week 4 Flashcards by Sandip Deol

1st Line of Defense:

Question 1:

Question: What are physical and mechanical barriers in the first line of defense primarily composed of?
Options:
a. Blood and lymph
b. Epithelial cells of the skin and mucous membranes
c. Antibodies and white blood cells
d. Red blood cells and platelets

Answer: b. Epithelial cells of the skin and mucous membranes

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Question 2:

Question: Which substance, secreted by sebaceous glands in the skin, creates an acidic environment detrimental to most bacteria in the first line of defense?
Options:
a. Mucus
b. Lysozyme
c. Fatty acids and lactic acid
d. Antimicrobial peptides

Answer: c. Fatty acids and lactic acid

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Question 3:

Question: Which type of antimicrobial peptides can disrupt cholesterol-free bacterial cell membranes and are found in various parts of the body, including the skin and gut?
Options:
a. β-defensins
b. Mucus peptides
c. α-defensins
d. Lysozymes

Answer: a. β-defensins

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

2nd Line of Defense:

Question 1:

Question: What are the four cardinal signs of inflammation?
Options:
a. Heat, redness, swelling, and pain
b. Cold, itchiness, numbness, and tingling
c. Sweating, paleness, fatigue, and shivering
d. Discoloration, tenderness, dryness, and scarring

Answer: a. Heat, redness, swelling, and pain

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Question 2:

Question: Which characteristic of inflammation allows for a faster immune response and enhances the activity of immune cells?
Options:
a. Rapid initiation
b. Cellular and chemical components
c. Vascularization
d. Nonspecific response

Answer: c. Vascularization

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Question 3:

Question: What is a drawback of the nonspecific nature of the inflammatory response?
Options:
a. It ensures a rapid and effective immune response
b. It minimizes tissue damage
c. It can sometimes lead to an autoimmune response
d. It only occurs in vascularized tissues

Answer: c. It can sometimes lead to an autoimmune response

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

1st Line of Defense:

Question 4:

Question: What is the primary function of the physical and mechanical barriers in the first line of defense?
Options:
a. Initiating the adaptive immune response
b. Preventing damage to the individual
c. Promoting bacterial growth
d. Facilitating communication between immune cells

Answer: b. Preventing damage to the individual

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Question 5:

Question: Which component of the first line of defense traps and moves pathogens in the upper respiratory tract?
Options:
a. Mucus
b. Fatty acids
c. Lysozyme
d. Epithelial cells

Answer: d. Epithelial cells

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Question 6:

Question: Prolonged treatment with broad-spectrum antibiotics can lead to an overgrowth of opportunistic pathogenic microorganisms. What is an example of such a microorganism mentioned in the text?
Options:
a. E. coli
b. Clostridium difficile
c. Streptococcus
d. Lactobacillus

Answer: b. Clostridium difficile

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

2nd Line of Defense:

Question 4:

Question: What does the term “nonspecific” mean in the context of the inflammatory response?
Options:
a. It varies depending on the type of stimulus.
b. It leads to a quicker response if previously exposed to the same stimulus.
c. It always results in the same immune reaction.
d. It only occurs in vascularized tissues.

Answer: c. It always results in the same immune reaction.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Question 5:

Question: What is the primary benefit of a rapid inflammatory response?
Options:
a. Minimizing tissue damage
b. Allowing more time for pathogens to establish a foothold
c. Preventing the activation of the adaptive immune system
d. Enhancing the activity of pathogens

Answer: a. Minimizing tissue damage

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Question 6:

Question: Which components are involved in the inflammatory response?
Options:
a. Only cellular components
b. Cellular and chemical components
c. Humoral components only
d. Vascular and bone components

Answer: b. Cellular and chemical components

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Question 7:

Question: What is the role of anaphylatoxins C3a and C5a in the complement system?
Options:
a. Promote cell lysis
b. Enhance phagocytosis
c. Trigger mast cell degranulation
d. Activate fibrin formation

Answer: c. Trigger mast cell degranulation

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Question 8:

Question: Which pathway in the complement system is activated by antibodies binding to antigens on the surface of pathogens?
Options:
a. Classical pathway
b. Alternative pathway
c. Lectin pathway
d. Kinin pathway

Answer: a. Classical pathway

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Clotting System:

Question 9:

Question: What is the primary function of the clotting system during inflammation?
Options:
a. Promoting vasodilation
b. Trapping microorganisms
c. Forming clots to stop bleeding
d. Enhancing phagocytosis

Answer: c. Forming clots to stop bleeding

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Question 10:

Question: Which factor is activated in the Extrinsic Pathway of the clotting system when there is damage to the blood vessel wall?
Options:
a. Factor VIIa
b. Factor Xa
c. Factor XIIa
d. Prekallikrein

Answer: a. Factor VIIa

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Question 11:

Question: What is the common endpoint of both the Extrinsic and Intrinsic pathways in the clotting system?
Options:
a. Formation of fibrin
b. Activation of Factor XIIa
c. Release of histamines
d. Activation of kinins

Answer: a. Formation of fibrin

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Plasma Protein Synthesis:

Question 12:

Question: What induces the liver to produce acute-phase reactants during inflammation?
Options:
a. Interleukin-1 (IL-1)
b. Tumor necrosis factor (TNF)
c. Interferon-alpha (IFN-α)
d. Transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-β)

Answer: a. Interleukin-1 (IL-1)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Question 13:

Question: Which lab test for inflammation measures the rate at which red blood cells (RBC) settle in a tube over a certain time span?
Options:
a. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
b. C-reactive protein (CRP)
c. Complete blood count (CBC)
d. Serum albumin level

Answer: a. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Question 14:

Question: Which plasma protein is a better indicator of inflammation in the body and is produced by the liver during the inflammation process?
Options:
a. Fibrinogen
b. Hemoglobin
c. C-reactive protein (CRP)
d. Albumin

Answer: c. C-reactive protein (CRP)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Kinin System:

Question 15:

Question: What initiates both the clotting and kinin systems by activating factor XIIa?
Options:
a. Bradykinin
b. Prekallikrein
c. Kininogen
d. Hageman factor (factor XII)

Answer: d. Hageman factor (factor XII)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Question 16:

Question: What is the final product of the kinin system that causes dilation of blood vessels, induces pain, causes smooth muscle cell contraction, and increases vascular permeability?
Options:
a. Kininogen
b. Bradykinin
c. Factor XIIa
d. Prostaglandin

Answer: b. Bradykinin

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Question 17:

Question: What is the inner lining of blood vessels called and plays a role in coordinating blood clotting and the passage of cells and fluid into the tissue during inflammation?
Options:
a. Mast cells
b. Vascular endothelium
c. Dendritic cells
d. Platelets

Answer: b. Vascular endothelium

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Question 18:

Question: Which blood cell component carries oxygen to tissues?
Options:
a. Platelets
b. White blood cells (WBCs)
c. Red blood cells (RBCs)
d. Granulocytes

Answer: c. Red blood cells (RBCs)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Question 19: Question: Which type of white blood cells are the most common and include basophils, eosinophils, and neutrophils? Options: a. Monocytes b. Lymphocytes c. Granulocytes d. Macrophages

Answer: c. Granulocytes

Question 20: Question: What cells are involved in the innate and acquired immune response and can be found inside the blood vessel (monocytes) and in the tissue (macrophages)? Options: a. Mast cells b. Dendritic cells c. Red blood cells (RBCs) d. Platelets

Answer: b. Dendritic cells

Pattern Recognition Receptors (PRRs) and Classes: Question 21: Question: What do immune cells use to recognize "danger signals" associated with microbial attack, leading to the release of cytokines and inflammatory mediators? Options: a. Chemokines b. Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNF) c. Pattern Recognition Receptors (PRRs) d. Complement receptors

Answer: c. Pattern Recognition Receptors (PRRs)

Question 22: Question: What type of molecules are recognized by some PRRs that are expressed by infectious agents? Options: a. Pattern-Associated Molecular Patterns (PAMPs) b. Damage-Associated Molecular Patterns (DAMPs) c. Interleukins d. Cytokines

Answer: a. Pattern-Associated Molecular Patterns (PAMPs)

Question 23: Question: What are the products of cellular damage, associated with infection or cells killed by viruses, recognized by some PRRs? Options: a. Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNF) b. Complement receptors c. Damage-Associated Molecular Patterns (DAMPs) d. Chemokines

