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Flashcards in VPH Deck (40)
1

Which one of the following diagnostic tests would be the best choice when trying to confirm a suspected diagnosis of Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis (IBR) in an acutely ill 2-month-old beef calf?

Nasal and/or ocular swab for viral fluorescent antibody test +/- viral culture

2

What are the usual intermediate hosts of Toxoplasma gondii infection in sheep?

Cats and rodents

3

Whom would you inform if you suspect that the prawns that you bought at the supermarket were responsible for food poisoning in the family?

Environmental Health Office

4

Which one of the following control measures would you apply on a farm to control a mastitis problem where the predominant cause is Staphylococcus aureus?

Post-milking teat disinfection

5

Hydrometra in goats is an aseptic fluid accumulation in the uterus in the presence of a persistent corpus luteum. Which of the following is the standard treatment?

Injection with prostaglandin

6

Food poisoning from Staphylococcus aureus in humans is due to the:

Presence of preformed toxins in food produced by the bacteria (intoxication)

7

If you suspect the cause of repeat breeding in a cow is delayed ovulation then which of the following would be the best treatment regime?

Inject with gonadotrophin releasing hormone (GnRH) when in oestrus and AI later that day

8

Which one of the following factors would predispose a dairy cow to developing milk fever (hypocalcaemia) at calving?

Hypomagnesaemia

9

In a clinical trial a placebo is defined as...

A treatment that has no known therapeutic effect on the condition being in

10

Which category of animal slaughtered for human consumption requires routine brain stem examination for TSEs at the abattoir?

Cattle over 48 months of age slaughtered on farm as an emergency

11

A 2-year-old Texel stock ram presents with inspiratory stridor, moderately increased inspiratory effort, excess salivation and an extended neck. You diagnose laryngeal chondritis.
Which of the following would be the most suitable first line treatment regime?

Immediate i/v dexamethazone, and 5 days i/m potentiated amoxicillin

12

A sensitive diagnostic test is one that has a high probability of classifying diseased animals as positive. If you use such a test to diagnose disease in a patient and it tests negative you can conclude that:

It is unlikely to have the disease in question

13

Evidence based veterinary medicine is concerned with the use of the ‘best available evidence’ to inform our clinical decisions. Published scientific evidence derives from a variety of study types. Which of the following represents the accepted order of ‘quality’ or ‘weight’ from best to worst?

randomised controlled trials → observational studies → case reports → anecdotal evidence

14

What is the recommended bleeding time (time from sticking to scalding) for electrically stunned broilers?

At least 90 seconds.

15

How do birds respond to increasing temperature (Select all that apply)?

Elect to pant slowly.
Reduce feed intake.

16

What parts of the carcase are classified as Specified Risk Material (SRM) in sheep and goats depending on their age?

In sheep and goats over 12 months of age (or at least one permanent incisor erupted): the skull, tonsils and spinal cord. In sheep and goats of all ages: the spleen and the ileum.

17

When is the Identification Mark applied at an abattoir and by whom?

It is applied by the FBO on the wrapping or packaging of poultry meat, retail cuts of red meat and other foods of animal origin.

18

What are the best methods to avoid heat stress in poultry in the lairage awaiting to be slaughtered (Select all that apply)?

Reduce stocking density in the crates. Spacing out crates. Protect the birds from direct sunlight. Mechanical ventilation (extractor fans). Reduce stocking density in the crates.

19

Match the different types of meat / meat preparations with the maximum temperature limits according to Regulation (EC) 853/2004

Red meat 7oC
Poultry Meat 4oC
Red / green offal 3oC
Mince meat 2oC
Meat Preparation 4oC

20

For every products of animal origin below, identify what is the most common source of food poisoning in humans.

Poultry meat – Campylobacteriosis
Pork meat - Salmonellosis (S. thyphimurium)
Smoked salmon - Listeriosis
Eggs - Salmonellosis (S. enteritidis)
Ground beef Verotoxigenic (E. coli O157:H7) infection

21

Select those materials that could be classified as Category 3 Animal-By-Products (Select all that apply).

Parts of the carcase that are not intended for human consumption but do not show signs of disease communicable to humans or animals (e.g.: slight contamination, discoloured meat, bruising).
Offals that are not fit for human consumption but do not pose any risk to animals (livers affected by fluke, lungs with mild Muellerius infestation, offals affected by melanosis).

