Unit 4 chapter 11 Flashcards
1
Q
How do psychologists define development?
a. the sequence of age-related changes that occur as a person progresses from birth to
adulthood
b. the sequence of age-related changes that occur as a person progresses from
conception to death
c. changes across the lifespan that result due to learning and socialization
d. maturity associated with adulthood
A
b. the sequence of age-related changes that occur as a person progresses from
conception to death
2
Q
What are developmental changes?
a. behavioural changes that take place as people mature
b. biological changes that are predetermined based on genotype
c. changes in social behaviour that indicate underlying cognitive abilities
d. biological and behavioural changes that occur across the lifespan
A
d. biological and behavioural changes that occur across the lifespan
3
Q
Traditionally, psychologists have been interested in development during childhood. What has
changed about the focus of developmental psychology in recent decades?
a. The focus has shifted toward the prenatal period.
b. The focus has expanded to include adolescence.
c. The focus has expanded to include the whole lifespan.
d. The focus has shifted toward infancy.
A
c. The focus has expanded to include the whole lifespan.
4
Q
What is the prenatal period of development?
a. the period immediately after birth
b. the nine months before birth
c. the period before conception takes place
d. the period from conception to implantation
A
b. the nine months before birth
5
Q
What is the first stage of prenatal development?
a. germinal
b. fetal
c. embryonic
d. postnatal
A
a. germinal
6
Q
Penny conceived a baby seven days ago, and does not yet know she is pregnant. In what stage
is her pregnancy?
a. germinal
b. embryonic
c. placental
d. fetal
A
a. germinal
7
Q
What is the structure that allows oxygen and nutrients to pass from the mother to the fetus?
a. placenta
b. uterus
c. zygote
d. amnion
A
a. placenta
8
Q
What are the terms used to describe the cluster of developing human cells prior to
implantation in the uterine wall, and then after implantation?
a. zygote, then embryo
b. fetus, then zygote
c. zygote, then fetus
d. embryo, then fetus
A
a. zygote, then embryo
9
Q
What aspect of development is included in the embryonic stage of prenatal development?
a. formation of a zygote
b. implantation of the fertilized egg into the uterine wall
c. second through eighth weeks of prenatal development
d. last seven months of the pregnancy
A
c. second through eighth weeks of prenatal development
10
Q
During which stage of development do the heart, spine, and brain emerge?
a. placental
b. post-natal
c. embryonic
d. fetal
A
c. embryonic
11
Q
During which stage of prenatal development are most miscarriages likely to occur?
a. zygotic stage
b. embryonic stage
c. fetal stage
d. germinal stage
A
b. embryonic stage
12
Q
Chelsey is pregnant and she is concerned about taking an over-the-counter medication for her
allergies. In which stage of prenatal development should she be most concerned?
a. fetal
b. germinal
c. embryonic
d. placental
A
c. embryonic
13
Q
. What is the third stage of prenatal development, which lasts from two months through birth?
a. postnatal
b. postgerminal
c. fetal
d. embryonic
A
c. fetal
14
Q
The Smith family is sitting around the table, talking about their upcoming family vacation to
the Rocky Mountains. Jack and Diane are the parents, and they are both in their 30s. They
have two children. Brian is 15 years old, and Betsy is 8 years old. Diane doesn’t know it yet,
but she’s also about 3 weeks pregnant with a third child. As they are all discussing the trip,
Betsy suggests that they go on a helicopter tour of the mountains like the one that she saw on
TV. Jack and Diane tell Betsy that they can’t afford that kind of trip this year, but they give
Betsy a travel guidebook and tell her that she could pick out an activity for the family that
costs less than $100. Brian tells his parents that he went online to one of the travel websites,
and plotted out several different routes for driving to their destination. He shows them how he
compared different ways of getting there (distance, time of travelling, and landmarks), and
explains that the route that he planned was a combination of shortest time of travelling but
with a few deviations to see some interesting places. Betsy thinks this is a great idea so that
the car doesn’t get bored on the way there!
14. What stage of development is Diane’s pregnancy at?
a. fetal
b. germinal
c. embryonic
d. conceptive
A
c. embryonic
15
Q
Which of the following would you expect to find if you were to compare Brian’s and Betsy’s
brains for age-related differences?
a. Brian has a fully developed prefrontal cortex.
b. Betsy has a fully developed prefrontal cortex.
c. Betsy has more white matter and less grey matter.
d. Brian has more white matter and less grey matter.
A
d. Brian has more white matter and less grey matter.
16
Q
Which of Erikson’s crises are Betsy’s parents helping her to resolve when they give her a task
to do in order to help plan the trip?
a. integrity versus despair
b. autonomy versus shame and doubt
c. industry versus inferiority
d. generativity versus self-absorption
A
c. industry versus inferiority
17
Q
What cognitive stage would Piaget suggest that Brian has achieved, based on his ability to
systematically evaluate and plan the driving route?
a. sensorimotor
b. preoperational
c. formal operational
d. concrete operational
A
c. formal operational
18
Q
What is the term for Betsy’s concern about the “feelings” of the car?
a. conservation
b. animism
c. egocentrism
d. centration
A
c. egocentrism
19
Q
At what stage does the developing human organism become capable of physical movement?
a. germinal
b. postnatal
c. fetal
d. embryonic
A
c. fetal
20
Q
Avery is excited by the fact that she has begun to feel her baby kicking and moving in her
uterus. In what stage must Avery’s pregnancy be if she can feel her baby moving?
a. fetal
b. neonatal
c. germinal
d. embryonic
A
a. fetal
21
Q
What is the longest stage of prenatal development?
a. embryonic
b. fetal
c. zygotic
d. germinal
A
b. fetal
22
Q
If a baby is born prematurely and survives, then which of the following developmental stages
must that baby have been in?
a. germinal
b. postnatal
c. fetal
d. embryonic
A
c. fetal
23
Q
What is the age of viability?
a. when the fetus experiences no further cell division in the brain; between 36 and 38
weeks
b. when the fetus can first respond to stimulation; at about 9 weeks
c. when the fetus can survive if born prematurely; between 22 and 26 weeks
d. when the fetus first has a heartbeat; at about 16 weeks
A
c. when the fetus can survive if born prematurely; between 22 and 26 weeks
24
Q
Felicia is pregnant and her blood pressure has become dangerously high. Her doctor wants to
deliver her baby by Caesarean section, even though Felicia is only 27 weeks pregnant. What is
the likelihood of survival if Felicia’s baby is delivered at this point in her pregnancy?
a. approximately a 25 percent chance of survival
b. less than a 10 percent chance of survival
c. virtually a 100 percent chance of survival
d. at least a 75 percent chance of survival
A
d. at least a 75 percent chance of survival
25
Systems in the body develop at different rates during pregnancy. At what pace of growth will
any mechanical or chemical interference with prenatal development have the most serious
impact on a developing system?
a. when it is not growing at all
b. when it is growing slowly
c. when it is growing at a constant pace
d. when it is growing rapidly
d. when it is growing rapidly
26
Camille drank heavily during the first eight weeks of her pregnancy, but since that time she
has abstained from all alcohol. Which of the following is most likely about Camille’s baby?
a. He will have no physical deformities, but will have an increased risk of mental
retardation.
b. He will have noticeable physical deformities, but no risk of mental retardation.
c. He will be unaffected by her drinking, because it occurred so early in the
pregnancy.
d. He will have noticeable physical deformities, and an increased risk of mental
retardation.
d. He will have noticeable physical deformities, and an increased risk of mental
retardation.
27
.
Angela and Dominique are best friends. Angela contracts rubella and Dominique catches it
from her. At the time they are sick with the disease, Angela is four weeks pregnant and
Dominique is eight months pregnant. What is the most likely outcome in this situation?
a. Neither baby will have physical defects as a result of their mothers’ rubella.
b. Angelina’s baby will be unaffected by the disease, but Dominique’s baby will have
physical defects.
c. Dominique’s baby will be unaffected by the disease, but Angelina’s baby will have
physical defects.
d. Both babies will have physical defects as a result of their mothers’ rubella.
.
c. Dominique’s baby will be unaffected by the disease, but Angelina’s baby will have
physical defects.
28
Which of the following should you infer about the mother if a baby is born with a small head,
heart defects, and retarded mental and motor development?
a. She smoked during pregnancy.
b. She had smallpox early in her pregnancy.
c. She continued to work during pregnancy.
d. She is an alcoholic.
d. She is an alcoholic.
29
Which of the following causes the full-blown fetal alcohol syndrome?
a. heavy drinking during the first three months of pregnancy
b. heavy drinking during the final three months of pregnancy
c. a drunken binge at any time during pregnancy
d. heavy drinking throughout pregnancy
d. heavy drinking throughout pregnancy
30
What are the expected effects of moderate, rather than heavy, drinking during pregnancy?
a. Even normal social drinking by the expectant mother may be harmful to the fetus.
b. Most doctors recommend small amounts of alcohol throughout pregnancy.
c. Three drinks per day can be considered a safe level of alcohol consumption for
most pregnant women.
d. Alcohol consumption by the mother poses almost no risk to the developing fetus in
the last three months of the pregnancy.
a. Even normal social drinking by the expectant mother may be harmful to the fetus.
