late onset.
d. The symptoms usually emerge during adolescence or early adulthood.
d. The symptoms usually emerge during adolescence or early adulthood
171
What proportion of individuals who are diagnosed with schizophrenia can expect a reasonable
recovery with comprehensive and coordinated treatment?
a. less than one-tenth
b. approximately one-third
c. as many as one-half
d. nearly three-quarters
c. as many as one-half
172
When does a patient with schizophrenia tend to have the most favourable prognosis?
a. when the onset occurs at an early age
b. when the onset of the disorder is gradual
c. when the patient’s family is high in expressed emotion
d. when the proportion of negative symptoms is relatively low
d. when the proportion of negative symptoms is relatively low
173
Which of the following statements is most accurate?
a. Concordance rates for schizophrenia are the same for fraternal twins and identical
twins.
b. Concordance rates for schizophrenia are near 100 percent for identical twins.
c. Schizophrenia is caused by a single recessive gene that must be contributed by
both parents.
d. Some people inherit a polygenetically transmitted vulnerability to schizophrenia
d. Some people inherit a polygenetically transmitted vulnerability to schizophrenia
174
. Enos and Amir are both currently 30 years old. Enos’s biological mother has schizophrenia,
but neither of his adoptive parents have the disorder. In contrast, neither of Amir’s biological
parents have schizophrenia; however his adoptive mother has schizophrenia. What should you
predict based on research that has investigated the role of genetic vulnerability in
schizophrenic disorders?
a. Enos and Amir are both at high risk for developing schizophrenia.
b. Neither Enos nor Amir is likely to develop schizophrenia.
c. Amir is unlikely to develop schizophrenia, but Enos has an increased risk of
developing schizophrenia.
d. Enos is unlikely to develop schizophrenia, but Amir has an increased risk of
developing schizophrenia
c. Amir is unlikely to develop schizophrenia, but Enos has an increased risk of
developing schizophrenia.
175
Molly has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. What is the approximate likelihood that her
identical twin will also be diagnosed with schizophrenia at some point in her life?
a. 25 percent
b. 50 percent
c. 75 percent
d. 100 percent
b. 50 percent
176
What is the major neurotransmitter that has been linked to schizophrenia?
a. dopamine
b. GABA
c. norepinephrine
d. acetylcholine
a. dopamine
177
Mayra has a psychological disorder, and her doctor has prescribed a drug that affects the
levels of dopamine in her nervous system. Which of the following disorders is Mayra most
likely being treated for?
a. anxiety disorder
b. schizophrenic disorder
c. dissociative disorder
d. mood disorder
b. schizophrenic disorder
178
Which of the following risk factors is implicated by the finding that many schizophrenics
have difficulty in basic information processing?
a. traumatic childhood experiences
b. exposure to deviant communication patterns
c. neurological defects
d. a specific recessive gene
c. neurological defects
179
Which brain feature is suggested to have an association with chronic schizophrenic
disturbance, based on research with higher order scans and MRI scans?
a. shrunken hippocampal regions
b. enlarged temporal lobes
c. atrophied cells in the corpus callosum
d. enlarged brain ventricles
b. enlarged temporal lobes
180
Renata recently had a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan done. The results showed that
her brain has enlarged ventricles and a thalamus that is smaller than normal. If Renata has a
psychological disorder, which disorder is most likely given the results of her MRI scan?
a. dissociative identity disorder
b. bipolar disorder
c. obsessive-compulsive disorder
d. schizophrenia
d. schizophrenia
181
How do typical drugs for the treatment of schizophrenia function?
a. They are dopamine agonists.
b. They are serotonin reuptake inhibitors.
c. They are norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors.
d. They are dopamine antagonists
d. They are dopamine antagonists
182
What does the neurodevelopmental hypothesis suggest is a partial cause of schizophrenia?
