Vitamins and Physiotherapy (Irene Gold) Parts II and III Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Vitamins and Physiotherapy (Irene Gold) Parts II and III Deck (142):
1

A deficiency in which vitamin will cause night blindness?

Vitamin A (Retinol)

2

What is the name for Vitamin A?

Retinol

3

What condition will an increase in Vitamin A cause?

Hypervitaminosis: beta-caratinema (yellow skin with normal sclera)

4

What is the name for Vitamin B1?

Thiamine

5

What condition is caused by a decrease in Thiamine?

Beri-Beri

6

What are two findings with Beri-Beri syndrome?

Encephalopathy
Psychosis

7

What condition is seen in alcoholics that have a decrease in Vitamin B1?

Wernike Kosakoff syndrome

8

What vitamin is called Riboflavin?

B2

9

What is the name of the condition seen in a person with a decrease in Vitamin B2?

Cheilosis (Sore cracks at the corner of the mouth)

10

What is the name for Vitamin B3?

Niacin

11

What condition is seen in patients with a decrease in Niacin?

Pellagra
4 D's: Dementia, Dermatitis, Diarrhea, Death

12

What is the name for Vitamin B6?

Pyridoxine

13

For what condition is Pyridoxine recommended?

Peripheral nerve healing

14

What four conditions is Vitamin B6 used to help?

Carpal tunnel
Pregnancy
Hypo-tension
Natural Diuretic

15

When is Vitamin B9 recommended to be taken and for what purpose?

Prior to pregnancy
To help with formation of the neural arch;neural tube defects are less likely to occur

16

What is the name for Vitamin B9?

Folic Acid

17

What type of anemia is seen in alcoholics with a Folic Acid deficiency?

Megoloblastic (Macrocyic) Anemia

18

What does a deficiency in B9 produce?

Glossitis

19

Pain in what location of the body will improve at night when taking B9?

Legs

20

What Vitamin has the name Cobalamin?

B12

21

What population will be deficient in B12?

Vegetarians

22

A lack of intrinsic factor with Cobalamin leads to what type of Anemia?

Pernicious Anemia

23

A deficiency of B12 leads to Megaloblastic anemia which is confirmed positive how?

Positive Schilling test

24

What Vitamin is associated with Posterolateral Sclerosis (Combined Systems Disease)?

Cobalamin

25

What two systems are often part of Combined System Disease (PLS)?

Gastrointestinal (GI)
Neurological

26

What Vitamin masks the symptoms of B12?

Folic Acid (B9)

27

What conditions will persist even after Cobalamin is administered?

Neuropathies

28

What is the name for Vitamin C?

Ascorbic Acid

29

What two conditions will be seen if a patient has a decrease in Ascorbic Acid?

Scurvy
Capillary fragility

30

In what population should you supplement Vitamin C, because of a deficiency?

Smokers

31

What is one function of Ascorbic Acid?

Healing of connective tissue

32

Vitamin C helps with the absorption of what mineral?

Iron

33

When should you avoid the intake/supplementation of Vitamin C?

When kidney stones are present

34

What condition can arise if there is an excessive amount of Ascorbic Acid consumed?

Diarrhea

35

What condition will be seen with a deficiency in Vitamin D?

Bone Softening called:
Rickets- Kids
Osteomalacia- Adults

36

What are two very good sources of Vitamin D?

Fish liver oil (Best source)
Egg yolks

37

What two signs will be present in a patient with a decrease in Vitamin D?

Rachitic Rosary near Sternum
Saber Shin

38

What will an increase of a Vitamin D do?

Increase bone density

39

What is the name of the x-ray finding in patients with a decrease of Vitamin D?

Paint brush metaphysis

40

In what climate will you see a deficiency in Vitamin D?

In cooler climates

41

What is the name for Vitamin E?

Tocopherol

42

What Vitamin is an antioxidant for the cardiovascular system?

Vitamin E

43

Where is Vitamin K made?

Intestinal flora

44

What is the major function of Vitamin K?

Clotting

45

How is Vitamin K destroyed in the body?

Antibiotic Therapy

46

What is a contraindication with Vitamin K deficiency?

Anticoagulants

47

What amino acid is increased in Coronary/ Cardiovascular disease?

Homocysteine

48

What is used to treat hypercholesterolemia, natural anti inflammatory?

Omega 3 Fatty Acids

49

What three things will Zinc help with?

Prostate health
Wound healing
Immune system health

50

A toxic does of what mineral will do damage to hair, nails and skin?

Selenium

51

What mineral is essential for diabetics and is a glucose tolerance factor?