Answer: c. Damage-Associated Molecular Patterns (DAMPs)

Question 24: Question: What is the primary role of Toll-Like Receptors (TLRs), a type of PRR? Options: a. Recognize cytokines b. Attract leukocytes to sites of inflammation c. Recognize Pattern-Associated Molecular Patterns (PAMPs) d. Induce phagocytosis of bacterial pathogens

Answer: c. Recognize Pattern-Associated Molecular Patterns (PAMPs)

Question 25: Question: Which class of PRRs are primarily found on macrophages and facilitate recognition and phagocytosis of bacterial pathogens and damaged cells? Options: a. Toll-Like Receptors (TLRs) b. Scavenger receptors c. Complement receptors d. NOD-like receptors (NLRs)

Answer: b. Scavenger receptors

Cellular Products of Inflammation: Question 26: Question: What family of small-molecular-weight soluble intercellular-signaling molecules come from cells, bind to specific cell membrane receptors, and regulate innate or adaptive immunity? Options: a. Cytokines b. Chemokines c. Interleukins d. Growth factors

Answer: a. Cytokines

Question 27: Question: What is the primary function of chemokines, which are members of a special family of cytokines? Options: a. Induce cell division and differentiation b. Facilitate recognition and phagocytosis of bacterial pathogens c. Attract leukocytes to sites of inflammation d. Regulate adaptive immunity

Answer: c. Attract leukocytes to sites of inflammation

Question 28: Question: Which family of growth factors induces cell division and differentiation of various cell types, such as immature blood cells, in response to inflammation? Options: a. Interleukins b. Cytokines c. Chemokines d. Growth factors

Answer: d. Growth factors

Mast Cell Overview: Question 29: Question: Where are mast cells primarily located in the body? Options: a. In the blood b. Near lymph nodes c. In connective tissues near blood vessels d. In the liver

Answer: c. In connective tissues near blood vessels

Question 30: Question: What is the major function of mast cells? Options: a. Synthesizing antibodies b. Initiating blood clotting c. Regulating blood sugar d. Cellular activator of the inflammatory response

Answer: d. Cellular activator of the inflammatory response

Question 31: Question: Which blood cells likely function similarly to tissue mast cells? Options: a. Red blood cells (RBCs) b. Platelets c. Basophils d. White blood cells (WBCs)

Answer: c. Basophils

Question 32: Question: How do mast cells release pre-stored mediators upon stimulation? Options: a. Phagocytosis b. Exocytosis c. Degranulation d. Synthesis

Answer: c. Degranulation

Question 33: Question: Which of the following is a mediator released from mast cell degranulation that causes smooth muscle constriction and postcapillary venule dilation? Options: a. Platelet-Activating Factor (PAF) b. Leukotrienes c. Cytokines d. Histamine

Answer: d. Histamine

Question 34: Question: Which receptor promotes inflammation when histamine binds to it? Options: a. H1 receptor b. H2 receptor c. H3 receptor d. H4 receptor

Answer: a. H1 receptor

Question 35: Question: What effect does histamine binding to the H2 receptor generally have? Options: a. Promotes inflammation b. Suppresses leukocyte function c. Causes bronchoconstriction d. Dilation of blood vessels

Answer: b. Suppresses leukocyte function

Question 36: Question: What does binding to the H1 receptor on smooth muscle cells, especially in the bronchi, cause? Options: a. Dilation of blood vessels b. Suppression of leukocyte function c. Bronchoconstriction d. Increases adherence of leukocytes to endothelium

Answer: c. Bronchoconstriction

Question 37: Question: Where is the H2 receptor especially abundant? Options: a. Parasympathetic nervous system b. Adrenal glands c. Parietal cells of the stomach mucosa d. Kidneys

Answer: c. Parietal cells of the stomach mucosa

Question 38: Question: How many known TLRs (Toll-Like Receptors) are there in humans? Options: a. 2 b. 5 c. 8 d. 11

Answer: d. 11

Platelet Activating Factor (PAF): Question 39: Question: What is the source of platelet activating factor (PAF)? Options: a. Produced by the liver b. Derived from plasma lipoproteins c. Derived from the phospholipids of the cell membrane d. Synthesized by macrophages

