Week 2 Flashcards by Sandip Deol

Question: What is B12 anemia?
A) A type of autoimmune disease
B) A type of macrocytic anemia
C) A bacterial infection
D) A skin condition

Answer: B) A type of macrocytic anemia

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Question: What is the role of B12 in erythropoiesis?
A) It regulates heart rate
B) It stimulates brain function
C) It enhances the immune system
D) It is a nutritional requirement for the formation of red blood cells (RBCs)

Answer: D) It is a nutritional requirement for the formation of red blood cells (RBCs)

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Question: What does B12 contribute to in the body?
A) Synthesis of DNA
B) Synthesis of RNA
C) Regulation of blood pressure
D) Formation of bones

Answer: A) Synthesis of DNA

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Question: What happens when there is a deficiency of B12 in the body?
A) DNA synthesis and cell division continue normally
B) RNA replication is impaired
C) Hemoglobin synthesis is blocked
D) DNA synthesis and cell division are delayed

Answer: D) DNA synthesis and cell division are delayed

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Question: What is the consequence of asynchronous development in B12 deficiency?
A) Formation of small erythrocytes
B) Overproduction of hemoglobin
C) Normal-sized erythrocytes
D) Decreased hemoglobin production

Answer: B) Overproduction of hemoglobin

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Question: What is pernicious anemia characterized by?
A) Deficiency of red blood cells
B) Excess iron absorption
C) Absence of intrinsic factor (IF)
D) Overproduction of intrinsic factor (IF)

Answer: C) Absence of intrinsic factor (IF)

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Question: What causes B12 anemia?
A) Excessive dietary intake of B12-rich foods
B) Inability of the gut to absorb B12
C) Lack of iron in the diet
D) Overproduction of intrinsic factor

Answer: B) Inability of the gut to absorb B12

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Question: What is the consequence of B12 deficiency when intrinsic factor is lacking?
A) Increased B12 absorption
B) Rapid excretion of B12
C) Poor quality RBCs, often macrocytic
D) Enhanced neuronal function

Answer: C) Poor quality RBCs, often macrocytic

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Question: What is the treatment for B12 anemia caused by insufficient dietary intake?
A) Subcutaneous injections
B) Boost dietary intake of B12-rich foods
C) High-dose oral replacement
D) Blood transfusions

Answer: B) Boost dietary intake of B12-rich foods

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Question: What is the primary source of B12 in the diet?
A) Fruits and vegetables
B) Animal meat, dairy products, and eggs
C) Grains and cereals
D) Legumes and nuts

Answer: B) Animal meat, dairy products, and eggs

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Question: What is another name for “Anemia of Chronic Disease”?
A) Hemolytic anemia
B) Aplastic anemia
C) Iron-Deficiency Anemia
D) Anemia of chronic inflammation

Answer: D) Anemia of chronic inflammation

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Question: How is “Anemia of Chronic Disease” categorized in terms of cell size and hemoglobin content?
A) Microcytic-hypochromic
B) Macrocytic-hyperchromic
C) Normocytic-normochromic
D) Hypercytic-hypochromic

Answer: C) Normocytic-normochromic

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Question: Which of the following is NOT a type of normocytic-normochromic anemia?
A) Aplastic anemia
B) Hemolytic anemia
C) Iron-deficiency anemia
D) Anemia of chronic disease

Answer: C) Iron-deficiency anemia

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Question: What conditions are associated with “Anemia of Chronic Disease”?
A) Allergic reactions
B) Heart disease
C) Chronic infections, chronic inflammatory diseases, and malignancies
D) Neurological disorders

Answer: C) Chronic infections, chronic inflammatory diseases, and malignancies

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Question: What is the primary cause of “Anemia of Chronic Disease”?
A) Iron overload
B) Chronic inflammation
C) Vitamin deficiency
D) Genetic mutations

Answer: B) Chronic inflammation

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Question: What is the mechanism of disease in “Anemia of Chronic Disease”?
A) Increased erythrocyte life span
B) Enhanced iron absorption
C) Dysregulation of iron homeostasis and cytokine involvement
D) Overproduction of erythropoietin

Answer: C) Dysregulation of iron homeostasis and cytokine involvement

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Question: Which cytokine inhibits the production of erythropoietin in the kidney and promotes the degradation of RBCs?
A) TNF-a (tumor necrosis factor alpha)
B) IFN-y (interferon gamma)
C) IL-10
D) IL-6

Answer: A) TNF-a (tumor necrosis factor alpha)

