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Flashcards in VPH Deck (96)
1

What does the FBO have to do if food chain information for a batch of poultry shows a positive test for salmonella enteritidis or typhimurium?

FBO must retain the affected batches and slaughter them at the end of the production day, after slaughter undertake a full cleansing and disinfection of equipment and machinery, including changing the water in the scalding tanks, and renewing the water in the spin chillers. Where a positive batch has been processed in the middle or at the end of a production run then the production run should be stopped as soon as the affected batch has been processed and a full clean down as above take place before any further processing commences. Following production, in the absence of any relevant AM or PM findings, teh carcases can enter the food chain as normal.

2

What is the purpose of AMI in poultry?

Accurate AMI should include listening to the birds and observation of a random sample checking posture, wattle colour and clealiness. If the birds show clinical signs of a disease, they may not be slaughtered for human consumption. Killing of these birds on the slaughter line may take place at the end of the normal slaughter process if precautions are taken to avoid the risk of spread of pathogenic organisms and to clean and disinfect the facilities after killing.

3

Which poultry diseases can be checked for at post mortem infection?

Pasteurellosis, salmonellosis, avian chlamydiosis, avian mycoplasmosis, avian TB, erysipelas, infectious coryza, avian influenza, infecitous bronchitis, infectious bursal disease, infectious laryngotracheitis, newcastle disease, viral arthritis, mareks disease.

4

How should poultry be unloaded at the abbatoir?

Must be protected from adverse weather conditions, must be provided with adeqate ventilation, must be unloaded form behicles as soon as possible after arrival, avoiding unnecessary delay. FBO must check welfare of animals. Crates containing birds must be unloaded from vehicles with care in a calm unhurried manner. The crates should be maintained in the upright position so that the birds are not in an unsettled or excitable state when they are subsequently handled before slaughter. Crates are stacked far enough apart to permit adequate airflow between stacks.

5

How long should birds be shackled for?

give Shackled birds time to become settled in the hanging position (12 secs for chickens and 25 secs for turkeys). It is inappropriate to shackle sick or injured birds. Birds must not be shackled for more than 3 minutes in the case of turkeys or 2 minutes in the case of any other bird. Birds should be hung on by both legs and well fitted into shackles.

6

How can an effective simple stun be recognised?

No rythmic breathing for 10-20 sec after leaving the water bath, neck arched with head directed vertically, dilated pupils, absence of a corneal or 3rd eyelid response, no response to comb pinch, wings held close to body, rigidly extended legs, constant body tremors.

7

How can an effective stun kill be recognised?

If the bird has received an effective stun kill and is dead the following signs will be seen: fixed central dilated pupils, no rythmic breathing, no response to any stimuli, limp carcase.

8

What are the advantages to gas stunning birds?

Shackling and inversion of live birds is avoided, no need for birds to be handled, no pre stun shocks, all birds are dead prior to bleeding, fewer broken bones, less damage occurs in breast meat.

9

What are the disadvantages of gas stunning birds?

More expensive to run than electrical stunner, still need a back up system in place incase of break down, health and safety for people in case of gas leak, higher level of training needed for slaughtermen.

10

How long should the stun to bleed interval be in poultry?

less than 15 seconds is recommended. the cut must sever at least one of the carotid arteries or the vessels from which they arise. More rapid bleed out is achieved if both carotid arteries are cut.

11

What temperature should scalding be?

51-53C for 3 min

12

What temperature should carcasses be kept at?

Poultry meat not stiffened by the cooling process which is to be kept at a temperature not below -2C and not higher than 4C at any time.

13

What ID must a horse have to be slaughtered for human consumption?

any equidae slaughtered for human consumption must be accompanied by a valiv passport which does not show that the animal is NOt intended for slaughter for human consumption -
Sextion IX part II is NOT SIGNED.
there are no other stamps are markings within the human passport which indicate that the horse is not intended for human consumption.
There is no vet treatment which would make it unsuitable for human consumption e.g phenylbutazone.
Foals born after july 2009 must also be mandatorily implanted with a microchip. These may enter the food chain if seciton IX is not signed.