22

During Ante-Mortem Inspection (AMI) in a poultry abattoir, you observe that several birds are severly injured due to poor handling at the farm at the time of catching. What action would you take?

Injured birds will be killed humanely in the lairage by neck dislocation and the carcase will be disposed of as Category 3 Animal-By-Product. Animal Health (DEFRA) will be informed for further investigation.

23

During poultry stunning procedures at the abattoir: What is the meaning of "pre-stun shock"?

When any part of the bird (e.g. wings) is touching the water-bath stunner before the bird is effectively stunned.

24

What parts of the carcase are classified as Specified Risk Material (SRM) in cattle depending on the age?

In cattle over 12 months of age: the skull and spinal cord. In cattle of all ages: the tonsils, intestines from the duodenum to the rectum and the mesentery.

25

According to Regulation (EC) 853/2004, who has the ultimate responsibility for accepting clean animals into an abattoir?

Food Business operator (FBO) at the abattoir

26

Match the following size and strength of cartridges used in captive bolt stunning with the recommended species of use.

4.0 Grain - Black colour - Very large animals, e.g. heavy bulls
3.0 Grain - Green colour -. Large animals, e.g. cattle, horses
2.5 Grain - Purple colour - Medium size animals, e.g. deer, rams, goats, pigs
1.25 Grain - Pink colour Smaller animals, e.g. calves, sheep, lambs, small deer

27

What is the correct means of identification of pigs received at the abattoir for slaughter for human consumption?

Pigs should be identified with either a slap mark, ear tag or tattoo matching the Food Chain Information (FCI)

28

According to the new Animal Welfare (EC) Regulation: what is stunning?

Any intentionally induced process which causes loss of consciousness and sensibility without pain, including any process resulting in instantaneous death.

29

What is the correct means of identification of sheep received at the abattoir for slaughter for human consumption?

Animals will be identified with at least an electronic ear tag matching the Food Chain Information (FCI)

30

Select all the characteristics below that will help you to identify a FEMALE bovine carcase

Triangular carcass
Wide pelvic cavity:
open angle of the pelvic bone
Gracilis muscle appears bean shaped.
Inguinal fat conformation: smooth
Remains of broad ligament of uterus

31

What would you consider an acceptable means of identification for cattle to allow slaughtering for human consumption?

Cattle will be identified with two official ear tags (one in each ear) matching the Passport and Food Chain Information (FCI).

32

outline the correct order of the processing steps in a cattle red meat abattoir:

Reception of animals => Lairaging => Stunning => Sticking => Bleeding => Dressing => Evisceration => Splitting => Grading => Refrigeration => Dispatch

33

The Food Business Operator (FBO) has overall responsibility to produce safe food. What action should FBO take to remove minor contamination from a red meat carcase?

Trimming off contamination with a clean knife.

34

Which are the signs of effective stun-to-kill of poultry with gas (Select all that apply)?

Dilated pupils. Wings dropping, No breathing. No response to corneal reflex.

35

Associate the disease with its correspondent route of transmission.

West Nile - Mosquitoes
Brucellosis - Direct contact with birth fluids
Lyme disease -. Tick bite
Toxoplasmosis - Digestive route
Q fever- Inhalation

36

outline the typical processing steps in a poultry abattoir processing by electrical stunning:

Reception of live animals => Lairaging => Hanging => Stunning => Sticking => Bleeding => Scalding => Defethering => Wash => Evisceration => Final Wash => Refrigeration at no more than 4oC=> Packing => Dispatch

37

How can you check if the carcase in the image below has passed post-mortem inspection and is fit for human consumption?

It bears the Health Mark with the approval number of the abattoir.

38

Select the options that Food Business Operator could put in place to deal with dirty livestock received at the abattoir to reduce the risk of contamination (select all that apply):

Animals should be slaughtered last at the end of the day. Retained in the lairage on clean bedding until animals are clean/dry. Animals should be slaughtered with decreased line speed. Animals should be clipped to remove contaminated wool/hair.

39

When is the Health Mark applied at an abattoir and by whom?

It is applied on red meat and game carcases by the OV / MHI only after it is ascertained there are no hazards that could pose risk to consumers.

40

Select the abattoir waste that classifies as as Category 2 Material?

Carcases or organs that are not presented for ante mortem or post-mortem inspection or show signs of communicable diseases to humans or animals.