31
Which of the following is NOT a risk associated with smoking cigarettes during pregnancy?
a. increased risk for Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS)
b. increased risk for miscarriage, stillbirth, or prematurity
c. increased risk for microcephaly in the newborn
d. increased risk of attention deficit disorder in the child
c. increased risk for microcephaly in the newborn
32
What is the primary factor that determines whether prenatal exposure to maternal illness will
cause damage to a developing organism?
a. whether the unborn child is male or female
b. at what stage of pregnancy the mother contracts the disease
c. the severity of the mother’s symptoms
d. the condition of the mother’s overall health
b. at what stage of pregnancy the mother contracts the disease
33
e
During which stage are genital herpes and AIDS typically passed from mother to offspring?
a. embryonic stage
b. childbirth
c. fetal stage
d. germinal stage
b. childbirth
34
. Of the countries listed below, which country has the lowest infant mortality rate?
a. United States
b. Great Britain
c. Canada
d. Sweden
d. Sweden
35
Of the countries listed below, which country has the highest infant mortality rate?
a. Hong Kong
b. Ireland
c. Singapore
d. United States
d. United States
36
Of the factors that may shape development prior to birth, which is the least understood?
a. tobacco use
b. rubella (German measles)
c. fluctuations in maternal emotions
d. excessive alcohol use
c. fluctuations in maternal emotions
37
If someone experiences prenatal malnutrition, which of the following is more likely for that
person?
a. schizophrenia
b. diabetes
c. gout
d. excessive alcohol use
a. schizophrenia
38
What does the cephalocaudal trend in physical development suggests about infants’ control
over their own bodies?
a. Hips and legs are under control before shoulders and arms.
b. Hands and fingers are under control before shoulders and arms.
c. Shoulders and arms are under control before hips and legs.
d. Shoulders and arms are under control before hands and fingers.
c. Shoulders and arms are under control before hips and legs.
39
In learning to crawl, children initially depend on their arms to propel them and later shift to
using their legs. Which developmental trend is this motor development sequence an example
of?
a. normative
b. cephalocaudal
c. proximodistal
d. maturational
b. cephalocaudal
40
Which of the following is a simple way of describing the proximodistal trend in the motor
development of children?
a. a side-to-side direction
b. an outward-inward direction
c. a head-to-foot direction
d. a centre-outward direction
d. a centre-outward direction
41
Which of the following body structures should take the longest to come under effective
control, according to the basic sequences of progression of motor maturation?
a. fingers
b. torso
c. arms
d. shoulders
a. fingers
42
What does the proximodistal trend in physical development suggest about infants’ control
over their bodies?
a. Shoulders and arms will be under control before hands and fingers.
b. Hips and legs will be under control before shoulders and arms.
c. Shoulders and arms will be under control before hips and legs.
d. Hands and fingers will be under control before shoulders and arms.
a. Shoulders and arms will be under control before hands and fingers.
43
What differs between the ‘older’ understanding of maturation and the ‘newer’ version?
a. We now know that maturation is simply the systematic unfolding of a genetic
program.
b. We now know that maturation requires the active participation of the infant.
c. Recent evidence suggests that maturation is more of a ‘blank slate’ than previously
believed.
d. Recent evidence suggests that developmental norms need to be revised to
accommodate the effects of preschool and daycare
b. We now know that maturation requires the active participation of the infant.
44
What is a developmental norm?
a. the age at which an average child achieves a skill
b. the mean age at which children achieve a skill
c. the median age at which children achieve a skill
d. the age at which most children achieve a skill
c. the median age at which children achieve a skill
45
Which of the following is most accurate regarding cross-cultural development of motor skills?
a. Rates vary somewhat across cultures, suggesting that genetic factors can slow or
accelerate early motor development.
b. Rates do not vary across cultures, suggesting that genetic factors alone determine
early motor development.
c. Rates do not vary within cultures, suggesting that environmental factors alone
determine early motor development.
d. Rates vary somewhat across cultures, suggesting that environmental factors can
slow or accelerate early motor development
d. Rates vary somewhat across cultures, suggesting that environmental factors can
slow or accelerate early motor development
46
Which of the following pieces of evidence supports a more modern understanding of
maturation?
a. Even babies who are born deaf will babble.
b. Children who are carried everywhere will walk later than average.
c. Children who were born premature are at risk for a variety of cognitive difficulties.
d. Development follows a cephalocaudal trend.
b. Children who are carried everywhere will walk later than average
47
Which of the following has been documented with respect to maturation?
a. While sequence varies a lot, rates are fairly universal across children.
b. The sequence of physical development varies from individual to individual.
c. The sequence of physical development varies from culture to culture.
d. All children go through roughly the same sequence of physical development.
d. All children go through roughly the same sequence of physical development.
48
In a healthy, normally developing child, which of the following is most likely to be due to
cultural or social differences in childrearing?
a. developing a skill very late
b. developing a skill very early
c. developing a motor skill
d. developing a behavioural skill
b. developing a skill very early
49
Which of the following becomes increasingly critical as children grow older and acquire
specialized motor skills?
a. experience
b. nutrition
c. genetic predisposition
d. maturation
a. experience
50
Cheyenne is a graduate student who is studying the way in which selective attention develops
during the preadolescent years. She selects a group of ten-year-olds, and she assesses their
selective attention every six months over a two-year period. What type of research design is
Cheyenne using?
a. cross-sectional
b. nested condition
c. multi-factorial
d. longitudinal
d. longitudinal
51
What type of study is being used when groups of subjects of differing age are compared at a
single point in time?
a. cross-cultural
b. longitudinal
c. cross-sectional
d. sequential
c. cross-sectional
52
Tucker is a graduate student who is studying identity formation. He selects a group of 5-yearolds, a group of 10-year-olds, and a group of 15-year-olds, and interviews each group, asking
them what they plan to be when they finish school. What type of research design is Tucker
using?
a. nested condition
b. multi-factorial
c. cross-sectional
d. longitudinal
c. cross-sectional
53
If you hypothesize that children in different age groups will be influenced by the music that is
popular when they started school, which of the following research methods would allow you
to look at such cohort effects?
a. matched pairs condition
b. within-subject design
c. longitudinal design
d. cross-sectional design
d. cross-sectional design
54
Around what age does research suggest that a child’s “temperamental individuality” is well
established?
a. one year of age
b. two years of age
c. six to seven months of age
d. two to three months of age
d. two to three months of age
55
Gary is an active infant who always seems to be happy. He has a regular schedule, and his
parents know that he will sleep through the night without waking, even when he stays
overnight with his grandparents. Which type of temperament does Gary have, based on
Thomas and Chess’ categories?
a. difficult
b. easy
c. uninhibited
d. slow-to-warm-up
b. easy
56
. Mikaela is a quiet infant who doesn’t seem to smile a lot, but who also seldom cries. She
seems cautious and wary of changes in her surroundings, but eventually she adapts to the
change. What type of temperament does Mikaela have, based on temperament categories
outlined by Thomas and Chess?
a. difficult
b. slow-to-warm-up
c. uninhibited
d. easy
b. slow-to-warm-up
57
What temperament category describes an infant who actively resists change, who fails to
develop a regular sleeping and eating schedule, and who is generally irritable and unhappy?
a. slow-to-warm-up
b. mixed
c. easy
d. difficult
d. difficult
58
How do Thomas and Chess refer to a child who tends to be glum, erratic in sleep and eating,
and resistant to change?
a. a slow-to-warm-up child
b. an easy child
c. a mixed temperament child
d. a difficult child
d. a difficult child
59
Ruby is an active infant who appears to be somewhat high strung, and who protests loudly
every time her parents try to change her routine in any way. What type of temperament does
Ruby have, using the temperament categories outlined by Thomas and Chess?
a. easy
b. difficult
c. uninhibited
d. slow-to-warm-up
b. difficult
60
If an infant is temperamentally easy, what would be the best prediction to make about the
child’s temperament at age ten?
a. The child is likely to overcompensate by becoming “difficult” later on.
b. By the age of ten, the child is likely to develop whatever temperament the primary
caregiver has.
c. No reasonable prediction can be made.
d. The child is fairly likely to retain the easy temperament.
d. The child is fairly likely to retain the easy temperament.
61
What type of temperament would Kagan and his colleagues use to describe infants who are
shy, timid, and wary of unfamiliar persons?
a. mixed
b. slow-to-warm-up
c. uninhibited
d. inhibited
d. inhibited
62
Ross is a shy, timid child who is uncomfortable around unfamiliar people. What type of
temperament does Ross have, using the temperament categories outlined by Kagan?
a. inhibited
b. slow-to-warm-up
c. uninhibited
d. easy
a. inhibited
63
What is the term for the close, emotional bond of affection between infant and caregiver?
a. identification
b. imprinting
c. dependency
d. attachment
d. attachment
64
At what age does an infant typically first exhibit separation anxiety?
a. one to two weeks
b. one to two months
c. around one year
d. six to eight months
d. six to eight months
65
Three-month-old Wade and 15-month-old Macy are left with a babysitter while their mother
runs a few errands. Which of the following is most likely, according to the research on
separation anxiety?
a. Macy will show more distress than Wade when she realizes that her mother has
gone.
b. Neither child is likely to show separation anxiety as long as the babysitter is
responsive and caring.
c. Both Wade and Macy will show about the same degree of separation anxiety.
d. Wade will show more distress than Macy when he realizes that his mother has
gone.
a. Macy will show more distress than Wade when she realizes that her mother has
gone.