14

What is campylobacter and what symptoms does it cause in humans?

A gram negative curved vacillus.
Incubation period is 2-5 days. symptoms include fever, headache, myalgia initially then diarrhoea, dysentry and abdominal pain. The usually course is

15

What are the risk factors for acquiring campylobacter infection?

Consumption and handling of raw or undercooked meats, especially poultry, cross contamination of food during preparation, consumption of raw milk, consumption of surface water or well water, direct contact with animals, underlying disease.

16

How does campylobacter affect poultry?

It is considered a commensal in the intestinal tract, especially the caeca of birds, which causes an induced mild inflammatory response in birds intestines but this does not clear bacteria. It is non pathogenic in birds. 75% of broiler chicken batches on farms in uk were campyobacter positive in 2008.

17

What is salmonella? What symptoms does this have in humans?

A rod shaped, motile gram negative bacteria. Nausea, vomiting, abdominal carmps, diarrhoea, fever and headache.

18

What is the delvo test? what is it sensitive to?

Cultures of Bacillus
stearothermophilus
var. calidolactis in
solid agar medium
and indicator
A standard diffusion test for detection of
antibiotic- and/ or sulfa residues in milk
– An Ampule Test
– A Plate Test
-Sensitive to most of antibiotics- detection limit
for penicillin 0.003IU per ml
- Simple and quick

19

How else can milk be tested for antibiotic residues apart from the delvo test?

The New SNAP BetaLactam
Test is an
enzyme receptor binding
assay
• Dectects penicillin G,
amoxycillin, ampicillin,
ceftiofour and cephapirin
residues in raw milk at
below or below tolerance
and /or safe levels

20

What is the difference between a best before and a use by date?

Use-by date: last date by which product should be
consumed; product may not be safe to eat after this date
due to growth of pathogens and potential for food
poisoning; applies to foods which are highly
microbiologically perishable
• Best-before date: refers to quality of the food; taste,
texture, aroma etc. of the food will be best before this date
as long as storage instructions are followed but can be
eaten after this date

21

What is the difference between UHT and pasteurisation?

UHT: 135o C for 1-4 seconds; kills all micro-organisms and spores;
sterile product
• Pasteurisation: various protocols; most common 72o
for 15 seconds;
reduces number of viable pathogens and also destroys many
spoilage organisms; spores and thermoduric bacteria survive
• UHT is safer than pasteurised milk as it destroys all micro-organisms
whereas pasteurisation results in a 5-log reduction in pathogen
numbers but spores can survive and potentially lead to foodpoisoning
e.g. Bacillus cereus

22

What are the public health concerns with eating tuna?

Clostridium botulinum intoxication (botulism)
• spore survival at canning temperatures with subsequent toxin
production;
• ingestion of toxin in canned food;
• paralytic illness; starts at face and spreads; can be fatal is respiratory
involvement;
• commercial canning includes ‘botulinum cook’ step (121o C for 3 mins)
to destroy toxin but occasional cases still occur; home canning more
NB
– Histamine toxicity:
• Histidine found in many fish types
• Converted to histamine by several enteric bacteria on exposure to air
at room temperatures
• Histamine is not destroyed by cooking;
• Histamine is mediator of allergic reaction therefore signs are those of
allergic reaction; occur rapidly after ingestion and usually self-limiting

23

What are the risks concerned with eating canned food?

Lead poisoning – migration from lead seal on can; not
commonly used
o Bisphenol A toxicity – used to make epoxy resin lining can;
acts as xenooestrogen; may have numerous side effects

24

Why is a white coating of lacquer necesary on some canned foods?


– Lacquer
– Prevent contact between metal and food
– Necessary for acidic & high protein foods

25

What testing must be done in the UK for pigs for trichinella?