a. disruptions in the normal maturational process of the brain before or at birth
b. low levels of expressed emotion in the family of the schizophrenic patient
c. abnormal levels of dopamine and serotonin in the cerebral cortex
d. genetic factors that interact with environmental stressors during infancy
a. disruptions in the normal maturational process of the brain before or at birth
183
What happened to mothers of individuals who had an elevated risk of schizophrenia,
according to several research studies examining the role of prenatal risk factors for the
disease?
a. They took narcotic drugs during the second trimester of their pregnancy.
b. They drank heavily during the second trimester of their pregnancy.
c. They were exposed to influenza during the second trimester of their pregnancy.
d. They were exposed to high levels of stress during the second trimester of their
pregnancy.
c. They were exposed to influenza during the second trimester of their pregnancy.
184
Which type of families are associated with the poorest prognosis when patients return to their
families after treatment for schizophrenia?
a. those with high interpersonal support
b. those with low experienced emotion
c. those with low communication deviance
d. those with high expressed emotion
d. those with high expressed emotion
185
Jazmine has just returned home after receiving treatment for schizophrenia. The therapist who
is supervising her case is aware that Jazmine’s family is high in expressed emotion. What
should Jazmine’s therapist expect under these conditions?
a. Jazmine will need little or no medication because she will have high levels of
social support.
b. Jazmine has is likely to develop positive symptoms.
c. Jazmine has a high risk of relapse.
d. Jazmine is likely to develop symptoms of bipolar disorder.
c. Jazmine has a high risk of relapse.
186
What does the “vulnerability” model of schizophrenia suggest is the trigger for schizophrenia?
a. psychological weakness or vulnerability
b. predisposing factors that interact with stressful life events
c. genetic-based deficiency of certain neurotransmitters
d. inherent physical weakness of the brain to deal with stress
b. predisposing factors that interact with stressful life events
187
What characterizes personality disorders?
a. inability to function outside a hospital setting
b. extremely inconsistent behaviour across a variety of situations
c. extreme, inflexible personality traits
d. hallucinations and delusions
c. extreme, inflexible personality traits
188
Lukas does not trust anyone. He is convinced that no one around him is truthful, and
everything they say to him is a lie. He is extremely suspicious of other people’s motives, and
he often flies into a jealous rage when his wife speaks to other men. Which cluster of
disorders is most consistent with Lukas’s symptoms if he has a personality disorder?
a. neurotic/dissociative
b. anxious/fearful
c. odd/eccentric
d. dramatic/impulsive
c. odd/eccentric
189
Jillian lets her husband keep all the financial records for the family, and she expects him to
make all the decisions that affect the family. She refuses to make any decisions on her own,
and if anything unexpected occurs, she calls her husband at work to ask for his advice. Which
cluster of disorders is most consistent with Jillian’s symptoms if she has a personality
disorder?
a. odd/eccentric
b. anxious/fearful
c. neurotic/dissociative
d. dramatic/impulsive
b. anxious/fearful
190
. Erick is impulsive and unpredictable. His moods seem to be constantly changing and all his
interpersonal relationships seem to be very unstable. Which cluster of disorders is most
consistent with Erick’s symptoms if he has a personality disorder?
a. anxious/fearful
b. dramatic/impulsive
c. odd/eccentric
d. neurotic/dissociative
b. dramatic/impulsive
191
What do the avoidant, dependent, and obsessive-compulsive personality disorders have in
common?
a. maladaptive efforts to control anxiety and fear
b. mistrustfulness and the inability to connect emotionally with others
c. a flair for overdramatizing events
d. highly impulsive behaviour
a. maladaptive efforts to control anxiety and fear
192
What do the histrionic and borderline personality disorders have in common?
a. highly impulsive behaviour and a flair for overdramatizing events
b. high levels of communication deviance
c. maladaptive efforts to control anxiety and fear
d. mistrustfulness and the inability to connect emotionally with others
a. highly impulsive behaviour and a flair for overdramatizing events
193
Nancy withdraws socially because of an intense fear of rejection. Wendy withdraws socially
due to a lack of interest in interpersonal intimacy. If both women were diagnosed with
personality disorders, what would they be?
a. Nancy has a schizoid personality and Wendy has a paranoid personality.
b. Nancy has a dependent personality and Wendy has a schizotypal personality.
c. Nancy has an avoidant personality and Wendy has a schizoid personality.
d. Nancy has an avoidant personality and Wendy has a paranoid personality
c. Nancy has an avoidant personality and Wendy has a schizoid personality.
