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1

What does the FBO have to do if food chain information for a batch of poultry shows a positive test for salmonella enteritidis or typhimurium?

FBO must retain the affected batches and slaughter them at the end of the production day, after slaughter undertake a full cleansing and disinfection of equipment and machinery, including changing the water in the scalding tanks, and renewing the water in the spin chillers. Where a positive batch has been processed in the middle or at the end of a production run then the production run should be stopped as soon as the affected batch has been processed and a full clean down as above take place before any further processing commences. Following production, in the absence of any relevant AM or PM findings, teh carcases can enter the food chain as normal.

2

What is the purpose of AMI in poultry?

Accurate AMI should include listening to the birds and observation of a random sample checking posture, wattle colour and clealiness. If the birds show clinical signs of a disease, they may not be slaughtered for human consumption. Killing of these birds on the slaughter line may take place at the end of the normal slaughter process if precautions are taken to avoid the risk of spread of pathogenic organisms and to clean and disinfect the facilities after killing.

3

Which poultry diseases can be checked for at post mortem infection?

Pasteurellosis, salmonellosis, avian chlamydiosis, avian mycoplasmosis, avian TB, erysipelas, infectious coryza, avian influenza, infecitous bronchitis, infectious bursal disease, infectious laryngotracheitis, newcastle disease, viral arthritis, mareks disease.

4

How should poultry be unloaded at the abbatoir?

Must be protected from adverse weather conditions, must be provided with adeqate ventilation, must be unloaded form behicles as soon as possible after arrival, avoiding unnecessary delay. FBO must check welfare of animals. Crates containing birds must be unloaded from vehicles with care in a calm unhurried manner. The crates should be maintained in the upright position so that the birds are not in an unsettled or excitable state when they are subsequently handled before slaughter. Crates are stacked far enough apart to permit adequate airflow between stacks.

5

How long should birds be shackled for?

give Shackled birds time to become settled in the hanging position (12 secs for chickens and 25 secs for turkeys). It is inappropriate to shackle sick or injured birds. Birds must not be shackled for more than 3 minutes in the case of turkeys or 2 minutes in the case of any other bird. Birds should be hung on by both legs and well fitted into shackles.

6

How can an effective simple stun be recognised?

No rythmic breathing for 10-20 sec after leaving the water bath, neck arched with head directed vertically, dilated pupils, absence of a corneal or 3rd eyelid response, no response to comb pinch, wings held close to body, rigidly extended legs, constant body tremors.

7

How can an effective stun kill be recognised?

If the bird has received an effective stun kill and is dead the following signs will be seen: fixed central dilated pupils, no rythmic breathing, no response to any stimuli, limp carcase.

8

What are the advantages to gas stunning birds?

Shackling and inversion of live birds is avoided, no need for birds to be handled, no pre stun shocks, all birds are dead prior to bleeding, fewer broken bones, less damage occurs in breast meat.

9

What are the disadvantages of gas stunning birds?

More expensive to run than electrical stunner, still need a back up system in place incase of break down, health and safety for people in case of gas leak, higher level of training needed for slaughtermen.

10

How long should the stun to bleed interval be in poultry?

less than 15 seconds is recommended. the cut must sever at least one of the carotid arteries or the vessels from which they arise. More rapid bleed out is achieved if both carotid arteries are cut.

11

What temperature should scalding be?

51-53C for 3 min

12

What temperature should carcasses be kept at?

Poultry meat not stiffened by the cooling process which is to be kept at a temperature not below -2C and not higher than 4C at any time.

13

What ID must a horse have to be slaughtered for human consumption?

any equidae slaughtered for human consumption must be accompanied by a valiv passport which does not show that the animal is NOt intended for slaughter for human consumption -
Sextion IX part II is NOT SIGNED.
there are no other stamps are markings within the human passport which indicate that the horse is not intended for human consumption.
There is no vet treatment which would make it unsuitable for human consumption e.g phenylbutazone.
Foals born after july 2009 must also be mandatorily implanted with a microchip. These may enter the food chain if seciton IX is not signed.

14

What is campylobacter and what symptoms does it cause in humans?

A gram negative curved vacillus.
Incubation period is 2-5 days. symptoms include fever, headache, myalgia initially then diarrhoea, dysentry and abdominal pain. The usually course is

15

What are the risk factors for acquiring campylobacter infection?

Consumption and handling of raw or undercooked meats, especially poultry, cross contamination of food during preparation, consumption of raw milk, consumption of surface water or well water, direct contact with animals, underlying disease.

16

How does campylobacter affect poultry?