In trichinella free zones like the UK - it is not required to do tests for domestic pigs kept solely for fattening, or meat from domestic pigs subject to freezing treatment under official controls.
We have to test:
Breeding pigs (sows or boars)
Wild or farmed boar
Solipeds (horses)

26

Name the body part to be sampled for trichinella in the following species;
Wild boar
Breeding sows/boars
Horses

Breeding sows/boars- Pillar of the diaphragm at the transition to the sinewy part.

Horses 10 g lingual or jaw muscle

wild boar - Foreleg, tongue or
diaphragm

27

What is the cold storage requirement for carcasses affected with C bovis?

Not exceeding -10 for not less than 2 weeks
not exceeding -7 for no less than 3 weeks

28

When can meat be exempt from trichinella testing?

Meat from domestic swine that has undergone a freezing treatment under the supervision of the competent authority shall be exempt from trichinella examination. Meat must be of a diameter or thickness of up to 15cm, must be frozen for one of the following time temperature combinations - 20days at -15C, 10 days at -23C, 6 days at -29C.

29

What type of tumour is OPA?

A bronchioalveolar adenocarcinoma of type II pneumocytes.

30

What are hydatid cysts?

They are the intermediate stage of echinococcus granulosus, a tapeworm of dogs. the cysts are found in the liver and lungs. each cyst has a thickened, laminated outer membrane and is filled with clear fluid. hundreds of protoxcolex develop from the cysts inner lining.

31

What is lipfuscinosis?

A harmless brown/black pigment which accumultaes in kidney or heart muscle, it causes smooth, brown, mahogany or black coloured kidneys.

32

Which carcases should be declared 'unfit' for human consumption?

animals that have not undergone AMI (except for wild game)
Animals the offal of which has not undergone PM,
animals which are dead before slaughter, stillborn, unborn or slaughtered under the age of 7 days,
meat from the trimming of sticking points,
animals affected by a generalised disease such as septicaemia, pyaemia, toxaemia or viraemia, meat that exhibits parasitic infestation, contains residues or contaminants, contains forbidden substances, derives from emaciated animals, contains foreign bodies, except in the case of wild game, indicates physiological changes in consistency with insufficient bleeding or organoleptic anomalies eg a pronounced sexual odour.

33

What is E coli? What are the symptoms of EHEC infection in humans?

A gram negative, facultative anaerobic bacillus found in lower intestinal tract of mammals and birds. ETEC, EPEC, EHEC all cause intestinal disease. EHEC is sometimes referred to as STEC (shiga toxinigenic). symptoms may range form mild diarrhoea to haemorrhagic colitis. ruminants especially cattle, appear to be the primary resevoir with asymptomatic carriage.

34

What is listeria monocytogenes? how do humans become infected with this? what are the symptoms?

A gram positive facultative anaerobic bacillus. It is capable of growth over a wide temperature range including refrigeration temperature. It causes acute febrile gastroenteritis - fever, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, and lasts 7-10 days. Incidence of listeriosis is relatively low but it has a high case fatality rate. Listeria can be found in a wide variety of foods, both animal origin and non animal origin. Contamination can occur at any point along the fod production chain. It survives in environment of food business. clinical cases of disease usually associated with ready to eat foods e.g coleslaw.

35

What is the most common food spoilage organism?

Pseudomonas - particularly in foods with high water availability, near neutral ph and stored in aerobic atmosphere such as meat, fish and dairy products. Other non enteric gram negative bacteria such as aeromonas, acinetobacter, alcaligenes, flavobaterium are alsopsychotrophic and capable of tapid multiplication at chill temperatures. Gram neg bacteria grow in the absence of oxygen.

36

which animals can be sent to the abattoir as emergency slaughteR?