194
. Sophia has always been preoccupied with schedules, lists, and trivial details. She plans
everything down to the last detail, and becomes very upset if things don’t work out the way
she has planned. Last week, Sophia went in for a psychological assessment, and based on that
assessment, she was told that she might have a personality disorder. Which personality
disorder is consistent with Sophia’s behaviour?
a. borderline
b. schizotypal
c. histrionic
d. obsessive-compulsive
d. obsessive-compulsive
195
Chris always expects special treatment, and he seems to be preoccupied with his own success.
His interpersonal relationships are generally superficial because he seems to lack the ability to
understand how others feel. Which personality disorder is most consistent with Chris’s
personality?
a. avoidant
b. narcissistic
c. obsessive-compulsive
d. schizotypal
b. narcissistic
196
Ellen is self-centred, immature, and excitable. She craves attention, especially from men, with
whom she is flirtatious and seductive. Which personality disorder is most consistent with
Ellen’s personality?
a. avoidant
b. histrionic
c. dependent
d. schizoid
b. histrionic
197
Which of the following could you predict if you know that someone has been diagnosed with
a personality disorder?
a. There is a high likelihood that the symptoms would fit more than one personality
disorder.
b. The individual will likely require hospitalization at some point.
c. The likelihood of complete remission is high.
d. The likelihood of comorbidity with a mood disorder is very high.
a. There is a high likelihood that the symptoms would fit more than one personality
disorder.
198
Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of the antisocial personality?
a. aggressiveness
b. manipulative behaviour
c. social charm
d. excessive guilt
d. excessive guilt
199
What diagnosis is used for a person who does not conform to the accepted norms of morality
and behaviour and is impulsive, callous, and manipulative?
a. borderline personality disorder
b. histrionic personality disorder
c. antisocial personality disorder
d. paranoid personality disorder
c. antisocial personality disorder
200
Ruth was convicted of five separate counts of fraud. She had used her charm to persuade
elderly pensioners to sign their life savings over to her. She confessed to the crimes, but she
showed no remorse for her actions. She even bragged at the trial that she would do it all again
when she had the chance. Which disorder is consistent with Ruth’s behaviour?
a. narcissistic personality disorder
b. avoidant personality disorder
c. antisocial personality disorder
d. bipolar disorder
c. antisocial personality disorder
201
In the past nine months, Andrew has been fired by three different employers. He was
unreliable and often missed work, and each employer finally let him go when they found he
had been stealing money and materials. Andrew feels no remorse over his actions, but he has
managed to convince each of his former employers that he is sorry for his actions, and none of
the employers plans to press any charges. Which diagnosis is consistent with Andrew’s
behaviour?
a. bipolar disorder
b. dissociative identity disorder
c. antisocial personality disorder
d. avoidant personality disorder
c. antisocial personality disorder
202
Which of the following statements is most accurate?
a. Antisocial personalities are, by definition, violent criminals.
b. Antisocial personalities tend to have an excessively high tolerance for frustration.
c. Although they may be superficially charming, antisocial personalities rarely
experience genuine affection for anyone.
d. Antisocial personalities act as they do out of terror of punishment or humiliation.
c. Although they may be superficially charming, antisocial personalities rarely
experience genuine affection for anyone.