66
Which of the following factors seems to be most important for attachment, based on evidence
from Harlow’s studies of attachment between infant monkeys and their substitute mothers?
a. providing protection
b. providing food
c. providing auditory feedback
d. providing comfort
d. providing comfort
67
Why are infants so cute and appealing to adults, according to Bowlby?
a. because we are attached to them, we perceive them as appealing
b. because we reinforce their actions that we find appealing
c. so that we will become attached to them and provide care
d. so that we are rewarded for our caring behaviours
c. so that we will become attached to them and provide care
68
What is the adaptive value of attachment processes, according to evolutionary theorists?
a. Children learn the social and emotional skills needed for survival and
reproduction.
b. Attachment itself is not an adaptive process, but it is a byproduct of other adaptive
learning processes.
c. Parents ensure that their infants stay close to them at all times, which enhances
survival.
d. Innate mechanisms ensure that parents and children cooperate
a. Children learn the social and emotional skills needed for survival and
reproduction.
69
Dr. Gevy explains that a secure attachment develops when the child experiences a predictable
relationship with parents that includes plenty of loving behaviour. The child learns that the
world is a safe place, and learns to trust easily. If a child experiences an unpredictable,
dangerous, or unloving environment, then the child learns to be wary and less connected to
other people. Dr. Gevy suggests that either style helps a child to survive to reproductive age in
its particular environment. What type of theorist is Dr. Gevy?
a. humanist
b. evolutionary theorist
c. cognitive theorist
d. developmental theorist
b. evolutionary theorist
70
Laura takes her one-year-old son, Jake, to visit a daycare centre where she plans to enrol him.
Jake eagerly explores the playroom as long as Laura is present. When his mom leaves the
room to fill out some forms, Jake becomes somewhat upset, but when Laura returns, he
quickly calms down. What type of attachment relationship likely exists between mother and
son in this example?
a. avoidant
b. secure
c. undeveloped
d. anxious-ambivalent
b. secure
71
. One-year-old Tommy is extremely distressed whenever his mother leaves him, yet resists her
attempts to comfort him when she returns. What type of attachment does Tommy likely have
with his mother?
a. avoidant
b. none
c. anxious-ambivalent
d. secure
c. anxious-ambivalent
72
Kara takes her 1-year-old son, Delaney, to visit a daycare centre where she plans to enrol him.
Delaney appears very anxious and is unwilling to explore the playroom, even though Kara is
close by. When his mom leaves the room to fill out some forms, Delaney becomes extremely
upset. When Kara returns he clings to her leg, but does not calm down and continues to sob.
What type of attachment relationship does this example illustrate?
a. secure
b. undeveloped
c. avoidant
d. anxious-ambivalent
d. anxious-ambivalent
73
Jasmin takes her 1-year-old son, Randy, to visit a daycare centre where she plans to enrol him.
Randy eagerly explores the playroom, and when his mom leaves the room to fill out some
forms he shows no signs of concern. When Jasmin returns, he shows little interest and
continues to play with the toys he has collected. What type of attachment relationship does
this example illustrate?
a. undeveloped
b. anxious-ambivalent
c. avoidant
d. secure
c. avoidant
74
Which of the following characteristics do preschool children who had secure attachments
during infancy tend NOT to display?
a. greater curiosity
b. more self-reliance
c. better peer relationships
d. higher levels of moral reasoning
d. higher levels of moral reasoning
75
In the middle childhood years, which of the following tends to be associated with the children
who have the best social skills and the richest friendship networks?
a. They have no same-sex siblings.
b. They had secure attachments during infancy.
c. They had several siblings close to their own age.
d. They started full-time day care before the age of two.
b. They had secure attachments during infancy.
76
Imagine that you have just read the results from a research study that investigated patterns of
attachment during infancy. In 100 parent–infant dyads, nearly half the infants showed
evidence of an avoidant attachment pattern. In which of the following countries did the study
likely take place, based on Cole’s research?
a. the United States
b. Germany
c. Japan
d. Canada
b. Germany
77
Imagine that you have just read the results from a research study that investigated patterns of
attachment during infancy. In 100 parent–infant dyads, none of the infants showed evidence
of an avoidant attachment pattern. Where should you expect that this study took place, based
on Cole’s research?
a. Japan
b. the United States
c. Germany
d. Canada
a. Japan
78
There are differences in parenting styles among various cultures and these differences appear
to be reflected in rates of different attachment styles. What does this suggest about the process
of attachment?
a. It is best observed within a North American style of parent–child interaction.
b. It is influenced by racial differences.
c. It is expressed differently, depending on what is allowed by parents.
d. It develops as a result of the style of interactions between parent and child
d. It develops as a result of the style of interactions between parent and child
79
Which of the following is assumed by stage theories of development?
a. Progress through the sequence of stages is not related to age.
b. There are few, if any, discontinuities in development.
c. Environmental circumstances can sometimes cause individuals to skip stages early
on and return to them later.
d. Individuals progress through specified stages in a particular order because each
stage builds on the previous stage
d. Individuals progress through specified stages in a particular order because each
stage builds on the previous stage
80
Erik Erikson’s developmental stages are organized around potential turning points. What are
these turning points called?
a. fixation points
b. psychosocial crises
c. psychosexual crises
d. developmental tasks
b. psychosocial crises
81
What will be acquired by a child who successfully completes stage 1 of Erikson’s stages of
psychosocial development?
a. a sense of competence
b. self-sufficiency
c. an ability to initiate one’s own activities
d. optimism and trust toward the world
d. optimism and trust toward the world
82
Which basic characteristic is developed in the first stage of development (birth to one year)
according to Erikson?
a. autonomy versus shame and doubt
b. trust versus mistrust
c. initiative versus guilt
d. industry versus inferiority
b. trust versus mistrust
83
Jerry is eight months old. What fundamental question is Jerry dealing with at this point in his
life, based on Erikson’s theory of personality development?
a. “Is my world predictable and supportive?”
b. “Am I competent or am I worthless?”
c. “Can I do things myself, or must I always rely on others?”
d. “Am I good or am I bad?”
a. “Is my world predictable and supportive?”
84
What is the developmental stage during which toilet training occurs, according to Erikson?
a. initiative versus guilt
b. trust versus mistrust
c. industry versus inferiority
d. autonomy versus shame and doubt
d. autonomy versus shame and doubt
85
Craig is two years old, and he likes to put on his own coat and shoes. His mother often
becomes impatient waiting for him to get ready, and she usually scolds him then finishes
zipping his coat and tying his shoes for him. What would Craig develop, based on Erikson’s
theory?
a. a general sense of mistrust
b. feelings of autonomy
c. feelings of shame and doubt
d. a sense of inferiority
c. feelings of shame and doubt
86
During the third stage of psychosocial development, the crisis that must be resolved is
initiative versus guilt. What did Erikson believe was the ability that children develop during
this stage?
a. how to deal with peers and adults
b. whom to trust or not trust
c. how to become self-sufficient
d. how to pursue their own interests and also get along with other
d. how to pursue their own interests and also get along with other
87
Anne is five years old, and she likes to help with jobs around the house. Tonight, when she
was clearing the dishes from the table, she dropped a stack of plates and broke them all. Her
father scolded her and told her that she could help more by staying out of the way and letting
her older brothers clear the table. What would Erikson suggest that Anne is likely to develop
if her father’s reaction is typical of the interactions she has with him?
a. feelings of inferiority
b. a sense of initiative
c. feelings of guilt
d. a general sense of mistrust
c. feelings of guilt
88
Which of Erikson’s stages includes the challenge of learning to function in society and
beyond the family?
a. autonomy versus shame and doubt
b. initiative versus guilt
c. industry versus inferiority
d. trust versus mistrust
c. industry versus inferiority
89
Carmyn is an elementary school-age child who does well in school and who receives praise
and support at home. What will she develop a sense of, according to Erikson?
a. generativity
b. trust
c. industry
d. superiority
c. industry
90
Kyle is nine years old, and he likes to draw and paint. However, he doesn’t receive very good
grades on his art projects, and several times his friends have laughed at the pictures Kyle has
created. What is Kyle likely to develop based on Erikson’s theory?
a. a sense of industry
b. feelings of guilt
c. a sense of despair
d. feelings of inferiority
d. feelings of inferiority
91
Shawn is concerned with how he compares to his peer group. For example, he is always trying
to kick the football farther than his friends, and he constantly wonders if he is doing as well in
school as the other boys in his Grade 2 class. Which stage is Shawn most likely in, according
to Erikson?
a. initiative versus guilt
b. autonomy versus shame and doubt
c. industry versus inferiority
d. identity versus role confusion
c. industry versus inferiority
92
What is the major shortcoming of Erikson’s psychosocial stages theory of development?
a. He placed too little emphasis on social forces in the development of personality.
b. It fails to account for continuity in personality development.
c. Like many stage theories, it pays little attention to explaining individual
differences.
d. He failed to look at adult development.
c. Like many stage theories, it pays little attention to explaining individual
differences.
93
What does cognitive development involve, according to Piaget?
a. increases in the quantity, but not the quality, of knowledge with age
b. passive reception of environmental stimuli
c. stages that are characterized by fundamentally different thought processes
d. age-related changes in attention and memory
c. stages that are characterized by fundamentally different thought processes
94
Piaget proposed four stages of cognitive development. Which of the following is NOT one of
his stages?
a. sensorimotor
b. formal operational
c. preoperational
d. postoperational
d. postoperational
95
What is the term for trying to deal with new situations in terms of existing mental structures?
a. rigidity
b. adaptation
c. accommodation
d. assimilation
d. assimilation
96
A child who knows how to tie shoelaces would probably find it relatively easy to learn how to
tie a ribbon on a gift. What would Piaget call this thinking process?
a. accommodation
b. maturation
c. assimilation
d. operationalization
c. assimilation
97
Which of the following Piagetian processes is a newborn demonstrating who sucks reflexively
on a bottle, just as she would at her mother’s breast?
a. acquisition
b. accommodation
c. adaptation
d. assimilation
d. assimilation
98
Four-year-old Melanie is exploring one day, and she finds a bottle of vitamins in a cupboard.