An otherwise healthy animal that has suffered an accident that prevented its transport for welfare reasons. Factious animals that are too wild to handle, water buffalo and bison as their anatomy prevents approved stunning methods. ANY BOVINE OVER 48 MONTHS OF AGE THAT MUST BE SENT AS EMERGENCY SLAUGHTER - REQUIRES ITS BRAIN STEM TO BE SAMPLED IN ORDER TO BE TESTED FOR BSE.

37

Which animals can not be sent to the slaughterhouse as emergency slaughter?

Animals suffering from a chronic condition, animals that following veterinary exam are unfit for human consumption e.g systemic disease, cachexia etc, animals with drug withdrawal periods not respected, cattle born in the UK before 1st august 1996. Pithing is not allowed for animals going for human consumption.

38

What is the recommended bleeding time (time from sticking to scalding) for electrically stunned broilers?

At least 90 seconds.
A stun to bleed interval of less than 15 seconds is recommended. The cut must sever at least one of the carotid arteries.

39

How do birds respond to increasing temperature (Select all that apply)?

Elect to pant slowly.
Reduce feed intake.

40

What parts of the carcase are classified as Specified Risk Material (SRM) in sheep and goats depending on their age?


In sheep and goats over 12 months of age (or at least one permanent incisor erupted): the skull, tonsils and spinal cord. In sheep and goats of all ages: the spleen and the ileum.

41

When is the Identification Mark applied at an abattoir and by whom?

It is applied by the FBO on the wrapping or packaging of poultry meat, retail cuts of red meat and other foods of animal origin.

42

What are the best methods to avoid heat stress in poultry in the lairage awaiting to be slaughtered (Select all that apply)?

Reduce stocking density in the crates. Spacing out crates. Protect the birds from direct sunlight. Mechanical ventilation (extractor fans). Reduce stocking density in the crates.

43

Match the different types of meat / meat preparations with the maximum temperature limits according to Regulation (EC) 853/2004

Red meat 7oC
Poultry Meat 4oC
Red / green offal 3oC
Mince meat 2oC
Meat Preparation 4oC

44

For every products of animal origin below, identify what is the most common source of food poisoning in humans.
Campylobacter
salmonella typhimurium
listeriosis
salmonella enteriditis
e coli

Poultry meat – Campylobacteriosis
Pork meat - Salmonellosis (S. thyphimurium)
Smoked salmon - Listeriosis
Eggs - Salmonellosis (S. enteritidis)
Ground beef Verotoxigenic (E. coli O157:H7) infection

45

What materials could be classified as Category 3 Animal-By-Products (Select all that apply).

Parts of the carcase that are not intended for human consumption but do not show signs of disease communicable to humans or animals (e.g.: slight contamination, discoloured meat, bruising).
Offals that are not fit for human consumption but do not pose any risk to animals (livers affected by fluke, lungs with mild Muellerius infestation, offals affected by melanosis).

46

During Ante-Mortem Inspection (AMI) in a poultry abattoir, you observe that several birds are severly injured due to poor handling at the farm at the time of catching. What action would you take?

Injured birds will be killed humanely in the lairage by neck dislocation and the carcase will be disposed of as Category 3 Animal-By-Product. Animal Health (DEFRA) will be informed for further investigation.

47

During poultry stunning procedures at the abattoir: What is the meaning of "pre-stun shock"?

When any part of the bird (e.g. wings) is touching the water-bath stunner before the bird is effectively stunned.

48

What parts of the carcase are classified as Specified Risk Material (SRM) in cattle depending on the age?

In cattle over 12 months of age: the skull and spinal cord. In cattle of all ages: the tonsils, intestines from the duodenum to the rectum and the mesentery.

49

According to Regulation (EC) 853/2004, who has the ultimate responsibility for accepting clean animals into an abattoir?