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Question: What is the primary treatment approach for “Anemia of Chronic Disease”?
A) Blood transfusions
B) Iron supplementation
C) No treatment unless symptomatic
D) Erythropoietin injections

Answer: C) No treatment unless symptomatic

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Question: What is the typical clinical manifestation of “Anemia of Chronic Disease”?
A) Severe fatigue and weakness
B) Cardiovascular symptoms
C) Fewer and milder symptoms compared to other anemias
D) Neurological deficits

Answer: C) Fewer and milder symptoms compared to other anemias

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Question: Why do individuals with “Anemia of Chronic Disease” tend to have adequate hemoglobin levels despite their anemia?
A) They have a higher rate of erythropoiesis
B) They receive frequent blood transfusions
C) Chronic disease limits physical activity
D) They have a genetic predisposition for higher hemoglobin levels

Answer: C) Chronic disease limits physical activity

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Question: What is the term for abnormally small erythrocytes due to a lack of hemoglobin?
A) Macrocytic
B) Hypochromic
C) Microcytic
D) Normocytic

Answer: C) Microcytic

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Question: What is the characteristic of erythrocytes in hypochromic anemia?
A) Abnormally large erythrocytes
B) Reduced hemoglobin content in erythrocytes
C) High hemoglobin content in erythrocytes
D) Increased erythrocyte count

Answer: B) Reduced hemoglobin content in erythrocytes

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Question: What is the most common type of anemia in both developed and developing countries?
A) Aplastic anemia
B) Hemolytic anemia
C) Iron-deficiency anemia
D) Hereditary anemia

Answer: C) Iron-deficiency anemia

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Question: What happens when there is not enough iron available for hemoglobin synthesis?
A) Erythrocyte production continues normally with normal hemoglobin content
B) Erythrocyte production is halted
C) Erythrocytes become larger in size
D) Hemoglobin content of erythrocytes increases

Answer: A) Erythrocyte production continues normally with normal hemoglobin content

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Question: Which population groups are at a higher risk of iron deficiency anemia? A) Elderly individuals B) Adolescents C) Childbearing age women and children D) Athletes

Answer: C) Childbearing age women and children

Question: What is the primary cause of iron deficiency anemia in females? A) Gastrointestinal disorders B) Menorrhagia C) Hemolytic anemia D) Iron-rich diet

Answer: B) Menorrhagia

Question: In which stage of iron deficiency anemia do hemoglobin-deficient red blood cells enter circulation, leading to clinical manifestations? A) Stage 1 B) Stage 2 C) Stage 3 D) Stage 4

Answer: C) Stage 3

Question: What are early symptoms of iron deficiency anemia? A) Koilonychia and glossitis B) Numbness and tingling C) Fatigue, weakness, and pale skin D) Mental confusion and memory loss

Answer: C) Fatigue, weakness, and pale skin

Question: What is a sensitive indicator for heme synthesis used to evaluate iron deficiency anemia? A) Serum ferritin levels B) Transferrin saturation C) Total iron binding capacity D) Free erythrocyte protoporphyrin (FEP)

Answer: D) Free erythrocyte protoporphyrin (FEP)

Question: What is the first step in treating iron deficiency anemia? A) Blood transfusion B) Eliminating the source of blood loss C) Parenteral iron replacement D) Dietary modifications

Answer: B) Eliminating the source of blood loss

Question: What is the genetic mutation that characterizes Sickle Cell Disease by replacing one amino acid with another in hemoglobin? A) Valine replaces glutamine B) Glutamine replaces valine C) Hemoglobin S replaces hemoglobin A D) Hemoglobin A replaces hemoglobin S

Answer: A) Valine replaces glutamine

Question: Under what conditions does hemoglobin S polymerize, leading to sickling of red blood cells? A) High oxygenation and hydration B) Low oxygenation and dehydration C) Low oxygenation and high blood pH D) High oxygenation and stress

Answer: B) Low oxygenation and dehydration

Question: What triggers the sickling process in individuals with Sickle Cell Disease? A) Increased oxygen levels B) High blood pH C) Dehydration and decreased oxygen D) Acute illness and temperature changes

Answer: D) Acute illness and temperature changes

Question: What is the primary consequence of sickled red blood cells clogging blood vessels? A) Increased blood circulation B) Decreased viscosity of blood C) Pain, vascular occlusion, and organ infarction D) Improved oxygen delivery to tissues