Chromium

52

What is the number one mineral deficiency in the world?

Iron

53

What mineral is the most deficient in the United States?

Calcium

54

What is the name of a cancer specialist?

Oncologist

55

What specialist is similar to a General Practitioner?

Internist

56

What is the focus of a Gastroenterologist?

Gastrointestinal (GI) dysfunction
i.e. Stomach and Gallbladder

57

If a patient has a kidney issue, who is the appropriate referral to?

Nerphroligist

58

What specialist takes care of glandular problems, i.e. Diabetes Mellitus?

Endocrinologist

59

What does a Urologist focus on?

Genitourinary (GU) tract
Prostate

60

What is the name of the specialist that takes care of heart conditions?

Cardiologist

61

What conditions will often be cared for by a Neurologist?

Multiple Sclerosis
Parkinson's
Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)

62

What age is seen by a Pediatrician?

Newborn up to 14 years of age

63

What are the three essential fatty acids?

Linolenic acid (omega-3 fatty acid)
Linoleic acid (omega-6 fatty acid)
Arachidonic Acid

64

If there is an increase in dietary protein what else must be increased?

Calcium

65

What are the time frames for the following:
Acute
Subacute
Chronic

Acute: 24-48 hours
Subacute: 48-72 hours
Chronic: 72+ hours

66

What are the indications of massage?

Subacute sprains/strains
Bruises
Tendinitis
Bursitis

67

What are the contraindications of massage?

Vascular problems i.e. Blood clots

68

What is the name of the modality used to break up adhesions?

Friction massage

69

What is one condition that you would use Friction/ Transverse massage?

Epicondylitis (Lateral/Medial)

70

When would Trigger Point Therapy be indicated for use?

Myofascial pain

71

What is the maximum time you should perform Trigger Point Therapy at one location?

Ten seconds

72

What is the purpose of Trigger Point Therapy?

To elongate contracted bands of muscle fibers

73

What two modalities can be done to each myofascial pain problem?

Trigger Point Therapy
Spray and Stretch

74

What are four indications to carry out Traction?

Disc syndrome
Intervertebral Foramen (IVF) encroachment
Chronic muscle spasm
Degenerative Joint Disease (DJD)

75

What are three contraindicates of doing Traction?

Acute Injury
Bone weak/Inhibitedening conditions
Ligament Instability

76

What is the indication to use Cryotherapy?

Acute conditions

77

How long should Cryotherapy be used for?

20-30 minutes

78

What mnemonic is often used with the Cryotherapy modality?

RICE
Rest
Ice
Compress
Elevate

79

What are the four contraindicates to Cryotherapy?

Circulatory comprise
Raynaud's
Frostbite
Hypersensitivity to cold

80

What are the three indications to use Infrared?

Chronic musculoskeletal conditions
Arthritic conditions
Stiff joints

81

What are three contraindicates to Infrared therapy?

Acute conditions
Inflammation
Abnormal thermal sensation

82

When is it appropriate to use Ultraviolet light therapy?

Skin and bone conditions (i.e. Infection)

83

What are two contraindicates to Ultraviolet therapy?

Hemorrhage
Inflammation

84

What three effects does Ultraviolet therapy have?

Antibacterial
Antifungal
Metabolic

85

What is another name for Diathermy?

Heat; Short wave and Microwave

86

What are three indications to use Diathermy?

Deep chronic musculoskeletal conditions
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)
Prostatitis

87

What are three contraindicates of Diathermy?

Acute conditions
Metallic implants
Epiphyseal centers

88

When is pulsed ultrasound used?

During the acute phase

89

When is continuous ultrasound used?

Subacute and Chronic phases

90

What are the three indications to where you would use ultrasound?

Musculoskeletal conditions
Contractures
Adhesions

91

What are three contraindicates of ultrasound?

Epiphyseal centers
Bony prominences
Fractures

92

What four effects does Ultrasound have?

Thermal (Continuous only)
Mechanical
Chemical
Neural

93

When would you perform ultrasound underwater?

Bony/irregular areas

94

What mode of ultrasound is used for an acute condition?

Pulsed

95

In an acute condition what setting is the ultrasound set on for Thin Tissue?

0.5-1.0 w/cm^2

96

What ultrasound setting would be appropriate for a setting of 1.0-1.5 w/cm^2?

Thick Tissue of an Acute condition

97

What mode is the ultrasound set on for a Chronic condition?

Continuous

98

What setting is the ultrasound set on for Thin Tissue in a Chronic condition?

1.0-1.5 w/cm^2

99

What is the setting on the ultrasound for an area of Thick Tissue in a Chronic Condition?