(FBO) at the abattoir

50

Match the following size and strength of cartridges used in captive bolt stunning with the recommended species of use.
4
3
2.5
1.25

4.0 Grain - Black colour - Very large animals, e.g. heavy bulls
3.0 Grain - Green colour -. Large animals, e.g. cattle, horses
2.5 Grain - Purple colour - Medium size animals, e.g. deer, rams, goats, pigs
1.25 Grain - Pink colour Smaller animals, e.g. calves, sheep, lambs, small deer

51

What is the correct means of identification of pigs received at the abattoir for slaughter for human consumption?

Pigs should be identified with either a slap mark, ear tag or tattoo matching the Food Chain Information (FCI)

52

What is the correct means of identification of sheep received at the abattoir for slaughter for human consumption?

Animals will be identified with at least an electronic ear tag matching the Food Chain Information (FCI)

53

What are the characteristics below that will help you to identify a FEMALE bovine carcase

Triangular carcass
Wide pelvic cavity:
open angle of the pelvic bone
Gracilis muscle appears bean shaped.
Inguinal fat conformation: smooth
Remains of broad ligament of uterus

54

What would you consider an acceptable means of identification for cattle to allow slaughtering for human consumption?

Cattle will be identified with two official ear tags (one in each ear) matching the Passport and Food Chain Information (FCI).

55

outline the correct order of the processing steps in a cattle red meat abattoir:

Reception of animals => Lairaging => Stunning => Sticking => Bleeding => Dressing => Evisceration => Splitting => Grading => Refrigeration => Dispatch

56

The Food Business Operator (FBO) has overall responsibility to produce safe food. What action should FBO take to remove minor contamination from a red meat carcase?

Trimming off contamination with a clean knife.

57

Which are the signs of effective stun-to-kill of poultry with gas (Select all that apply)?

Dilated pupils. Wings dropping, No breathing. No response to corneal reflex.

58

Associate the disease with its correspondent route of transmission.
West nile
Brucellosis
Lyme Disease
Toxoplasmosis
Q fever

West Nile - Mosquitoes
Brucellosis - Direct contact with birth fluids
Lyme disease -. Tick bite
Toxoplasmosis - Digestive route
Q fever- Inhalation

59

outline the typical processing steps in a poultry abattoir processing by electrical stunning:

Reception of live animals => Lairaging => Hanging => Stunning => Sticking => Bleeding => Scalding => Defethering => Wash => Evisceration => Final Wash => Refrigeration at no more than 4oC=> Packing => Dispatch

60

How can you check if the carcase in the image below has passed post-mortem inspection and is fit for human consumption?

It bears the Health Mark with the approval number of the abattoir.

61

what options could Food Business Operator put in place to deal with dirty livestock received at the abattoir to reduce the risk of contamination (select all that apply):

Animals should be slaughtered last at the end of the day. Retained in the lairage on clean bedding until animals are clean/dry. Animals should be slaughtered with decreased line speed. Animals should be clipped to remove contaminated wool/hair.

62

When is the Health Mark applied at an abattoir and by whom?

It is applied on red meat and game carcases by the OV / MHI only after it is ascertained there are no hazards that could pose risk to consumers.

63

what waste classifies as as Category 2 Material?

Carcases or organs that are not presented for ante mortem or post-mortem inspection or show signs of communicable diseases to humans or animals.

64

What is the cause of cutaneous larva migrans?

Ancylostoma brazillensea
Ancylostoma caninum
Symptoms relate to migration of larvae through skin - itching, pain, local inflammation.

65

What is the cause of visceral larva migrans?

Toxocara canis
Toxacara catis

66

What is the cause of glanders? What are the symptoms??

Bukholderia mallaei.
Resevoir is infected equidae in africa, asian south and cental america. Transmission to humans is via discharges from infected horses and entry via skin abrasinons, mucous membranes or aerosols.
Cutaneous and subcutaneous nodules that ulcerate are characteristic.

67

What are the symptoms of trichinosis in people? how can this be prevented?