Answer: C) Pain, vascular occlusion, and organ infarction

Question: Which type of crisis occurs when the spleen holds a large amount of blood due to hemolysis of sickled red blood cells? A) Aplastic crisis B) Sequestration crisis C) Hyperhemolytic crisis D) Vaso-occlusive crisis

Answer: B) Sequestration crisis

Question: In which crisis does the bone marrow fail to begin erythropoiesis despite the body needing more erythrocytes? A) Aplastic crisis B) Sequestration crisis C) Hyperhemolytic crisis D) Vaso-occlusive crisis

Answer: A) Aplastic crisis

Question: What is the consequence of vaso-occlusion in the brain for individuals with Sickle Cell Disease? A) Increased oxygenation of brain tissues B) Improved cognitive function C) Stroke D) Improved memory

Answer: C) Stroke

Question: What type of anemia is typically associated with Sickle Cell Disease? A) Microcytic-hypochromic B) Macrocytic-normochromic C) Normocytic-normochromic D) Hypochromic-normocytic

Answer: C) Normocytic-normochromic

Answer: D) Acute illness and temperature changes

Question: What is the consequence of sickled red blood cells having a lower oxygen affinity? A) Improved oxygen delivery to tissues B) Increased viscosity of blood C) Reduced intracellular pH D) Increased erythrocyte longevity

Answer: B) Increased viscosity of blood

Question: What is the primary factor influencing iron absorption? A) Erythropoietin B) Tissue oxygenation C) Iron stores D) Hemoglobin levels

Answer: C) Iron stores

Question: Which type of anemia can be caused by iron overload, either primary or secondary? A) Aplastic anemia B) Sideroblastic anemia C) Hemolytic anemia D) Normocytic anemia

D) Normocytic anemia

Question: What is the treatment for iron overload in cases of low to moderate anemia? A) Therapeutic phlebotomy for iron depletion B) Iron supplementation C) Erythropoietin therapy D) Blood transfusion

Answer: A) Therapeutic phlebotomy for iron depletion

Question: What medication is used to treat iron overload in severe anemia without decreasing the effectiveness of transfusions? A) Erythropoietin B) Iron supplementation C) Deferoxamine (iron chelating medication) D) Therapeutic phlebotomy

Answer: C) Deferoxamine (iron chelating medication)

Question: What is the initial compensation for a reduction in the number of circulating erythrocytes? A) Decreased plasma volume B) Movement of interstitial fluid out of the blood C) Increase in blood viscosity D) Decreased heart rate

Answer: B) Movement of interstitial fluid out of the blood

Question: What is the consequence of "thinner" blood flowing faster and with more turbulence? A) Decreased stroke volume B) Decreased heart rate C) Hyperdynamic circulatory state D) Increased blood viscosity

Answer: C) Hyperdynamic circulatory state

Question: What cardiovascular changes can occur due to the hyperdynamic circulatory state caused by anemia? A) Decreased stroke volume B) Decreased heart rate C) Cardiac dilation and heart valve insufficiency D) Increased blood viscosity

Answer: C) Cardiac dilation and heart valve insufficiency

Question: What is the consequence of reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood? A) Increased oxygen delivery to tissues B) Ischemia C) Improved tissue oxygenation D) Decreased heart rate

Answer: B) Ischemia

Question: What is a common symptom experienced by individuals with anemia due to the body's attempt to increase oxygen intake? A) Decreased respiration rate B) Decreased respiration depth C) Exertional dyspnea D) Reduced heart rate

Answer: C) Exertional dyspnea

Question: How does the body respond to tissue hypoxia caused by anemia? A) By decreasing the rate and depth of respiration B) By reducing the release of oxygen from hemoglobin C) By increasing the rate and depth of respiration D) By slowing down the heart rate

Answer: C) By increasing the rate and depth of respiration

Question: What can anemia-induced tissue hypoxia lead to in terms of symptoms? A) Increased heart rate B) Decreased respiration rate C) Reduced dizziness D) Improved fatigue

Answer: A) Increased heart rate

Question: What is a common symptom of anemia related to tissue hypoxia? A) Rapid and pounding heart rate B) Decreased heart rate C) Increased energy levels D) Decreased rate and depth of respiration

Answer: A) Rapid and pounding heart rate

Question: What does a Complete Blood Count (CBC) measure? A) Red blood cells and white blood cells only B) Red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets only C) Red blood cells, white blood cells, hemoglobin, hematocrit, and platelets D) Hemoglobin and hematocrit only

Answer: C) Red blood cells, white blood cells, hemoglobin, hematocrit, and platelets