203
Which of the following has NOT been proposed as a potential biological factor that might
contribute to the development of antisocial personality disorder?
a. a genetic predisposition to the disorder
b. a sluggish autonomic nervous system
c. abnormalities in GABA and dopamine levels in the brain
d. subtle prenatal neurological damage
c. abnormalities in GABA and dopamine levels in the brain
204
Paxton comes from a home where discipline was erratic, and he was physically abused by his
parents. His parents were also self-centered and exploitive. Based on research, which of the
following disorders is Paxton at increased risk of developing due to this home environment?
a. paranoid schizophrenia
b. one of the somatoform disorders
c. antisocial personality disorder
d. bipolar disorder
c. antisocial personality disorder
205
What is the category of disorders that includes autism?
a. psychotic disorders
b. pervasive developmental disorders
c. personality disorders
d. dissociative disorders
b. pervasive developmental disorders
206
Zachary is 16 years old, and has a lot of difficulty with social interactions. He has a hard time
understanding the perspective of other people and he often engages in repetitive behaviours
that others find very odd. Which of the following disorders best fits Zachary’s behaviour?
a. obsessive compulsive disorder
b. autistic disorder
c. borderline personality disorder
d. dissociative identity disorder
a. obsessive compulsive disorder
207
Mimi has been diagnosed with autistic disorder. Which of the following will likely cause
social problems for Mimi?
a. manipulative behaviour
b. hostile attribution errors
c. paranoia
d. limited theory of mind
d. limited theory of mind
208
Which of the following does the legal status of insanity indicate?
a. a person has a chronic mental illness that is not responsive to treatment
b. an individual is dangerous to him- or herself, or to others
c. a defendant is unable to understand the nature and purpose of legal proceedings
d. a person cannot be held responsible for his or her actions because of mental illness
d. a person cannot be held responsible for his or her actions because of mental illness
209
what is the modern term used for the “insanity” designation in Canada?
a. not criminally responsible on account of mental disorder
b. unfit to stand trial
c. compromised by automatism
d. not guilty by reason of insanity
a. not criminally responsible on account of mental disorder
210
Jeffrey Dahmer was judged to be legally sane, even though he admitted to butchering,
cannibalizing, and then having sex with the dead bodies of over a dozen young men. What did
the judgment of legal sanity mean?
a. He was able to appreciate the fact that his actions were legally or morally wrong at
the time of the crime.
b. His actions failed to meet the criteria of cultural deviance.
c. He had recovered from his psychological disorder by the time the trial took place.
d. His actions failed to meet the criteria of personal distress
a. He was able to appreciate the fact that his actions were legally or morally wrong at
the time of the crime.
211
Which of the following conditions have been recognized as causes of automatism, and could
be used as a defence in court?
a. sleepwalking and carbon monoxide poisoning
b. antisocial personality disorder
c. schizophrenia and bipolar disorder
d. mental retardation
a. sleepwalking and carbon monoxide poisoning
212
What is suggested by the pancultural view of psychological disorders?
a. Basic standards of normality and abnormality are universal across cultures.
b. Culture-bound disorders demonstrate the subjectivity of psychological diagnosis.
c. Western diagnostic concepts have limited validity or utility in other cultural
contexts.
d. There are no universal standards of normality and abnormality.
a. Basic standards of normality and abnormality are universal across cultures
213
The prevalence estimates of both schizophrenia and bipolar disorders are roughly comparable
across diverse cultures. Which of the following views of psychological disorders does this
finding support?
a. stress-vulnerability model
b. relativistic
c. pancultural
d. idiosyncratic
c. pancultural
214
Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder that seems to occur only in Western cultures. Which of
the following views of psychological disorders does the discovery of culture-bound disorders,
such as anorexia nervosa, lend support to?
a. relativistic
b. stress-vulnerability model
c. idiosyncratic
d. pancultural
a. relativistic
215
Which of the following disorders is rarely seen outside affluent Western cultures?