Infection due to consumption of raw/undercoked meat - symptoms are variable including muscle pain, fever, swelling of eyelids, most common sites are diaphragm, ribs tongue and jaw. prevented by cooking of meat at least 75C, post control, hygienic measures, inspection of meat samples, cold treatment of meat.

68

what are the symptoms of Q fever in people? How does infection with this organism occur?

Coxiella burnetti - cattle sheep and goats are the common reservoir. Animals are usually asymptomatic but outbreaks may occur in late term pregnancy. It is excreted in urine, faeces and milk, and high levels in amniotic fluid/placenta. 50% of humans have no symptoms but there is acute and chronic presentations;acute: flu like, malaise, myalgia. tx with doxycyline.

69

Where should cattle be stuck?

Sticking should be carried out by an incision made with a sharp knife in the jugular furrow at the base of the neck, the knife being directed towards the entrance of the chest to sever all the major blood vessels arising from the heart. Two knives should be used - the first to open the skin and the second to sever the blood vessels.

70

Where should sheep and goats be stuck?

In the same way as cattle or by an incision made with a knife close to the head severing both carotid arteries and both jugular veins, i.e with a cut made across the throat.

71

Where should pigs be stuck?

Inserted midline on the neck at the depression infront of the breast bone and the skin raised with the knife point using light pressure and a lifting movement. When penetration has been made the knife handle should be lowered so that the blade is in a near vertical position and pushed upward to sever all the major blood vessels which arise from the heart.

72

Why is it important to stick cattle close to the heart at the brachiocephalic trunk?

They have additional connections supplying the brain from the vertebral artery. these blood vessels lie close to and above the spinal cord and will continue to supply blood directly to the brain even if the main carotid arteries of the neck are cut, provided some cardiac output is maintained.

73

What is the minimum concentration of co2 for stunning pigs?

85%, legistlation states that the machine should give visible and audible warning signals if conc of co2 falls below 70%.

74

What is the minimum bleeding time?

good bleeding time at east 2 mins
bleeding - dressing time - atleast 30 secs in cattle, at least 20 secs in other species.

75

How does stress affect the quality of meat?

Acute stress e.g handling before stunning > adrenaline, glucose converted to lactic acid, rapid early ph fall then > PSE MEAT.

Chronic stress e.g mixing before leaving farm > depletion of glycogen > inadequate lactic production > high untilate pH > DFD MEAT and spoilage.

76

What are the guideline figures for Total viable count of bacteria in water testing?

TVC at 22 after 72 hours - up to 100 per ml
TVC at 37C after 48 hours - up to 20 per ml

Coliform bacteria - expected levels are less than 1 per 100ml. If levels above 3 per 100ml water > indicates contamination.

E coli - if detected in water, this is evidence of contamination by animal or huma faeces.

Enterococci and clostridium perfringens are also indicative of faecal contamination and urgent action must be taken.

77

Which lymph nodes of cattle should be inspected?

Superficial inguinal
External and internal iliac
Renal lymph nodes

78

What is the usual temperature and time for pasteurisation?

Vat pasteurisation - 63C for 30 mins
HTST - 72C for no less than 15 sec

79

What methods can be used to check pasteurisation

Negative reaction for phosphatase
HTSH milk usually peroxidase positive
Plate counts and coliform numbers - usually indicates poor plant hygiene and cleanliness
Extraneous water in the milk - associated with contamination of the milk with water.
Chemical composition - butterfat and solids not fat content
Taints - usually caused by feedstuffs or chemicals used in the processing plant
Bitty cream - looks like fat globules, caused by bacillus cereus - usually indicates problems with disinfection of the plant.

80

what temperature/time is UHT milk sterilised at?

135C for 2-5 secs.

81

What is SRM in cattle?

All ages - tonsils, intestines from duodenum to rectum, mesentery.

over 12 months - skull excluding mandible, spinal cord.

over 30 months - vertebral column including dorsal root ganglia but excluding vertebrae of tail spinous and transverse process of cervical, thoracic and lumbar vertebrae and wings of sacrum.