Answer: c. Derived from the phospholipids of the cell membrane

Question 40: Question: Which of the following is a function of PAF in the body? Options: a. Synthesizing antibodies b. Inhibiting platelet activation c. Inducing muscle contraction d. Inducing inflammation, vasodilation, and immune cell recruitment

Answer: d. Inducing inflammation, vasodilation, and immune cell recruitment

Question 41: Question: What is the primary function of PAF related to platelets? Options: a. Inducing platelet aggregation b. Suppressing platelet activity c. Promoting platelet proliferation d. Inhibiting blood clotting

Answer: a. Inducing platelet aggregation

Question 42: Question: PAF is more potent than histamine in which aspect of inflammation? Options: a. Initiating blood clotting b. Inducing vasodilation c. Triggering bronchoconstriction d. Recruiting immune cells

Answer: d. Recruiting immune cells

Prostaglandins: Question 43: Question: Prostaglandins are produced by the action of which enzyme on arachidonic acid? Options: a. Phospholipase A2 b. Lipoxygenase c. Cyclo-oxygenase (COX) d. Prostaglandin synthase

Answer: c. Cyclo-oxygenase (COX)

Question 44: Question: What is the primary role of prostaglandins in inflammation? Options: a. Inhibiting neutrophil chemotaxis b. Reducing vascular permeability c. Suppressing pain perception d. Increasing vascular permeability

Answer: d. Increasing vascular permeability

Question 45: Question: Which of the following is responsible for the synthesis and release of interleukin-1 (IL-1) when it binds to macrophages? Options: a. TNF-α b. IL-4 c. PAF d. COX-2

Answer: a. TNF-α

Question 46: Question: What is the primary role of TNF-α in the body? Options: a. Reducing body temperature b. Increasing blood sugar levels c. Inducing muscle growth d. Promoting inflammation and fever

Answer: d. Promoting inflammation and fever

Interleukins: Question 47: Question: Which cells primarily produce interleukins (ILs) in response to Pattern Recognition Receptors (PRRs) or other cytokines? Options: a. Red blood cells b. Neutrophils c. Macrophages and lymphocytes d. Platelets

Answer: c. Macrophages and lymphocytes

Question 48: Question: What is the primary function of interleukins (ILs) regarding the innate and adaptive immune responses? Options: a. Enhancing blood clotting b. Inhibiting the production of adhesion molecules c. Attracting leukocytes to sites of inflammation d. Promoting bacterial growth

Answer: c. Attracting leukocytes to sites of inflammation

Question 49: Question: Which interleukins trigger the overall inflammatory process and call for reinforcements in the vasculature? Options: a. IL-1 and IL-6 b. IL-2 and IL-3 c. IL-4 and IL-5 d. IL-12 and IL-13

Answer: a. IL-1 and IL-6

Question 50: Question: What role does interleukin 6 (IL-6) play in the body? Options: a. Induces bronchoconstriction b. Promotes blood clotting c. Increases body temperature d. Stimulates wound healing and growth of fibroblasts

Answer: d. Stimulates wound healing and growth of fibroblasts

Dendritic Cells: Question 52: Question: What is the primary location where dendritic cells are found in the body? Options: a. Brain b. Bone marrow c. Peripheral organs and skin d. Lungs

Answer: c. Peripheral organs and skin

Interferons: Question 51: Question: What is the primary role of interferons (IFNs) in the body, especially type II interferon (IFN-γ)? Options: a. Directly killing viruses b. Inhibiting bacterial growth c. Enhancing the development of acquired immune responses against viruses d. Reducing inflammation

Answer: c. Enhancing the development of acquired immune responses against viruses

Question 53: Question: What is the primary function of dendritic cells related to the immune response? Options: a. Initiating blood clotting b. Regulating vascular mediators c. Linking innate and adaptive immune responses d. Producing growth factors for wound healing

Answer: c. Linking innate and adaptive immune responses

Phagocytes: Question 54: Question: What is the main role of neutrophils during early inflammation? Options: a. Producing antibodies b. Regulating vascular mediators c. Debris removal and bacteria destruction d. Initiating wound repair

Answer: c. Debris removal and bacteria destruction

Question 55: Question: What is the primary role of eosinophils in the immune system? Options: a. Initiating inflammation b. Defending against parasites c. Attracting neutrophils d. Promoting angiogenesis