They look just like some of the candies she got for Halloween, so she eats them all. Which of
Piaget’s processes does Melanie’s error illustrate?
a. accommodation
b. assimilation
c. centration
d. object permanence
b. assimilation
99
Mrs. Tabak looks out her kitchen window and is upset to see that her six-year-old son, Ryan,
is picking all the tomatoes from her garden, setting them on his t-ball stand, and smashing
them with his bat. Which of Piaget’s processes is illustrated by Ryan’s substitution of
tomatoes for his regular red t-ball?
a. assimilation
b. object permanence
c. accommodation
d. centration
a. assimilation
100
Often new situations and experiences have characteristics in common with situations or events
that people have encountered in the past. Which of Piaget’s processes do people often use to
respond appropriately in these types of situations?
a. accommodation
b. centration
c. conservation
d. assimilation
d. assimilation
101
What is the term for revising a mental structure to incorporate new information?
a. accommodation
b. prototyping
c. elaboration
d. schematizing
a. accommodation
102
Which of the following Piagetian processes is responsible for a baby’s eventual modification
of the sucking reflex, depending on whether the stimulus is a nipple or a pacifier?
a. accommodation
b. acquisition
c. assimilation
d. adaptation
a. accommodation
103
Six-year-old Sidney thought all dogs were big, like his dog, until he saw his friend’s new
Chihuahua. Which of Piaget’s processes does the change in Barry’s understanding of dogs
illustrate?
a. assimilation
b. reversibility
c. object permanence
d. accommodation
d. accommodation
104
Sixteen-year-old Krystal thought that all she needed to do to earn an “A” was show up for
class and pay attention, like she had in middle school. In her first year of high school she got
Cs in all her classes because she didn’t study enough. Which Piagetian process would allow
Krystal to change her understanding of what is needed to succeed in school?
a. accommodation
b. reversibility
c. egocentrism
d. assimilation
a. accommodation
105
Which Piagetian process allows people to respond in new ways to changing environments?
a. assimilation
b. accommodation
c. centration
d. conservation
b. accommodation
106
How does a child relate to the world during the sensorimotor stage of cognitive development?
a. systematic hypothesis testing
b. logical reasoning
c. abstract operations
d. physical interaction
d. physical interaction
107
According to Piaget, during which stage of cognitive development do children come to realize
that an object continues to exist even when they cannot see it or touch it?
a. concrete operational
b. sensorimotor
c. formal operational
d. preoperational
b. sensorimotor
108
For children, in which Piagetian stage might we be correct with the old expression “Out of
sight is out of mind”?
a. concrete operational
b. sensorimotor
c. preoperational
d. formal operational
b. sensorimotor
109
When Teresa’s mother hides her favourite doll under a blanket, Teresa acts as if it no longer
exists, and she makes no attempt to look for it. Which of Piaget’s stages can you infer that
Teresa is in, based on this information?
a. sensorimotor
b. formal operational
c. preoperational
d. concrete operational
a. sensorimotor
110
Lane is currently attending kindergarten. Which stage is Lane most likely to be in, according
to the stages outlined by Piaget?
a. concrete operational
b. sensorimotor
c. preoperational
d. formal operational
c. preoperational
111
As a ball of clay is squeezed and shaped, an adult is aware that it retains the same volume.
What is the term for this Piagetian principle?
a. conservation
b. assimilation
c. object permanence
d. irreversibility
a. conservation
112
What does the term “conservation” refer to, regarding a child’s cognitive ability?
a. ability to understand that simply because something isn’t visible doesn’t mean it
no longer exists
b. ability to solve moral dilemmas in the most economical manner possible
c. assimilating new experiences into an existing memory structure in order to
conserve memory space
d. awareness that changing the shape of something doesn’t alter the amount of that
something
d. awareness that changing the shape of something doesn’t alter the amount of that
something
113
Patricia is upset because she is convinced that her brother has a bigger piece of cake than she
does. Her dad quickly slices Patricia’s piece of cake in two and tells her that she now has
“more” cake. What would it suggest about Patricia’s cognitive development if she calms
down and is convinced that she does have more cake than her brother?
a. She does not yet understand conservation.
b. She has not yet mastered object permanence.
c. She does not understand the process of assimilation.
d. She is displaying egocentric reasoning.
a. She does not yet understand conservation.
114
Mrs. Potter asks Malik if he wants his sandwich in one piece, or cut into two pieces. Malik
asks her to keep it in one piece, because he isn’t hungry enough to eat two pieces. What does
this answer suggest about Malik’s cognitive development?
a. He has not yet mastered object permanence.
b. He cannot assimilate changes in the shape of the sandwich.
c. He does not yet understand conservation.
d. He cannot accommodate changes in the shape of the sandwich
c. He does not yet understand conservation.
115
What is the term for the tendency to focus on just one feature of a problem while neglecting
other important aspects?
a. reification
b. assimilation
c. centration
d. object impermanence
c. centration
116
. Gretchen watches as her preschool teacher forms two identical balls of modeling clay. The
teacher gives one of the balls of modeling clay to Gretchen, and then squashes the remaining
ball into a flat pancake. She asks Gretchen if they both have the same amount of clay, and
Gretchen confidently states that the teacher has more because the pancake is wider than the
ball. What thinking flaw does this example illustrate?
a. egocentrism
b. assimilation
c. centration
d. conservation
c. centration
117
What is the term for the inability of a child to mentally “undo” something?
a. assimilation
b. irreversibility
c. egocentrism
d. object permanence
b. irreversibility
118
Preschoolers generally do not recognize that if 8 – 5 = 3, then 3 + 5 = 8. Which characteristic
of their thought causes this error?
a. centration
b. irreversibility
c. egocentrism
d. animism
b. irreversibility
119
If a child in the preoperational stage believes that a car is moving because she is in it, what
would Piaget call this type of thinking?
a. egocentrism
b. centration
c. conservation
d. reversibility
a. egocentrism
120
You ask a three-year-old why the sky is blue; she says it is because blue is her favourite
colour. What would Piaget call this type of thinking?
a. egocentric
b. irreversible
c. animistic
d. operational
a. egocentric
121
A child sees his mother crying and brings her his own favourite teddy bear to comfort her.
What is this child demonstrating about his cognitive development?
a. animism
b. egocentrism
c. centration
d. irreversibility
b. egocentrism
122
During which Piagetian stage are children’s thought processes particularly egocentric?
a. concrete operational
b. preoperational
c. sensorimotor
d. formal operational
b. preoperational
123
Timmy believes he can avoid getting any older by not having any more birthday parties.
Timmy is probably in which stage of cognitive development?
a. preoperational
b. sensorimotor
c. formal operational
d. concrete operational
a. preoperational
124
Bob is asked, “Do you have a brother?” He replies, “Yes.” “What’s his name?” “Joe.” “Does
Joe have a brother?” Bob answers, “No.” Which stage of cognitive development is Bob imost
likely in?
a. sensorimotor
b. concrete operational
c. formal
d. preoperational
d. preoperational
125
When Matthew saw his older brother’s bicycle fall off its kick-stand, Matthew told his brother
that the bicycle must be tired from being ridden too much. What would Piaget call this type of
thinking?
a. animism
b. centration
c. preformal operational
d. conservation
a. animism
126
Why is the concrete operationals stage said to be “concrete”?
a. An object must be present for the child to recognize its existence.
b. The child attributes human qualities to concrete objects.
c. Facts are taken to be set in stone, not to be given up easily.
d. Children can perform operations only on tangible objects and actual events
d. Children can perform operations only on tangible objects and actual events
127
Water is poured from a short, broad beaker into a tall, skinny beaker. Is there more or less
water now? A child answers that it’s the same amount, only it’s taller. In which stage of
cognitive development is the child?
a. preconventional
b. sensorimotor
c. concrete operational
d. preoperational
c. concrete operational
128
Ten-year-old Sherry watches as you flatten one of two equal-sized balls of clay into a
pancake. Sherry says they both still have the same amount of clay. What does Sherry
understand?
a. seriation
b. hierarchical classification
c. conservation
d. inductive reasoning
c. conservation
129
Eight-year-old Eric watches as you flatten one of two equal-sized balls of clay into a pancake.
Eric says they both still have the same amount of clay. When he is asked how he knows that
the ball and the pancake have the same amount of clay, he points out that the pancake could
once again be rolled up into a ball. What does Eric understand?
a. reversibility
b. decentration
c. preoperationalism
d. egocentrism
a. reversibility
130
During elementary school, children gradually acquire the ability to take the perspective of
others. What does this mean?
a. They become less egocentric.
b. They become less imitative.
c. They come to appreciate the logic of relations.
d. They develop the ability to classify objects.
a. They become less egocentric.
131
A five-year-old boy tells you that his kindergarten class has more boys than children. What
does this example illustrate about the child’s cognitive development?
a. He cannot handle hierarchical classification problems.
b. He cannot yet solve problems involving conservation of number.
c. He dislikes girls.
d. He fails to understand the concept of reversibility.
a. He cannot handle hierarchical classification problems.