It is considered a commensal in the intestinal tract, especially the caeca of birds, which causes an induced mild inflammatory response in birds intestines but this does not clear bacteria. It is non pathogenic in birds. 75% of broiler chicken batches on farms in uk were campyobacter positive in 2008.

17

What is salmonella? What symptoms does this have in humans?

A rod shaped, motile gram negative bacteria. Nausea, vomiting, abdominal carmps, diarrhoea, fever and headache.

18

What is the delvo test? what is it sensitive to?

Cultures of Bacillus
stearothermophilus
var. calidolactis in
solid agar medium
and indicator
A standard diffusion test for detection of
antibiotic- and/ or sulfa residues in milk
– An Ampule Test
– A Plate Test
-Sensitive to most of antibiotics- detection limit
for penicillin 0.003IU per ml
- Simple and quick

19

How else can milk be tested for antibiotic residues apart from the delvo test?

The New SNAP BetaLactam
Test is an
enzyme receptor binding
assay
• Dectects penicillin G,
amoxycillin, ampicillin,
ceftiofour and cephapirin
residues in raw milk at
below or below tolerance
and /or safe levels

20

What is the difference between a best before and a use by date?

Use-by date: last date by which product should be
consumed; product may not be safe to eat after this date
due to growth of pathogens and potential for food
poisoning; applies to foods which are highly
microbiologically perishable
• Best-before date: refers to quality of the food; taste,
texture, aroma etc. of the food will be best before this date
as long as storage instructions are followed but can be
eaten after this date

21

What is the difference between UHT and pasteurisation?

UHT: 135o C for 1-4 seconds; kills all micro-organisms and spores;
sterile product
• Pasteurisation: various protocols; most common 72o
for 15 seconds;
reduces number of viable pathogens and also destroys many
spoilage organisms; spores and thermoduric bacteria survive
• UHT is safer than pasteurised milk as it destroys all micro-organisms
whereas pasteurisation results in a 5-log reduction in pathogen
numbers but spores can survive and potentially lead to foodpoisoning
e.g. Bacillus cereus

22

What are the public health concerns with eating tuna?

Clostridium botulinum intoxication (botulism)
• spore survival at canning temperatures with subsequent toxin
production;
• ingestion of toxin in canned food;
• paralytic illness; starts at face and spreads; can be fatal is respiratory
involvement;
• commercial canning includes ‘botulinum cook’ step (121o C for 3 mins)
to destroy toxin but occasional cases still occur; home canning more
NB
– Histamine toxicity:
• Histidine found in many fish types
• Converted to histamine by several enteric bacteria on exposure to air
at room temperatures
• Histamine is not destroyed by cooking;
• Histamine is mediator of allergic reaction therefore signs are those of
allergic reaction; occur rapidly after ingestion and usually self-limiting

23

What are the risks concerned with eating canned food?

Lead poisoning – migration from lead seal on can; not
commonly used
o Bisphenol A toxicity – used to make epoxy resin lining can;
acts as xenooestrogen; may have numerous side effects

24

Why is a white coating of lacquer necesary on some canned foods?


– Lacquer
– Prevent contact between metal and food
– Necessary for acidic & high protein foods

25

What testing must be done in the UK for pigs for trichinella?

In trichinella free zones like the UK - it is not required to do tests for domestic pigs kept solely for fattening, or meat from domestic pigs subject to freezing treatment under official controls.
We have to test:
Breeding pigs (sows or boars)
Wild or farmed boar
Solipeds (horses)

26

Name the body part to be sampled for trichinella in the following species;
Wild boar
Breeding sows/boars
Horses

Breeding sows/boars- Pillar of the diaphragm at the transition to the sinewy part.

Horses 10 g lingual or jaw muscle

wild boar - Foreleg, tongue or
diaphragm

27

What is the cold storage requirement for carcasses affected with C bovis?

Not exceeding -10 for not less than 2 weeks
not exceeding -7 for no less than 3 weeks

28

When can meat be exempt from trichinella testing?

Meat from domestic swine that has undergone a freezing treatment under the supervision of the competent authority shall be exempt from trichinella examination. Meat must be of a diameter or thickness of up to 15cm, must be frozen for one of the following time temperature combinations - 20days at -15C, 10 days at -23C, 6 days at -29C.

29

What type of tumour is OPA?

A bronchioalveolar adenocarcinoma of type II pneumocytes.

30

What are hydatid cysts?

They are the intermediate stage of echinococcus granulosus, a tapeworm of dogs. the cysts are found in the liver and lungs. each cyst has a thickened, laminated outer membrane and is filled with clear fluid. hundreds of protoxcolex develop from the cysts inner lining.