Question: What does MCV (Mean Corpuscular Volume) measure in terms of red blood cells? A) Their size B) Their color C) Their oxygen-carrying capacity D) Their shape

Answer: A) Their size

Question: What term is used to describe small-sized red blood cells with an MCV of less than 80? A) Normocytic B) Hyperchromic C) Hypochromic D) Microcytic

Answer: D) Microcytic

Question: What term is used to describe red blood cells with a normal size and an MCV of 80-95? A) Hyperchromic B) Microcytic C) Normocytic D) Hypochromic

Answer: C) Normocytic

Question: What term describes red blood cells with a very red color and high hemoglobin content? A) Microcytic B) Hypochromic C) Hyperchromic D) Normochromic

Answer: C) Hyperchromic

Question: Which type of anemia is characterized by small-sized and pale red blood cells with low ferritin levels? A) B12 anemia B) Iron deficiency anemia C) Anemia of chronic disease D) Folate anemia

Answer: B) Iron deficiency anemia

Question: What is the cause of B12 anemia? A) Lack of intrinsic factor (IF) B) Dietary intake of iron C) Chronic inflammation or cancer D) Lack of folate in the diet

Answer: A) Lack of intrinsic factor (IF)

Question: What type of anemia is characterized by large, abnormally shaped red blood cells with normal hemoglobin levels? A) Iron deficiency anemia B) Folate anemia C) B12 anemia D) Anemia of chronic disease

Answer: C) B12 anemia

Question: Which type of anemia is associated with a lack of folate in the diet and affects RNA and DNA synthesis of red blood cells? A) Iron deficiency anemia B) Folate anemia C) B12 anemia D) Sickle cell anemia

Answer: B) Folate anemia

Question: What type of anemia is characterized by abnormal "sickle" cell shapes in red blood cells and dysfunction of hemoglobin synthesis? A) Sickle cell anemia B) Iron deficiency anemia C) Thalassemia D) Anemia of chronic disease

Answer: A) Sickle cell anemia

Question: Which type of anemia is associated with a congenital genetic defect of alpha and beta globin synthesis and results in microcytic-hypochromic red blood cells? A) Iron deficiency anemia B) B12 anemia C) Thalassemia D) Anemia of chronic disease

Answer: C) Thalassemia

Question: What is defined by vasoconstriction and platelet plug formation in response to blood vessel damage? A) Secondary hemostasis B) Tertiary hemostasis C) Primary Hemostasis D) Quaternary hemostasis

Answer: C) Primary Hemostasis

Question: What are the three mechanisms that lead to vasoconstriction during primary hemostasis? A) Endothelin release, myogenic reflex, and nociceptor activation B) Platelet aggregation, ADP secretion, and serotonin release C) Fibrinogen activation, glycoprotein IIb-IIIa expression, and vWf binding D) Hemoglobin release, muscle contraction, and endothelial cell activation

Answer: A) Endothelin release, myogenic reflex, and nociceptor activation

Question: What is the function of "von Willebrand factor" (vWf) in platelet plug formation? A) It activates the coagulation cascade B) It binds platelets to exposed collagen C) It secretes ADP and TXA2 D) It inhibits platelet aggregation

Answer: B) It binds platelets to exposed collagen

Question: Which receptor on platelets binds directly to collagen during platelet plug formation? A) GPIIb/IIIa B) GPIb C) GPllb/llla D) vWf receptor

Answer: B) GPIb

Question: What happens when platelets are activated during platelet plug formation? A) They secrete ADP, TXA2, and serotonin B) They become inactive and detach from collagen C) They release fibrinogen D) They undergo apoptosis

Answer: A) They secrete ADP, TXA2, and serotonin

Question: What is the role of fibrinogen in platelet aggregation? A) It activates platelets B) It inhibits platelet aggregation C) It acts as a "glue molecule" between platelets D) It causes vasoconstriction

Answer: C) It acts as a "glue molecule" between platelets

Question: What does the aggregation of platelets create during primary hemostasis? A) A positive charge on the phospholipid layer B) A neutral charge on the phospholipid layer C) A NET NEGATIVE CHARGE on the phospholipid layer D) An increase in blood viscosity

Answer: C) A NET NEGATIVE CHARGE on the phospholipid layer

Question: What is the role of tissue factor in thrombus formation? A) It promotes platelet aggregation B) It activates the fibrinolytic system C) It prevents platelet adhesion D) It collaborates with platelet factors to activate the coagulation system