132
Gerard watched as a researcher placed five toy station wagons and three toy convertibles on a
table. The researcher asked him if there were more station wagons or more cars, and Gerard
correctly answered that there were more cars. What cognitive skill has Gerard mastered?
a. object permanence
b. conservation of number
c. preaccommodation
d. hierarchical classification
d. hierarchical classification
133
What do children begin to do during the formal operational period of cognitive development,
according to Piaget?
a. think in terms of abstract principles and hypothetical possibilities
b. acquire the concepts of conservation and reversibility
c. think primarily in terms of concrete objects or situations
d. understand the nature of hierarchical classification
a. think in terms of abstract principles and hypothetical possibilities
134
John approaches problems systematically, considering various solutions and the consequences
of each, before he decides on the implementation of any one solution. Which level of
cognitive development is John probably at?
a. concrete operational
b. postoperational
c. formal operational
d. preoperational
c. formal operational
135
Byron is planning to ask his parents if he can borrow their car on Friday night. He is thinking
about all the possible reasons they might bring up for not letting him use the car, and thinking
of a logical reply to each of these possible objections. What do Byron’s thought processes
illustrate, based on Piaget’s model of cognitive development?
a. the use of concrete operational thought
b. postconventional reasoning
c. egocentric reasoning
d. the use of formal operational thought
d. the use of formal operational thought
136
Which of the following is a criticism of Piaget’s theory of cognitive development?
a. Piaget may have overestimated the cognitive skills of infants and preschool
children
b. The theory focuses too much on individual differences in development.
c. Evidence for the theory is too heavily based on cross-sectional research.
d. Piaget may have underestimated the influence of culture on cognitive
development.
d. Piaget may have underestimated the influence of culture on cognitive
development.
137
What aspect of development is described in the neo-Piagetian concept of M-capacity?
a. changes in a child’s reaction time over the first few years of life
b. alterations in sensorimotor functioning
c. changes in the tasks presented to children of different ages
d. changes in the ability to deal with greater cognitive complexity in a task
d. changes in the ability to deal with greater cognitive complexity in a task
138
What patterns do children show according to neo-Piagetian research on progression through
Piaget’s developmental stages?
a. They show a linear progression through the stages, and will spend a roughly equal
amount of time in each stage.
b. They may jump from stage to stage, initially showing high levels of functioning
and then temporarily regressing back to a lower level of cognitive functioning.
c. They often show no evidence of object permanence until after they have mastered
conservation.
d. They show evidence of attaining a “higher” stage for some tasks than others, if
tested on multiple tasks at the same time
d. They show evidence of attaining a “higher” stage for some tasks than others, if
tested on multiple tasks at the same time
139
In Pascual-Leone’s research, M-capacity refers to a concept that is similar to working
memory. What does that concept describe?
a. number of concepts that can be kept active at one time
b. number of items that a child can count
c. amount of information that can be stored in memory
d. temporal duration of a short-term memory
a. number of concepts that can be kept active at one time
140
Children raised in rural environments may develop the ability to find their way around a
wooded area using cues from the sun, and using trees as landmarks. Children raised in the city
may confidently navigate an urban bus system using maps and transfer points. Which of the
following theorists would find this difference most interesting and relevant to his or her theory
of cognitive development?
a. Ainsworth
b. Piaget
c. Erikson
d. Vygotsky
d. Vygotsky
141
Liam is working on a tough homework assignment for geometry. When he hits a particularly
difficult question, he asks his mother for help. She shows him how he can measure some
items around the house in order to understand the concepts in his assignment. As a result of
this hint, Liam is able to finish his homework. What is the term that Vygotsky would have
used to describe the difference between what Liam could do with and without help?
a. staircase differences
b. differential learning arenas
c. zone of proximal development
d. apprenticeship stages
c. zone of proximal development
142
Jordyn just got a new bike and she’s struggling to learn how to ride it. Jordyn’s older sister
Camryn is quite skilled on her bike, and she provides some hints to Jordyn to help her out. As
Jordyn gets better at riding, Camryn provides less feedback. What would Vygotsky call this
process?
a. accommodation
b. shaping
c. assimilation
d. scaffolding
d. scaffolding
143
. What is habituation?
a. sudden reduction in responding due to neural fatigue
b. gradual reduction in responding when the same stimulus in presented repeatedly
c. sudden increase in responding when a new stimulus is presented
d. startle reflex that occurs in response to an unexpected stimulus or loud noise
b. gradual reduction in responding when the same stimulus in presented repeatedly
144
Jeremy’s mother has been humming the same tune for five minutes. Four-month-old Jeremy is
nearly asleep, and his heart rate and respiration are slow. His mother switches to a different
tune, and Jeremy suddenly appears to be less drowsy and he is paying more attention. Which
of the following is Jeremy’s increase in attention when his mother switched tunes an example
of?
a. habituation
b. sensorimotor responding
c. a conditioned response
d. dishabituation
d. dishabituation
145
Suzanne is ten months old, and her older brother has been playing peek-a-boo with her for the
past ten minutes. At first, Suzanne was really excited each time her brother uncovered his
face, but now she seems bored and uninterested, and she barely responds when her brother
says, “boo.” Which of the following is Suzanne showing evidence of?
a. observational learning
b. dishabituation
c. an unconditioned response
d. habituation
d. habituation
146
Researchers working with the habituation-dishabituation paradigm have discovered that, at
three to four months of age, infants understand that objects are distinct entities with
boundaries. Which of the following is supported by this evidence?
a. Object permanence may emerge earlier than Piaget suggested.
b. Children may have an innate ability to solve simple mathematical problems.
c. The preoperational period of development starts earlier than Piaget suggested.
d. Children master the concept of conservation earlier than Piaget suggested
a. Object permanence may emerge earlier than Piaget suggested.
147
What do nativists do, with respect to cognitive abilities?
a. They strive to understand the adaptive significance of abilities that appear to be
prewired.
b. They attempt to find out which abilities are prewired, without making any
assumptions about why these abilities might be innate.
c. They assert that abilities which are prewired will be less prone to habituation or
dishabituation.
d. They suggest that infants attend more to novel events because these events require
more time for perceptual processing.
b. They attempt to find out which abilities are prewired, without making any
assumptions about why these abilities might be innate
148
What do evolutionary theorists do, with respect to cognitive abilities?
a. They assert that abilities which are prewired will be less prone to habituation or
dishabituation.
b. They suggest that infants attend more to novel events because these events require
more time for perceptual processing.
c. They strive to understand the adaptive significance of abilities that appear to be
prewired.
d. They attempt to find out which abilities are prewired, without making any
assumptions about why these abilities might be innate.
c. They strive to understand the adaptive significance of abilities that appear to be
prewired.
149
Mary is six years old and she is given a glass that contains some purple juice. She is surprised
when she drinks some and finds it tastes like lemonade. What will Mary most likely say if you
ask her what someone else would guess the juice would taste like, before they have a chance
to taste it?
a. grape juice
b. purple lemons
c. lemonade
d. yellow grapes
a. grape juice
150
Randall is three years old and he is given a glass that contains some purple juice. He is
surprised when he drinks some and finds it tastes like lemonade. What is Randall most likely
to say if you ask him what someone else would guess the juice would taste like, before they
have a chance to taste it?
a. grape juice
b. yellow lemonade
c. purple lemonade
d. yellow grapes
c. purple lemonade
151
At about what age do children first begin to understand that emotions are different from
behaviours, according to researchers who have mapped milestones in children’s understanding
of mental states?
a. one year old
b. two years old
c. three years old
d. four years old
b. two years old
152
At about what age do children begin to understand how thoughts and desires can motivate a
person’s behaviour, according to researchers who have mapped milestones in children’s
understanding of mental states?
a. three years old
b. two years old
c. one year old
d. four years old
d. four years old
153
What did Lawrence Kohlberg believe determines moral development?
a. social development
b. cognitive development
c. emotional development
d. physical development
b. cognitive development
154
What determines whether the child decides if things are good or bad at the preconventional
level of moral development?
a. if they are in accord with social rules
b. if they are against the law
c. if they fit the child’s own sense of “rightness”
d. if they bring punishment or reward
d. if they bring punishment or reward
155
In the 1960s, even though all her friends tried recreational drugs, Maggie refused to
experiment with drugs because she was afraid she would get caught and end up in jail. Which
level of Kohlberg’s moral development does this example illustrate?
a. preconventional
b. postconventional
c. authoritarian
d. conventional
a. preconventional
156
Which of the following will determine whether a behaviour is right or wrong when someone
is using conventional moral reasoning?
a. personal principles
b. potential rewards
c. society’s laws
d. risk of punishment
c. society’s laws
157
In the 1960s, even though most of his friends tried recreational drugs, Sebastian refused to
experiment with drugs. He did not think the drugs were likely to be harmful, but using the
drugs was illegal, and he believes each person has a moral obligation to obey society’s rules.