Answer: b. Defending against parasites

Question 56: Question: What is the primary role of basophils? Options: a. Regulating vascular mediators b. Producing IL-4 c. Initiating inflammation d. Initiating wound repair

Answer: b. Producing IL-4

Question 57: Question: What type of cells produce specific cytokines to direct the maturation of T-helper cells, which oversee the development of functional B and T cells? Options: a. Red blood cells b. Dendritic cells c. Basophils d. Macrophages

Answer: b. Dendritic cells

Differences Between Neutrophils and Macrophages: Question 58: Question: Which type of white blood cell is faster? Options: a. Neutrophils b. Macrophages

Answer: a. Neutrophils

Question 59: Question: Which type of white blood cell can survive and divide? Options: a. Neutrophils b. Macrophages

Answer: b. Macrophages

Question 60: Question: What is the primary difference in chemotactic factors that attract neutrophils and macrophages? Options: a. They are attracted by the same substances. b. Neutrophils are attracted by bacteria, while macrophages are attracted by viruses. c. Different substances attract them. d. They are not attracted by any substances.

Answer: c. Different substances attract them

Mechanisms of Phagocytosis: Question 61: Question: What is the first step in the process of phagocytosis? Options: a. Destruction of the target b. Recognition and adherence of phagocyte to target c. Engulfment (ingestion) d. Formation of a phagosome

Answer: b. Recognition and adherence of phagocyte to target

Question 62: Question: What is the last step in the process of phagocytosis? Options: a. Recognition and adherence of phagocyte to target b. Formation of a phagosome c. Engulfment (ingestion) d. Destruction of the target

Answer: d. Destruction of the target

Mechanisms of Microbial Killing: Question 63: Question: Which of the following is an oxygen-dependent mechanism of microbial killing? Options: a. Acidic pH of phagolysosome b. Cationic proteins c. Production of toxic oxygen species like superoxide d. Bacterial growth inhibition

Answer: c. Production of toxic oxygen species like superoxide

Release & Effects of Dead Phagocytes: Question 64: Question: What role do inhibitors play regarding dead phagocytes? Options: a. They promote tissue damage. b. They do not affect dead phagocytes. c. They release their contents. d. They minimize tissue damage.

Answer: d. They minimize tissue damage

Role in Immune Response: Question 65: Question: Which type of phagocyte plays a role in activating the adaptive immune system? Options: a. Neutrophils b. Macrophages c. Both neutrophils and macrophages d. None of the above

Answer: b. Macrophages

Local and Systemic Manifestations of Inflammation: Question 66: Question: Which manifestation of local acute inflammation results from the accumulation of exudate and pressure exerted by it? Options: a. Swelling b. Heat c. Erythema d. Pain

Answer: a. Swelling

Question 67: Question: What is the primary cause of increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) during inflammation? Options: a. Increased production of antibodies b. Increased levels of circulating plasma proteins c. Increased adhesion between erythrocytes d. Increased levels of red blood cells

Answer: c. Increased adhesion between erythrocytes

Question 68: Question: Why is C-reactive protein (CRP) a preferred marker for inflammation in clinical practice? Options: a. It has greater specificity and sensitivity than ESR. b. It measures the number of leukocytes in the blood. c. It has a higher degree of erythrocyte sedimentation. d. It can be used to diagnose the cause of inflammation directly.

Answer: a. It has greater specificity and sensitivity than ESR.

Acute vs. Chronic Inflammation: Question 69: Question: Which type of inflammation is typically self-limiting and resolves upon threat elimination? Options: a. Acute inflammation b. Chronic inflammation

Answer: a. Acute inflammation

Question 70: Question: How long does acute inflammation typically last? Options: a. 2 weeks or longer b. 8 to 10 days

Answer: b. 8 to 10 days

Question 71: Question: Which type of inflammation often leads to tissue damage and may result from persistent infections or foreign objects? Options: a. Acute inflammation b. Chronic inflammation

Answer: b. Chronic inflammation

Question 72: Question: What is a characteristic feature of chronic inflammation? Options: a. Rapid onset of local manifestations b. Granuloma formation c. Self-limiting nature d. Resolution within 2 weeks