1.5-2.0 w/cm^2

100

What is the rule for conducting Ultrasound underwater?

Add 0.5 w/cm^2

101

What helps to drive ions into the tissue when using Ultrasound?

Phonophoresis

102

When would you use Low-Volt Galvanic?

Iontophoresis
Denervated muscle

103

What four conditions would you use High Volt Galvanic?

Pain control
Decrease muscle spasm
Decrease edema
To exercise the muscle

104

What is the purpose for a TENS unit?

Pain control

105

What three reasons would you use Faradic/Sine wave therapy?

Muscle contraction
Stretch fibrotic tissue
Increase lymph flow

106

What modality produces less heat?

Interferential

107

What are four uses for Interferential therapy?

Pain control
Edema reduction
Break muscle spasms
Exercise the muscle

108

What modality has a penetration twice as deep as High Volt Galvanic?

Interferential

109

What is another name for a Trochanteric Belt?

Sacroiliac Girdle

110

What two populations can benefit from a Trochanteric Belt?

Pregnant women (Lax SI joints, after pregnancy)
Patients with Osteitis Condensans Ilii (OCI)

111

What kind of muscle contraction would you instruct a patient in a cast to do? This will prevent atrophy

Isometric muscle contraction

112

What term is described as " Muscular contraction in which tension is developed but the muscle does not change in length"?

Isometric muscle contraction

113

When is an Isometric muscle contraction most often used?

Initial treatment of an injury

114

What is an Isotonic muscle contraction?

Muscle contraction when there is a change in the muscle length

115

In an Isotonic muscle contraction the joint movement and the exercise are performed with ___________?

Constant Resistance/Same weight

116

What is a Concentric Isotonic Muscle Contraction?

Shortened Contraction (+ work)

117

What is it called when there is Negative (-) work or and lengthening contraction?

Eccentric Isotonic Muscle Contraction

118

What is the term used for "Muscular contraction with a change in length and a constantly changing resistance performed at a constant speed through the full range of motion"?

Isokinetic Muscle contraction

119

What exercises are done for peripheral vascular disease?

Buerger-Allen

120

What condition is reduced by performing William's Flexion exercises?

Hyperlordosis

121

What are three example of William's Flexion exercises?

Abdominal crunches
Pelvic tilts
Hamstring stretches

122

What exercises are done to help increase lumbar lordosis and rehab a disc?

McKenzie's Extension Exercises

123

What exercises include "finger tip wall walking" and "pendular exercises"?

Codman's Exercises

124

What condition does Codman's Exercises help with?

Shoulder Issues

125

What exercise is instructed to postpartum women and men with incontinence?

Kegel Exercises

126

What is the name of the exercise that provides Feedback?

Jacobson's

127

What is the name of the exercises for knee rehab?

DeLorme

128

What are Frenkel's Exercises?

Increase coordination
Uses a Wobble Board

129

What is the name of the exercises used in patterning and helping patients with Cerebral Palsy (CP)?

Bobarth

130

What is the name for Ballistic exercises?

Plyometric

131

What is an example of an Open chain exercise?

Bicep curl
Leg extension

132

What is the definition of an Open Chain Exercise?

Exercise where the hand/foot is free to move

133

What is the name of the exercise that has a fixed/does not allow the hand/foot to move freely?

Closed chain exercise

134

What is an example of a closed chain exercise?

Pushup
Squat

135

What is the name of the brace to help with Osgood-Schlatter disease?

Cho-pat brace

136

What is another name for Osgood-Schlatter disease?

Tibial Apophysis

137

What muscles are Weak/Inhibited in Upper Cross Syndrome?

Deep neck Flexors (i.e. Longus Coli and Longus Capitus)
Lower Trapezius
Serratus Anterior
Rhomboids
Posterior Deltoid

138

What muscles are Tight/Facilitated in Upper Cross Syndrome?

Pectoralis
Upper Trapezius
Levator Scapula
Anterior Deltoid
Superficial neck Flexors (i.e. Scalenes and Sternocleidomastoid (SCM))

139

What three muscles are Weak/Inhibited in Lower Cross Syndrome?

Abdominal (Transverse Abdominal)
Gluteus MAXIMUS
Hamstrings

140

What three muscles are Tight/Facilitated in Lower Cross Syndrome?

Iliopsoas
Quadriceps
Erector Spinae

141

What two supplements should a patient with Degenerative Joint Disease (DJD) be taking?

Glucosamine Sulfate
Chondroitin

142

What supplement should a patient with Herpes be taking?

L-Lysine