Which type of moral reasoning does this example illustrate?
a. conventional
b. social
c. preconventional
d. postconventional
a. conventional
158
Which of the following levels of moral development are you at if you join your friends in a
protest against nuclear power primarily because you want their approval, rather than because
of any strong conviction you have about nuclear power?
a. conventional
b. unconventional
c. postconventional
d. preconventional
a. conventional
159
. Which type of moral reasoning suggests that a poor man who stole food to feed his family was
right, because human life takes precedence over rules?
a. preconventional moral reasoning
b. concrete operational thought
c. postconventional moral reasoning
d. conventional moral reasoning
c. postconventional moral reasoning
160
At which of the following levels of moral development is a person who objects to war on the
basis of higher moral principles and a personal code of ethics?
a. unconventional
b. postconventional
c. preconventional
d. conventional
b. postconventional
161
Dr. Wilmark prescribes extra morphine for her terminally ill patients, and she knows that they
may use it to end their lives. This is in violation of federal law. She believes it is morally
wrong to cause unnecessary human suffering and, if necessary, she is willing to serve time in
jail rather than watch others suffer needlessly. Which type of moral reasoning does this
example illustrate?
a. authoritarian
b. preconventional
c. conventional
d. postconventional
d. postconventional
162
Which of the following does Kohlberg’s theory of moral development NOT suggest?
a. Most people show several levels of moral reasoning at one time.
b. There are sizable cultural disparities in progression through the stages.
c. Children generally progress through the stages in the order he outlined.
d. Compared to girls, boys generally show lower levels of moral reasoning
d. Compared to girls, boys generally show lower levels of moral reasoning
163
Maggie is 11 years old and has just begun a growth spurt. What stage of adolescent
development is she in?
a. plateau
b. puberty
c. pubescence
d. menarche
c. pubescence
164
Andrea is 13 years old and has just experienced her first menstruation. What is this stage of
adolescent development called?
a. adrenarche
b. pubescence
c. secondary puberty
d. menarche
d. menarche
165
What is the term for physical features that are associated with being male or female, but NOT
directly associated with reproduction?
a. nonsexual characteristics
b. secondary sexual characteristics
c. tertiary sexual characteristics
d. primary sexual characteristics
b. secondary sexual characteristics
166
Females developing wider hips and males developing facial hair are examples of which of the
following?
a. secondary sexual characteristics
b. tertiary sexual characteristics
c. peripheral sexual characteristics
d. primary sexual characteristics
a. secondary sexual characteristics
167
What sex difference exists for the onset of puberty?
a. It begins approximately four years earlier for girls than for boys.
b. It begins approximately four years earlier for boys than for girls.
c. It begins approximately two years earlier for girls than for boys.
d. It begins approximately two years earlier for boys than for girls
c. It begins approximately two years earlier for girls than for boy
168
Which of the following has NOT changed over generations?
a. age at puberty for girls
b. age at puberty for boys
c. the age at which the growth spurt begins
d. the rate at which the growth spurt proceeds
d. the rate at which the growth spurt proceeds
169
What is associated with early maturation in both males and females?
a. deterioration of peer relations
b. less self-control and emotional stability
c. higher levels of moral reasoning
d. greater risk for eating disorders
b. less self-control and emotional stability
170
As a parent, you are particularly worried that your child will engage in behaviours including
disordered eating, poor school performance, and promiscuity. Which of the following
individuals should you worry most about, given research evidence?
a. a boy who matures late
b. a girl who matures early
c. a boy who matures early
d. a girl who matures late
b. a girl who matures early
171
Which area of the brain appears to be the last to fully mature?
a. visual cortex
b. limbic system
c. prefrontal cortex
d. parietal lobes
c. prefrontal cortex
172
Which of the following best explains adolescent tendencies toward risky behaviour?
a. excessive punishment for risky behaviour in childhood
b. the gradual decrease in grey matter volume
c. the relative immaturity of the prefrontal cortex
d. secure attachment processes during infancy
c. the relative immaturity of the prefrontal cortex
173
Which of the following is true of most Canadian 12- and 13-year-olds, according to the
National Longitudinal Survey of Children and Youth?
a. They have contemplated suicide.
b. They almost never engage in dysfunctional behaviour.
c. They are relatively happy with their lives.
d. They have engaged in theft more than three times in the past year
c. They are relatively happy with their lives.
174
Which of the following has been reported by a substantial percentage (about 30 percent) of all
participants in the National Longitudinal Survey of Children and Youth?
a. theft
b. attempted suicide
c. conspiracy
d. heroin use
a. theft
175
In which of the following age groups does the ratio of attempted suicides to completed
suicides tend to be highest?
a. preteens
b. those at midlife
c. the aged
d. teenagers
d. teenagers
176
Which of the following is true of adolescents and suicide, when adolescents are compared to
older age groups?
a. Adolescents complete suicide just as often.
b. Adolescents complete suicide more often.
c. Adolescents attempt suicide more often.
d. Adolescents attempt suicide less often
c. Adolescents attempt suicide more often.
177
In the Featured Study on Youth Suicide in Canada’s First Nations, the purpose for the
research was to identify factors that might differentiate among high- and low-risk
communities. Why is this differentiation important?
a. The risk of suicide is high among adolescents in general and this trend is seen to a
similar extent among First Nations youth.
b. Although the risk of suicide among First Nations youth is the highest of any
cultural group in the world, there is a great deal of variation across bands and some
bands even have a rate of zero.
c. Although the risk of suicide among First Nations’ youth is typically very low,
there are some communities that appear to have an increased risk.
d. The risk of suicide among First Nations youth is lower than the national average,
and the protective factors associated with this reduced risk may help researchers to
prevent suicide in non-First Nations.
b. Although the risk of suicide among First Nations youth is the highest of any
cultural group in the world, there is a great deal of variation across bands and some
bands even have a rate of zero.
178
The authors of the Featured Study on Youth Suicide in Canada’s First Nations found
correlational evidence between cultural practices and suicide risk. What is the nature of that
correlation?
a. Where cultural practices were focused on amalgamation with the dominant culture,
suicide risk is low.
b. Where cultural practices aimed to preserve Native culture, suicide risk is low.
c. Where cultural practices were banned, suicide risk is low.
d. Where cultural practices aimed to preserve Native culture, suicide risk is high
b. Where cultural practices aimed to preserve Native culture, suicide risk is low.
179
Although the Featured Study on Youth Suicide in Canada’s First Nations was conducted
within First Nations communities, how could the results be understood more generally?
a. All adolescents must shed their earlier identity in order to maintain a healthy selfconcept, so a lack of self-continuity is healthy for all adolescents, regardless of
cultural affiliation.
b. The cultural markers in the study merely represent one method of maintaining
continuity or a healthy identity, and that this maintenance of identity is relevant to
all adolescents.
c. The participants in the study were not all members of First Nations, so the results
are not confined to application to First Nations youth.
d. The cultural markers identified apply only to First Nations youth, but the identified
risk factors apply to non-First Nations youth, as well
b. The cultural markers in the study merely represent one method of maintaining
continuity or a healthy identity, and that this maintenance of identity is relevant to
all adolescents
180
Leanna is 19 years old, and when people ask her what she wants to do when she finishes
school, she tells them she hasn’t really given it much thought. She is convinced there is lots of
time before she even needs to begin thinking about her various career options. What identity
status describes Leanna’s state, according to James Marcia?
a. moratorium
b. postponement
c. diffusion
d. foreclosure
c. diffusion
181
What type of goals is a person committed to in identity foreclosure?
a. those he arrived at after a long period of decision making
b. those he believes are apt to last only a short time
c. those he arrived at independently
d. those he simply took over from others
d. those he simply took over from others
182
Fifteen-year-old Marta has had a relatively smooth adolescent period and, at the urging of her
parents, has already decided on a college and a career. What type of identity status does it
represent if Marta is simply playing a passive role in relationship to her parents?
a. moratorium
b. diffusion
c. achievement
d. foreclosure
d. foreclosure
183
What is the term used by James Marcia to describe individuals who were delaying
commitment and actively exploring alternative ideologies?
a. postponement
b. diffusion
c. moratorium
d. foreclosure
c. moratorium
184
Edwin has just started his third year in university, and he is still exploring the options for his
major. He has taken a number of courses with the intention of obtaining a law degree, but last
semester he also discovered he was very interested in geology. He feels it is important to
reach a final decision before the end of the semester, and he has started investigating both
career options in great detail. What state does this represent, according to James Marcia?
a. foreclosure
b. moratorium
c. postponement
d. diffusion
b. moratorium
185
Which identity phase is characterized by having a sense of self and direction after
consideration of alternative possibilities?
a. achievement
b. foreclosure
c. moratorium
d. diffusion
a. achievement
186
Brock was not sure what he wanted to do while he was in college, so he talked to the career
counsellors last year. His profile showed a strong interest in both medicine and animals, so he
got a part-time job at the local humane society. He also checked the requirements for
veterinary school, and he has now completed six of the courses required for the veterinary
program. He is convinced that this is the ideal career for him. What identity status does this
represent according to James Marcia?
a. moratorium
b. diffusion
c. achievement
d. foreclosure
c. achievement
187
Which two identity statuses tend to decrease with age?
a. identity moratorium and identify achievement
b. identity diffusion and identify foreclosure
c. identity moratorium and identify foreclosure
d. identity diffusion and identify moratorium
b. identity diffusion and identify foreclosure
188
Which of the following statements regarding personality changes in adulthood is most
accurate?
a. Personality remains extremely stable after adolescence.
b. The adult personality is characterized by both stability and change.
c. Personality stability depends on one’s sex and socioeconomic status.
d. The overall personality undergoes systematic changes throughout adulthood
b. The adult personality is characterized by both stability and change.
189
In early adulthood, which psychosocial crisis centres on establishing close, personal
relationships with others?
a. integrity versus despair
b. identity versus confusion
c. intimacy versus isolation
d. generativity versus self-absorption
c. intimacy versus isolation
190
. Jocelyn is 25 years old and she feels very insecure about some of the personal and career
choices she has made so far. Consequently, at this point in her life she is unwilling to form a
serious, committed relationship with another person. What will happen to Jocelyn based on
Erikson’s theory?
a. She will develop a sense of isolation.
b. She will become self-indulgent and self-absorbed.
c. She will develop feelings of inferiority and doubt.
d. She will experience feelings of despair and bitterness
a. She will develop a sense of isolation.