Answer: D) It collaborates with platelet factors to activate the coagulation system

Question: Where can arterial thrombi typically form, and what are they composed of? A) In veins, composed mainly of RBCs B) In arteries, composed of platelet aggregates held together with fibrin strands C) In veins, composed of platelet aggregates D) In arteries, composed mainly of RBCs

Answer: B) In arteries, composed of platelet aggregates held together with fibrin strands

Question: What can thrombi that break off from vessel walls and float in circulation become? A) Plaque formation B) Emboli C) Clotting factors D) Hemorrhagic complications

Answer: B) Emboli

Question: How can thrombi or emboli affect tissues and cells in the circulatory system? A) By causing hypertension B) By promoting plaque formation C) By blocking small vessels, leading to ischemia D) By increasing blood flow

Answer: C) By blocking small vessels, leading to ischemia

Question: Which treatment option is used for thrombus prevention and management? A) Hypertension medication B) Antiplatelet drugs C) Anticoagulants like heparin and warfarin D) Pain relievers

Answer: C) Anticoagulants like heparin and warfarin

Question: What is the role of tPA, uPA, and streptokinase in thrombus management? A) They activate the coagulation system B) They promote platelet aggregation C) They activate the fibrinolytic system to break up clots D) They increase blood viscosity

Answer: C) They activate the fibrinolytic system to break up clots

Question: What is Virchow's triad, and what factors does it encompass? A) A musical composition, three types of instruments B) A weather phenomenon, temperature, humidity, and wind speed C) Factors that increase the risk of spontaneous thrombi formation, including injury to blood vessel endothelium, abnormalities in blood flow, and hypercoagulability D) A type of food, carbohydrates, proteins, and fats

Answer: C) Factors that increase the risk of spontaneous thrombi formation, including injury to blood vessel endothelium, abnormalities in blood flow, and hypercoagulability

Question: What is the pathophysiology of antiphospholipid syndrome (APS)? A) It is characterized by autoantibodies against platelets B) It primarily affects males C) Autoantibodies react with plasma membrane phospholipids and phospholipid-binding proteins, increasing the risk of thrombosis D) It is not associated with thrombosis

Answer: C) Autoantibodies react with plasma membrane phospholipids and phospholipid-binding proteins, increasing the risk of thrombosis

Question: What is the mechanism of action of ASA (acetylsalicylic acid)? A) Selective inhibition of COX-2 B) Reversible inhibition of COX-1 C) Non-selective inhibition of COX-1 D) Activation of COX-1

Answer: C) Non-selective inhibition of COX-1

Question: What is the primary indication for using ASA? A) Allergy relief B) Hypertension C) Prevention of platelet aggregation D) Treatment of bacterial infections

Answer: C) Prevention of platelet aggregation

Question: What adverse effect is associated with chronic ASA use? A) Hypertension B) Acid reflux C) Occult GI blood loss leading to anemia D) Allergic reactions

Answer: C) Occult GI blood loss leading to anemia

Question: In what special population is ASA contraindicated due to the risk of Reye syndrome? A) Elderly individuals B) Pregnant women C) Children under 18 years old D) Smokers

Answer: C) Children under 18 years old

Question: When should ASA be held before elective surgery and childbirth? A) 24 hours prior B) 3 days prior C) 1 week prior D) It does not need to be held before surgery or childbirth

Answer: C) 1 week prior

Question: In which condition might ASA use be justified despite the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding? A) Mild headache B) Risk of myocardial infarction (MI) C) Mild toothache D) Seasonal allergies

Answer: B) Risk of myocardial infarction (MI)

Question: What is the primary mechanism of action of Unfractionated Heparin? A) Inactivation of factor Xa B) Binding with antithrombin to inactivate thrombin C) Activation of platelets D) Stimulation of red blood cell production

Answer: B) Binding with antithrombin to inactivate thrombin

Question: What is a common adverse effect of Unfractionated Heparin? A) Hypertension B) Osteoporosis C) Elevated cholesterol levels D) Blurred vision

Answer: B) Osteoporosis

Question: In which population is Unfractionated Heparin preferred due to its inability to cross the placenta? A) Pregnant women B) Elderly patients C) Children D) Athletes

Answer: A) Pregnant women

Question: What is the primary monitoring parameter for Unfractionated Heparin therapy? A) Blood pressure B) Blood glucose levels C) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) D) Serum creatinine

Answer: C) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

Question: What is the antidote for Unfractionated Heparin? A) Insulin B) Aspirin C) Warfarin D) Protamine