a. bipolar illness
b. anorexia nervosa
c. depression
d. schizophrenia
b. anorexia nervosa
216
Which of the following is NOT an example of a culture-bound disorder?
a. anorexia nervosa
b. bipolar disorder
c. windingo
d. koro
b. bipolar disorder
217
The key symptoms of depression in Western cultures are often cognitive symptoms, such as
guilt and self-blame. The key symptoms of depression in non-Western cultures are often
somatic symptoms, such as headaches and fatigue. Which of the following views of
psychological disorders is supported by the fact that the same disorder can manifest itself in
different ways in Western and non-Western cultures?
a. relativistic
b. stress-vulnerability model
c. pancultural
d. idiosyncratic
a. relativistic
218
For which of the major disorders are symptom patterns most culturally variable?
a. dissociative disorders
b. bipolar illness
c. schizophrenia
d. depression
d. depression
219
Which of your text’s unifying themes is illustrated by the development of schizophrenia
involving a complex interplay among a variety of psychological, biological, and social
factors?
a. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes.
b. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context.
c. Psychology is theoretically diverse.
d. Our experience of the world is highly subjective.
a. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes.
220
Which of the following is true of mood disorders and schizophrenic disorders, according to
the stress-vulnerability model?
a. Vulnerability to these disorders is determined by heredity alone.
b. Vulnerability to these disorders is determined by the environment alone.
c. Traumatic stress is the major cause of these disorders.
d. These disorders emerge when high biological vulnerability combines with high
stress.
d. These disorders emerge when high biological vulnerability combines with high
stress.
221
Claire has been diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. What should you expect to find in Claire’s
medical record, based on the physical symptoms listed in your text?
a. cardiac arrhythmias and elevated blood pressure
b. metabolic disturbances and dental problems
c. amenorrhea and low blood pressure
d. dental problems and cardiac arrhythmias
c. amenorrhea and low blood pressure
222
Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding eating disorders?
a. Bulimia nervosa is a more life-threatening condition than anorexia nervosa.
b. Both bulimia nervosa and anorexia nervosa lead to death in 2–10 percent of
patients.
c. While bulimia nervosa and anorexia nervosa are both serious conditions, neither is
a life-threatening condition.
d. Anorexia nervosa is a more life-threatening condition than bulimia nervosa.
d. Anorexia nervosa is a more life-threatening condition than bulimia nervosa.
223
Scarlett has anorexia nervosa and Bridget has bulimia nervosa. What should you predict based
on the research into these two disorders?
a. Both individuals are likely to deny that their eating behaviour is pathological.
b. Scarlett will be more likely to recognize that her eating behaviour is pathological.
c. Both individuals will recognize their eating behaviour is pathological, but neither
will be willing to seek treatment.
d. Bridget will be more likely to recognize that her eating behaviour is pathological.
d. Bridget will be more likely to recognize that her eating behaviour is pathological.
224
Approximately what percentage of the individuals who develop either anorexia nervosa or
bulimia nervosa are females?
a. 90 to 95 percent
b. 70 to 75 percent
c. 50 to 55 percent
d. 20 to 25 percent
a. 90 to 95 percent
225
Fiona has been diagnosed with bulimia nervosa. What should you expect to find in Fiona’s
medical record, based on the physical symptoms listed in your text?
a. amenorrhea and low blood pressure
b. cardiac arrhythmias and osteoporosis
c. dental problems and cardiac arrhythmias
d. dental problems and elevated blood pressure
c. dental problems and cardiac arrhythmias
226
What percentages of young women develop anorexia nervosa and bulimia, respectively?
a. 1 to 1.5 percent anorexia; 2 to 3 percent bulimia
b. 2 to 3 percent anorexia; 1 to 1.5 percent bulimia
c. 10 percent anorexia; 20 percent bulimia
d. 20 percent anorexia; 5 percent bulimia
a. 1 to 1.5 percent anorexia; 2 to 3 percent bulimia
227
Melissa has been diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. Which of the following traits are most
likely to be seen if Melissa were to complete a personality assessment?