191
Which of Erikson’s stages is associated with finding and making commitments to society and
future generations?
a. integrity versus despair
b. identity versus role confusion
c. generativity versus self-absorption
d. intimacy versus isolation
c. generativity versus self-absorption
192
Sergio just turned 53, and he feels as though he is not making any real contributions through
the career he has chosen. As he sits at his desk each day, he fails to find meaning in his life,
and feels as though he has no purpose or direction. What would Erikson say about Sergio’s
personality development?
a. He is experiencing feelings of despair and bitterness.
b. He is displaying signs of isolation.
c. He is showing evidence of inferiority and doubt.
d. He is becoming self-indulgent and self-absorbed.
d. He is becoming self-indulgent and self-absorbed.
193
Looking back on her long life, Hilda feels good about herself and her accomplishments and
swears that she would do it again the same way if given the opportunity. What stage is Hilda
in, according to Erikson’s theory?
a. integrity versus despair
b. intimacy versus isolation
c. initiative versus guilt
d. identity versus role confusion
a. integrity versus despair
194
Which of the following is NOT a current trend regarding marriage?
a. an increase in the number of single adults
b. a decrease in the percentage of couples who cohabit prior to marriage
c. an increase in the percentage of couples who voluntarily remain childless
d. an increase in the average age at first marriage
b. a decrease in the percentage of couples who cohabit prior to marriage
195
Which of the following is a recent trend in marriage in Canada?
a. for most first marriages to occur in the “teen” years
b. to remain single throughout life
c. for marriage to occur at younger ages
d. to increasingly postpone marriage into the late 20s or beyond
d. to increasingly postpone marriage into the late 20s or beyond
196
Which of the following is evident if age at first marriage is considered within a historical
context?
a. Although the age of first marriage is higher now than it was in the 1920s, it has
been increasing steadily since the 19th century.
b. Although the age of first marriage is lower now that it was in the 1980s, it is
returning to a more traditional level.
c. Although the age of first marriage is decreasing, it has been steadily decreasing for
the last few decades.
d. Although the age of first marriage is increasing compared to the 1970s, it is
actually becoming much more like those in the 1920s
d. Although the age of first marriage is increasing compared to the 1970s, it is
actually becoming much more like those in the 1920s
197
Donald and Marnie have three children under the age of five. Ralph and Carolyn have three
children between the ages of 8 and 13. What should you predict about the couples’ marital
satisfaction based on research into marital satisfaction across the family life cycle?
a. Both couples will report decreases in their overall level of marital satisfaction for
the past few years.
b. Ralph and Carolyn will report decreases in their marital satisfaction for the past
few years, while Donald and Marnie will report increases in their level of
satisfaction.
c. Both couples will report increases in their overall level marital satisfaction for the
past few years.
d. Ralph and Carolyn will report increases in their marital satisfaction for the past
few years, while Donald and Marnie will report decreases in their level of
satisfaction.
a. Both couples will report decreases in their overall level of marital satisfaction for
the past few years
198
Mr. and Mrs. McKavick have three school-age children. Their next-door neighbours, Mr. and
Mrs. Clancy, have three grandchildren who are about the same age as the McKavick’s
children. Which of the following is most likely at the present time, based on research into
marital satisfaction across the family life cycle?
a. Both couples are experiencing high levels of satisfaction in their respective
marriages.
b. The McKavicks are experiencing higher levels of marital satisfaction than the
Clancys are.
c. The Clancys are experiencing higher levels of marital satisfaction than the
McKavicks are.
d. Both couples are experiencing low levels of satisfaction in their respective
marriages.
c. The Clancys are experiencing higher levels of marital satisfaction than the
McKavicks are.
199
Walter and Camille have been an “empty nest” couple since their youngest son left for college
last year. What will Walter and Camille likely find now that they are alone?
a. They spend less time together than they did when the children were home.
b. Their marital satisfaction will start to increase.
c. The transition to being a “childless” couple will be stressful.
d. Their marital satisfaction will drop considerably
b. Their marital satisfaction will start to increase
200
Which of the following is experienced by most couples in the empty-nest stage of the family
life cycle?
a. eagerness to start a new family and looking forward to parenting
b. an increase in marital satisfaction
c. drifting apart and developing separate interests outside the home
d. postparental depression
b. an increase in marital satisfaction
201
What are the most common deficits associated with old age, in terms of sensory functioning?
a. dark adaptation and gustatory discrimination
b. vision and smell
c. hearing and cognition
d. vision and hearing
d. vision and hearing
202
Which of the following statements is most accurate about the experience of menopause?
a. Middle-aged males experience hormonal changes that are equivalent to the female
menopause.
b. Menopause is almost universally accompanied by severe emotional strain.
c. Most women experience relatively modest psychological distress during
menopause.
d. Menopause for most women typically occurs around age 40.
c. Most women experience relatively modest psychological distress during
menopause
203
What is the cause of roughly 70 percent of all cases of dementia?
a. neuronal loss that is part of the normal aging process
b. Parkinson’s disease
c. Alzheimer’s disease
d. strokes and cerebral hemorrhage
c. Alzheimer’s disease
204
Which of the following would you expect to see if you were viewing the brain of an
individual who had died from Alzheimer’s disease?
a. a significant reduction in the levels of serotonin within the brain
b. neural abnormalities, including neuritic plaques and neurofibrillary tangles
c. enlarged brain ventricles and deep cortical creases
d. a significant decrease in the number of neurons in the hypothalamus
b. neural abnormalities, including neuritic plaques and neurofibrillary tangles
205
Where are neuritic plaques and neurofibrillary tangles typically found in the early stages of
Alzheimer’s disease?
a. brain stem
b. hippocampal region
c. left hemisphere of the cortex
d. thalamus and hypothalamus
b. hippocampal region
206
On average, there is a decline in cognitive abilities with old age. Which of the following must
be taken into account in order to understand this average decline?
a. Results may be due to age-related bias in assessment methods.
b. Results are confounded by the effects of experimenter expectancy.
c. The distribution may be skewed by a small minority of severely impaired
individuals.
d. These results are found only within North American populations
c. The distribution may be skewed by a small minority of severely impaired
individuals.
207
Bernard is now 80 years old. When he was 20 years old, he took part in a detailed study that
assessed various aspects of his intellectual functioning. Which of the following would he most
likely find if Bernard were to complete the same tests today?
a. Both his fluid and crystallized intelligence have declined over time.
b. His fluid intelligence has remained stable over time, and his crystallized
intelligence has increased.
c. His fluid intelligence has declined over time, but his crystallized intelligence has
remained stable.
d. His crystallized intelligence has declined over time, but his fluid intelligence has
remained stable
c. His fluid intelligence has declined over time, but his crystallized intelligence has
remained stable.
208
Which of the following is most likely to decline in the later years?
a. procedural memory
b. speed in processing information
c. problem-solving ability
d. intellectual accomplishmen
b. speed in processing information
t
209
Irene is 75 years old and is having difficulty remembering something. Which of the following
is she most likely to have forgotten?
a. how to make her favourite recipe
b. where the bathroom is in her own home
c. what movie she watched last night on TV
d. the meaning of a word that she has known most of her life
d. the meaning of a word that she has known most of her life
210
. Which of the following unifying themes from your text is illustrated by differing views on the
course and nature of changes in personality across the lifespan?
a. Psychology is theoretically diverse.
b. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context.
c. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour.
d. Our behaviour is shaped by our cultural heritage
a. Psychology is theoretically diverse.
211
Rates of secure and insecure attachment vary across different cultures, perhaps related to
differences in parenting styles that are more or less common in different countries. Which of
your text’s unifying themes does this illustrate?
a. Our experience of the world is highly subjective.
b. There is an interaction of heredity and environment.
c. Psychology is theoretically diverse.
d. Our behaviour is shaped by our cultural heritage
d. Our behaviour is shaped by our cultural heritage
212
Which of your text’s unifying themes is illustrated by investigations of complex, real-world
issues, such as the effects of computer training for senior citizens?
a. Psychology is theoretically diverse.
b. Our behaviour is shaped by our cultural heritage.
c. Our experience of the world is highly subjective.
d. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context.
d. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context.
213
Which of your text’s organizing themes is illustrated by the fact that a child’s temperament
elicits different reactions from each parent, depending on the parents’ personalities and
expectations?
a. evolution of psychology in a sociohistorical context
b. interaction of heredity and environment
c. multiple causes of behaviour
d. cultural diversity
b. interaction of heredity and environment
214
. What is the essential difference between sex and gender?
a. Sex is cognitive, gender is behavioural.
b. Sex is biologically determined while gender is culturally determined.
c. Sex is culturally determined while gender is biologically determined.
d. Sex is behavioural, gender is cognitive
b. Sex is biologically determined while gender is culturally determined
215
On the average, females perform better than males on which type of tests?
a. short-term memory
b. mathematical ability
c. verbal skills
d. visual-spatial ability
c. verbal skills
216
The local school board in Middletown has decided to introduce standardized assessment tests
for all students in Grade 6. The test has separate sections for Math and English. Which of the
following should you expect, based on the research into gender differences in cognitive
abilities?
a. Male students will score higher than the female students on both sections.
b. Female students will score higher than the male students on the Math section.
c. Female students will score higher than the male students on both sections.
d. Female students will score higher than the male students on the English section
d. Female students will score higher than the male students on the English section
217
Which of the following is typical of females, compared to males?
a. Females are more assertive.
b. Females are more irrational in social interactions.
c. Females are more emotional.
d. Females are more sensitive to nonverbal cues
d. Females are more sensitive to nonverbal cues
218
What do psychologists mean when they say that “males and females differ on Trait X” ?
a. The average male differs from the average female on Trait X.
b. All males differ from all females on Trait X.
c. Most males differ from most females on Trait X.
d. The highest Trait X scores will be males’, and the lowest scores will be females’.
a. The average male differs from the average female on Trait X.