Answer: b. Granuloma formation

Question 73: Question: Which of the following is a systemic manifestation typically associated with acute inflammation but not with chronic inflammation? Options: a. Granuloma formation b. Increased plasma proteins c. Leukocytosis (increased white blood cells) d. Fever

Answer: d. Fever

Three Phases of Wound Healing: Question 74: Question: During which phase of wound healing does inflammation transition to healing and the fibrin mesh acts as a scaffold for cells? Options: a. Phase 1: Inflammation b. Phase 2: Proliferation and New Tissue Formation c. Phase 3: Remodeling and Maturation

Answer: a. Phase 1: Inflammation

Question 75: Question: Which cells are involved in the proliferation phase and are responsible for synthesizing collagen and promoting angiogenesis? Options: a. Macrophages b. Neutrophils c. Eosinophils d. Lymphocytes

Answer: a. Macrophages

Question 76: Question: During which phase of wound healing does tissue remodeling and maturation begin? Options: a. Phase 1: Inflammation b. Phase 2: Proliferation and New Tissue Formation c. Phase 3: Remodeling and Maturation

Answer: c. Phase 3: Remodeling and Maturation

Dysfunction Associated with Healing: Question 77: Question: Which of the following can cause excessive scarring and adhesions in the healing process? Options: a. Adequate nutrients b. Ischemia c. Excessive bleeding d. Infection

Answer: c. Excessive bleeding

Question 78: Question: Which condition results in raised, invasive scar tissue that is likely to recur after removal? Options: a. Hypertrophic scar b. Keloid c. Granuloma d. Abscess

Answer: b. Keloid

Question 79: Question: Which of the following is a common complication of sutured wounds where the wound pulls apart at the suture line? Options: a. Ischemia b. Keloid formation c. Dehiscence d. Granuloma formation

Answer: c. Dehiscence

Aged-Related Factors Affecting Innate Immunity in Geriatric Population: Question 80: Question: What is the impact of aging on the number of immune cells in the geriatric population? Options: a. Increased number of immune cells b. Reduced number of immune cells

Answer: b. Reduced number of immune cells

Question 81: Question: What is one consequence of aging on phagocytic activity and cytokine release in the geriatric population? Options: a. Enhanced phagocytic activity b. Decreased phagocytic activity and cytokine release

Answer: b. Decreased phagocytic activity and cytokine release

Question 82: Question: Which of the following comorbidities can increase the risk of impaired healing and infection in the geriatric population? Options: a. Perfect vision b. Peripheral vascular disease

Answer: b. Peripheral vascular disease

Question 83: Question: What impact does medication like NSAIDs and steroids have on wound healing in the geriatric population? Options: a. Accelerate wound healing b. Impede wound healing

Answer: b. Impede wound healing

Question 84: Question: How does the loss of subcutaneous tissue in the geriatric population affect their vulnerability to injury? Options: a. Increases protection from injury b. Decreases protection from injury

Answer: b. Decreases protection from injury

Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) Pathophysiology and Clinical Manifestations: Question 85: Question: What is the main characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis (RA)? Options: a. It is an infectious disease b. It is an autoimmune disease

Answer: b. It is an autoimmune disease

Question 86: Question: Which type of cells are activated by an unknown antigenic agent in the pathophysiology of RA? Options: a. B cells b. T cells

Answer: b. T cells

Question 87: Question: What is the primary role of T cells in the pathophysiology of RA? Options: a. Directly destroy joint tissue b. Stimulate synovial macrophages and fibroblasts

Answer: b. Stimulate synovial macrophages and fibroblasts

Question 88: Question: Which cellular activity leads to the formation of a "pannus" in RA? Options: a. Fibroblasts attacking articular cartilage b. Proliferation of osteoclasts

Answer: a. Fibroblasts attacking articular cartilage

Question 89: Question: What is the role of B cells in RA? Options: a. Decrease the rate of Rheumatoid Factor (RF) production b. Increase the rate of Rheumatoid Factor (RF) production

Answer: b. Increase the rate of Rheumatoid Factor (RF) production

Question 90: Question: In RA, what happens when Rheumatoid Factors (RF) bind with their self-antigens? Options: a. They form immune complexes b. They enhance joint healing

Answer: a. They form immune complexes