a. impulsive, extroverted, and obsessive
b. obsessive, rigid, and emotionally restrained
c. impulsive, overly sensitive, and low in self-esteem
d. rigid, low in self-esteem, and introverted
b. obsessive, rigid, and emotionally restrained
228
Jacqueline has been diagnosed with bulimia nervosa. Which pattern of traits is likely to be
seen if Jacqueline were to complete a personality assessment?
a. impulsive, extroverted, and obsessive
b. rigid, low in self-esteem, and introverted
c. obsessive, rigid, and emotionally restrained
d. impulsive, overly sensitive, and low in self-esteem
d. impulsive, overly sensitive, and low in self-esteem
229
Which of the following is NOT one of the factors that have been linked to the development of
anorexia nervosa or bulimia nervosa in young women?
a. mothers who model unhealthy dieting behaviours for their daughters
b. parents who are negligent or uninvolved in their children’s lives
c. a genetic vulnerability to eating disorders
d. the presence of rigid, all-or-none thinking and maladaptive beliefs
b. parents who are negligent or uninvolved in their children’s lives
230
Stanley was surprised to hear that Jennifer had been treated by a psychiatrist ten years ago.
When he first met Jennifer she seemed to be calm and rational, and she certainly didn’t look
“psychotic.” Which of the following is likely, if you were to ask Stanley to estimate the
overall prevalence of psychological disorders?
a. The conjunction fallacy would cause him to overestimate the overall prevalence
rate.
b. The availability heuristic would cause him to underestimate the overall prevalence
rate.
c. The representativeness heuristic would cause him to overestimate the overall
prevalence rate.
d. The representativeness heuristic would cause him to underestimate the overall
prevalence rate.
d. The representativeness heuristic would cause him to underestimate the overall
prevalence rate.
231
Often, cases of dissociative identity disorder (multiple personality disorder) receive wide
press coverage, leading people to believe this disorder is a relatively common psychological
problem when, in fact, it is quite rare. Which of the following concepts is illustrated by this
example?
a. availability heuristic
b. hindsight bias
c. representativeness heuristic
d. conjunction fallacy
a. availability heuristic
232
Which of the following disorders would be most likely to lead to a person’s being declared
legally incompetent?
a. antisocial personality disorder
b. substance-abuse disorder
c. schizophrenic disorder
d. generalized anxiety disorder
c. schizophrenic disorder
233
It has been said that not all deviant behaviour is maladaptive, but all maladaptive behaviour is
deviant. Discuss this idea, based on what you’ve learned about the definition and criteria of
abnormal behaviour.
Good answers should reflect an understanding of the various ways of defining and
characterizing abnormal behaviour. A deviant behaviour is one that deviates from the norm
and is considered inappropriate in one’s society. Most students can come up with several
examples of such deviant behaviour that may, nevertheless, be adaptive in certain
circumstances. Such deviant behaviour is not maladaptive. On the other hand, behaviour is
maladaptive when it interferes with one’s functioning in one or more of the various arenas of
life (social, occupational, etc.). Most societies have evolved in such a way that these kinds of
behaviours are both uncommon and considered inappropriate, thus deviant. There may be
exceptions here, too, however
234
Freud believed that most, if not all, psychological disorders are mainly the result of anxiety.
However, Freudian explanations of the anxiety disorders receive much less attention today
than they once did. From what you’ve learned of Freudian theory, how would a Freudian
explanation of the etiology of the anxiety disorders differ from the types of explanations
presented in your text?