82

What is the SRM in sheep?

all ages - spleen and ileum

over 12 months - skull, including brain and eyes, tonsils, spinal cord.

83

What is category 1 waste products?

Carcases and associated parts suspected or confirmed as being infected with a TSE.
Specific risk material from non suspect animals.
Catering waste from airports and ports.
Products derived from animals to which substances prohibited have been administered and products of animal origin containing residues of environmental contaminants.

Must be stained with patent blue V.

84

What is category 2 waste products?

Carcases or materials that are not presented for or fail ante mortem or post mortem or show signs of communicable diseases to humans or animals,
products of animal origin containing residues of veterinary drugs and contaminants
manure and digestive tract content

Must be stained with Black PN

85

What is category 3 material?

Includes those materials which have been subjec to ante and post mortem inspection and passed but for a variety of reasons are not intended for human consumption, includes unwated trimmings, quality failures e.g colour and minor contamination that does not pose a risk to human or animal health, also offal affected by mild lungworm and fluke.

86

What is ADI? (accepted daily intake)

ADI is an estimate of the amount of food additive expressed on a body weight basis, that can be ingested daily over a life time without appreciable health risk. calculation of the ADI depends on the toxicology of the compound and its NOEL. (no observed effect level).

87

What is Maximum residue limit?

The maximum concentration of residue which may be accepted by the european community to be legally permitted or recognised as acceptable in or on a food. it is based on the type and amount of residue considered to be without any toxicological hazard for human health as expressed by the ADI that utilizes an additional safety factor. it also takes into account other relevant public health risks as well as food technology aspects.

88

What are aflatoxins?

A type of mycotoxin produced by aspergillus species of fungis uch as A flavus and A parasiticus. there are four different types of mycotoxins produced which are B1 B2 G1 and g2. Aflatoxin B1, is a potent carcinogen, and has been correlated to liver cancer.

89

What are ergot alkaloids?

compounds produced as a toxic misture of alkaloids in the sclerotia of species of claviceps which are common pathogens of various grass species. the ingestion of ergot sclerotia is from infected cereals.

90

What do fusarium spp produced?

Fusarium toxins are produced by over 50 species of fusarium and have a history of infecting the grain of developing cereals such as wheat and maize. they include a range of mycotoxins such as trichothecenes, zearalenone and fumonisins.

91

When is a certificate of competence required?

For the handling and care of animals before they are restrained
Restraint of animals for the purpose of stunning or killing
stunning of any animal
assessment of effective stunning
shackling and hoisting of live animals
bleeding of live animals

92

At what temperature are poultry carcases scalded at?

Water temperature - 51-53C for 3 mins.

93

What is the maximum oxygen and carbon dioxide concentrations when stunning birds?

maximum 2% total oxygen by volume. Carbon dioxide not above 30%. The rest is a mixture of argon/nitrogen and other inert gasses.

94

how long should fish be fasted before slaughter?

72 hours is adequate for the complete emptying of the fish gut whilst minimising adverse welfare effects.

95

What is scombroid food poisoning?

IT is most commonly reported with macekerel, tuna, sardines etc that have been inadequately refrigerated or preserved after being caught. Histidine exists naturally in many types of fish, at temperatures above 16C and n content by enteric bacteria it is converted to the biogenic amine histamine. Histamine is not destroyed by normal cooking temperatures so even properly cooked fish can be affected. Histamine is a mediator of allergic reactions to the symptoms produced are those one would expect to see in severe allergic responses.

96

What are the most important organisms involved in fish spoilage?

Pseudomonas spp and shewanella putrefaciens. Shewanella are capable of reducing TMAO to trimethylamine which gives spoiled fish its characteristic smell. Urea if present in the fish, is metabolised to ammonia resulting in further odours.