219
Which of the following is the major qualification of the research findings on gender
differences?
a. Most of the research has been conducted on white middle-class children.
b. The data are indicative of group differences and tell us little about individuals.
c. The findings are based on only a few studies and are therefore not very
representative of the population.
d. There is wide variation from study to study in how the variables have been
operationalized.
b. The data are indicative of group differences and tell us little about individuals.
220
Girls who have congenital adrenal hyperplasia have adrenal glands that produce high levels of
androgens (male hormones). Which of the following scores tend to be higher among girls with
congenital adrenal hyperplasia?
a. verbal reasoning and mathematical reasoning
b. creativity and leadership skills
c. aggressiveness and spatial ability
d. spatial ability and verbal reasoning
c. aggressiveness and spatial ability
221
Which of the following should you predict about a boy who had an endocrine disorder that
caused underproduction of androgens (male hormones), based on the research into the effects
of hormones on behaviour?
a. elevated scores on measures of verbal skills
b. reduced scores on measures of leadership skills
c. elevated scores on measures of spatial ability
d. reduced scores on measures of creativity
a. elevated scores on measures of verbal skills
222
Which of the following is NOT a limitation of evidence suggesting that prenatal hormones
contribute to the shaping of gender differences?
a. The evidence is more voluminous, and the findings are much stronger for females
than for males.
b. Most endocrine disorders have multiple effects.
c. It is risky to draw causal inferences on the basis of correlational data.
d. The conclusions are based on large samples from a variety of cultures, making it
difficult to draw general conclusions.
d. The conclusions are based on large samples from a variety of cultures, making it
difficult to draw general conclusions.
223
What are gender roles?
a. duties based on biological capabilities
b. social expression of biological gender differences
c. developmental stages associated with identity formation
d. responsibilities based on societies’ prescriptions of what is proper for each sex
d. responsibilities based on societies’ prescriptions of what is proper for each sex
224
Yesterday little Louis saw his brother climb a tree. Today Louis tried it and fell to the ground,
hurting himself. But his mother nevertheless praised him for being a brave boy. Which of the
following influences on gender-role socialization are at work here?
a. operant conditioning and classical conditioning
b. observational learning and reinforcement
c. self-socialization and punishment
d. self-socialization and extinction
b. observational learning and reinforcement
225
What does self-socialization include, according to cognitive theories of gender-role
development?
a. responding to praise from parents, teachers, and peers
b. valuing characteristics associated with the opposite gender
c. learning to classify oneself as male or female
d. being reinforced for gender-appropriate behaviours
c. learning to classify oneself as male or female
226
Which of the following statements is most accurate?
a. Girls typically receive more pressure to behave in gender-appropriate ways than
boys do.
b. Grade school teachers tend to scold girls more often than boys.
c. Parents’ attitudes have very little influence on the gender roles acquired by their
children.
d. On TV, physical attractiveness is more important for women than for men
d. On TV, physical attractiveness is more important for women than for men
227
Which of the following is the safest statement to make regarding the origin of gender
differences?
a. Hormonal differences between the sexes account for the largest proportion of the
variation.
b. The reinforcement children receive for displaying gender-appropriate behaviour
determines the differences.
c. As with anything, the explanation of gender differences is complex and must take
into account both biological and environmental factors.
d. The fact that males tend to exhibit more cerebral specialization than females
explains the bulk of the differences
c. As with anything, the explanation of gender differences is complex and must take
into account both biological and environmental factors.
228
Ceili and Fionn are discussing the statement “Fathers are essential for children’s well-being.”
Ceili says that it is clear that fathers are essential because children in fatherless homes have an
increased risk of a variety of behaviour problems. Which of the following points should Fionn
make to demonstrate that the argument is unreasonable?
a. The argument is based on a false dichotomy.
b. Other evidence suggests that it is the presence of a mother that determines whether
children will be well adjusted or not.
c. The argument is based on outdated information.
d. Evidence of a correlation between fatherlessness and behaviour problems does not
mean that there is a causal relationship between the two.
d. Evidence of a correlation between fatherlessness and behaviour problems does not
mean that there is a causal relationship between the two.
229
As you think about whether fathers are necessary for children’s well-being, you acknowledge
the increased risk of children’s behaviour problems in father-absent homes, but you also
consider the influence of poverty (which is also highly correlated with father absence) on the
adjustment of children. In doing so, which of the following critical thinking skills are you
using?
a. looking for alternative explanations
b. creating a novel fallacy
c. disproving a slippery-slope argument
d. rejecting a false dichotomy
a. looking for alternative explanations
230
You and a friend are discussing the importance of fathers in children’s overall development.
Your friend states that “If we fail to promote increased involvement of fathers in the parenting
process, then we must accept the inevitable breakdown of other social values.” What type of
reasoning fallacy is this?
a. a weak analogy
b. circular logic
c. alternative explanations
d. a false dichotomy
d. a false dichotomy
231
Which of the following critical thinking skills would be least important in evaluating the
argument that fathers are essential to normal development?
a. recognizing conclusions that are based on common reasoning fallacies
b. recognizing how emotions can be manipulated through conditioning
c. searching for alternative explanations
d. understanding the limits of correlational evidence
b. recognizing how emotions can be manipulated through conditioning
232
Which of Kohlberg’s moral development stages would a nine-year-old child likely be in if she
was in Piaget’s concrete operational stage?
a. premoral
b. conventional
c. preconventional
d. postconventional
b. conventional
233
Which of the following does not belong with the others, in relation to age?
a. babbling
b. separation anxiety
c. gradual mastery of object permanence
d. postconventional moral reasoning
d. postconventional moral reasoning
234
Which of the following does not belong with the others, in relation to age?
a. egocentrism
b. telegraphic speech
c. development of secondary sex characteristics
d. centration
c. development of secondary sex characteristics
235
Which of the following does not belong with the others, in relation to age?
a. generativity versus self-absorption
b. concrete operational
c. midlife transition
d. decreased speed in cognitive processes
b. concrete operational
236
Which of the following does not belong with the others, in relation to age?
a. postconventional moral reasoning
b. autonomy versus shame
c. development of secondary sex characteristics
d. formal operational
b. autonomy versus shame
237
Describe the four stages of cognitive development proposed by Jean Piaget, and discuss the
major developmental changes associated with each of the stages
Answers to this question should include the correct names for each of the stages, and the ages
that are associated with each stage in Piaget’s theory: sensorimotor (0–2 years), preoperational
(2–7 years), concrete operational (7–11 years), and formal operational (11+ years). In
addition, the key accomplishments and key limitations at each stage should be included.
During the sensorimotor stage, object permanence emerges. During the preoperational stage,
children show evidence of centration, irreversibility, and egocentrism. During the concrete
operational stage, children develop the ability to solve conservation problems and hierarchical
classification problems, and the limitations of the preoperational period (egocentrism,
centration, and irreversibility) decline or disappear. Finally, during the formal operational
stage, children become capable of abstract reasoning.
238
Research on adolescence indicates that for girls, early maturation is particularly difficult,
while for boys, late maturation is especially hard. How would you explain this gender
difference? Consider how your text’s unifying theme that psychology evolves in a
sociohistorical context might help to explain it
Answers to this question should centre on the fact that these differences arise from society’s
beliefs and expectations about what behaviours are appropriate for males and females.
Here’s one course an answer to this question could take: Boys are socialized toward
achievement in the world of action. Physically mature boys appear to be more competent
achievers, and better able to meet society’s expectations for males. Late-maturing boys may
appear inept in this regard, and this is threatening to their self-esteem. Girls, on the other
hand, have traditionally been socialized to become wives and mothers—roles that are closely
tied to their biological and sexual characteristics. In short, the traditional role of the female
has been to be the source and preserver of the family. Marital and family relationships are
therefore threatened by a woman’s sexual involvement outside the bounds of marriage. The
early-maturing girl, because she arouses sexual feelings in other males and because of her
own developing sexual desires, is thus seen as a threat. She is viewed with suspicion and
made to feel ashamed of her developing sexuality
239
Research indicates that there are genuine (although often small) gender differences in verbal
ability, mathematical ability, spatial ability, aggression, and nonverbal communication. There
is also some evidence that biological differences between the sexes in hormone levels and
brain organization contribute to some or all of these behavioural differences. Adopt a
functionalist/evolutionary perspective, and discuss why these biological differences and their
consequent behavioural differences might exist.
Possibilities: Aggressiveness and spatial ability might have served the male in his role as
provider, especially as hunter, while the female bore and reared the young. Communicative
abilities (verbal ability and nonverbal communication) could conceivably have been useful to
females in their roles as preservers of family and other important relationships. Mathematical
ability is a tough one, though creative students will be able to come up with something
240
According to Carol Gilligan (1982), Kohlberg’s theory describes moral development from the
“justice perspective,” which tends to predominate in males, but neglects to consider the “care
perspective,” which tends to predominate in females. From the justice perspective, moral
decisions are based on considerations of fairness and equal treatment for all. From the care
perspective, moral decisions are based on considerations of meeting individuals’ personal
needs and preserving relationships. Do research findings on gender differences support
Gilligan’s views
Good answers would explore possibilities for how the established behavioural differences
between the genders discussed in the application might lead males to considerations of justice
and fairness and females to considerations of individual need and preservation of
relationships. A well-rounded answer would also consider how differential socialization
practices could contribute to the gender differences that Gilligan posits