Freud would say that the anxiety disorders result from internal events, drives, and motivations
that the patient is not conscious of. We normally feel anxiety when we are threatened, but in
the case of anxiety disorders, anxiety is experienced even when we’re not aware of any
dangerous threat. Often there’s just the feeling of danger or a threat being present. Everyone
uses defence mechanisms to alleviate feelings of anxiety, but in clinical cases, these
mechanisms are not effective enough to provide relief. Anxiety that’s severe enough to be
considered abnormal may be caused by unacceptable impulses that are on the verge of
breaking into consciousness, threatened disapproval, withdrawal of love, and fear of
abandonment. These are examples of events that might be threatening to a small child and
which might be thrust into the unconscious, only to emerge later in the form of the symptoms
of an anxiety disorder.
Getting more specific, a phobic object or situation would symbolically stand for something
that the patient is frightened of, either consciously or unconsciously. Obsessions and
compulsions function by directing attention away from fearful, unconscious thoughts
235
There appear to be some similarities between post-traumatic stress disorder and the
dissociative disorders in that most cases of each type of disorder are thought to result from
extreme stress. How would you justify creating separate classifications for these disorders?
Students should demonstrate an understanding of the characteristics of each type of disorder,
and should focus on the differences between them that justify classifying them separately.
Stress plays a role in the etiology of both, but reactions to the stress experienced are quite
different for the two types of disorder. Characteristic of post-traumatic stress disorder is the
inability to get the traumatic experience out of mind, and other evidence of being
“overinvolved” with the stressful situation. Symptoms may persist for quite some time.
In cases of dissociative disorders, rather than being overinvolved with the stressful situation,
patients use various means to escape involvement and its attendant anxieties and conflicts.
These means involve somehow altering consciousness in order to blot out the stressful
experience. Often dissociative disorders begin and end suddenly. These cases are often traced
to traumatic events in childhood, though the disorder may not appear until adulthood.
236
Some of the most prominent modern theories of the mood disorders focus primarily on
cognitive factors. You learned in Chapter 10 that some theorists believe the experience of
emotion is heavily influenced by cognitive factors. In what ways do some of these cognitive
theories of emotion agree with theories about cognitive factors in the etiology of the mood
disorders?
Essentially, cognitive theories of the mood disorders say that depression, in particular, results
from a particular kind of thinking, especially a negative attributional style. Schachter’s twofactor theory of emotion states that we experience particular emotions through interpreting
physiological arousal in accordance with the current environment. If situational cues appear to
be in accord with an explanation of negative events that places the blame on the individual,
then one may experience unpleasant emotions and depression may result. If this pattern of
interpreting physiological arousal hardens into one’s habitual attributional style, then clinical
depression may result
237
According to the DSM-IV, individuals should not be diagnosed as having a personality
disorder before they’re 18 years old because personality is not well established before then.
From what you know about personality development (Chapters 11 and 12), can you support
this position? You may wish to answer from the particular viewpoint of one of the personality
theorists covered in your text (e.g., Erikson, Mischel, Maslow, or others)
Answers should reveal an understanding of the category of personality disorders as well as
something about personality development. A couple of examples of outlines for answers
follow:
In personality disorders the individual shows extreme, inflexible personality traits that cause
subjective distress or impaired social and occupational functioning. It’s reasonable to think
that these extreme traits develop in basically the same way that more normal personality traits
develop. According to Erikson, certain crises arise at predictable life stages within a society,
and individuals are faced with the challenge of dealing satisfactorily with them if their
personality and emotional status are to be healthy. Less than optimal coping with the
challenges of a particular life crisis might lead to a personality disorder. Most of the
personality disorders seem to involve traits that Erikson believes are influenced by social
experiences during the years before the age of 18. So he might agree that we’re unlikely to see
personality disorders before that age.
The social learning theorists would point to observational learning as the prime mechanism by
which maladaptive personality traits might develop. From material in your text, we’re given
no clear indication that Bandura believed that personality development occurred mainly in
childhood, although his best-known research has been with children. Like others in the larger
learning-theory camp, social learning theorists believe that learning continues to occur
throughout life. So there’s no principled reason why they’d restrict the emergence of extreme
personality traits to any particular life stage.