Answer: D) Protamine

Question: What is the primary mechanism of action of Fragmented Heparin (Low molecular weight)? A) Activation of platelets B) Inactivation of thrombin C) Inactivation of factor Xa D) Stimulation of red blood cell production

Answer: C) Inactivation of factor Xa

Question: What is a common adverse effect of Fragmented Heparin (Low molecular weight)? A) Elevated blood pressure B) Osteoporosis C) Dizziness D) Hemorrhage

Answer: D) Hemorrhage

Question: In which condition should Low molecular weight heparins be avoided? A) Hemodialysis B) Venous thromboembolism (VTE) C) Patients with creatinine clearance (CrCl) <30 ml/min D) Non-ST elevation acute coronary syndrome

Answer: C) Patients with creatinine clearance (CrCl) <30 ml/min

Question: What is the primary monitoring approach for Low molecular weight heparins? A) Regular blood pressure checks B) Continuous electrocardiogram (ECG) monitoring C) Fixed dosage without laboratory monitoring D) Frequent blood glucose testing

Answer: C) Fixed dosage without laboratory monitoring

Question: What is the antidote for Low molecular weight heparins? A) Vitamin K B) Insulin C) Aspirin D) Protamine

Answer: D) Protamine

Question: What is the primary mechanism of action of Warfarin (Coumadin)? A) Activation of platelets B) Suppression of coagulation by decreasing vitamin K-dependent clotting factors C) Inhibition of blood vessel constriction D) Promotion of platelet aggregation

Answer: B) Suppression of coagulation by decreasing vitamin K-dependent clotting factors

Question: Which condition is a common indication for Warfarin (Coumadin) therapy? A) Diabetes B) Hypertension C) Atrial Fibrillation D) Migraine

Answer: C) Atrial Fibrillation

Question: What is the primary adverse effect of Warfarin (Coumadin)? A) Hypertension B) Increased risk for heart attacks C) Hemorrhage/increased risk for bleeding D) Gastrointestinal ulcers

Answer: C) Hemorrhage/increased risk for bleeding

Question: What is the recommended range for the INR (international normalized ratio) in most patients receiving Warfarin therapy? A) 1.3-1.5 B) 3-5 C) 0.5-0.7 D) 2-3

Answer: D) 2-3

Question: What is the antidote for Warfarin (Coumadin) overdose? A) Aspirin B) Insulin C) Protamine D) Vitamin K

Answer: D) Vitamin K

Question: What is the primary use of NOACs (Novel Oral Anticoagulants)? A) Reducing blood pressure B) Reducing blood glucose levels C) Reducing the risk of stroke and blood clots in non-valvular atrial fibrillation D) Treating bacterial infections

Answer: C) Reducing the risk of stroke and blood clots in non-valvular atrial fibrillation

Question: What is the onset of action for NOACs? A) Delayed (several days) B) Rapid (hours) C) Prolonged (weeks) D) Variable

Answer: B) Rapid (hours)

Question: What is the primary advantage of NOACs over traditional anticoagulants? A) Fixed dosage B) Requires frequent blood tests C) Long duration of action D) High protein binding

Answer: A) Fixed dosage

Question: What is the antidote available for NOACs in cases of overdose? A) Andexanet alfa B) Vitamin K C) Insulin D) Protamine

Answer: A) Andexanet alfa

Question: What is the suggested dosing for Andexanet alfa in cases of life-threatening or uncontrolled bleeding due to NOAC use? A) 100 mg IV bolus B) 400 mg IV bolus followed by 408 mg/min infusion C) 800 mg oral dose D) No antidote available

Answer: B) 400 mg IV bolus followed by 408 mg/min infusion

Question: What is the mechanism of action of Dabigatran? A) Inhibition of factor Xa B) Inhibition of antithrombin C) Inhibition of factor IIa (thrombin) D) Inhibition of factor XIII

Answer: C) Inhibition of factor IIa (thrombin)

Question: What is the primary adverse effect associated with Dabigatran? A) Hypertension B) Hypercholesterolemia C) Risk of bleeding D) Gastric ulcers

Answer: C) Risk of bleeding

Question: What is the antidote for Dabigatran in cases of overdose? A) Vitamin K B) Protamine C) Idarucizumab D) Activated charcoal

Answer: C) Idarucizumab

Question: In what patients is Dabigatran contraindicated due to renal function? A) Patients with creatinine clearance (CrCl) > 50 ml/minute B) Patients with creatinine clearance (CrCl) < 30 ml/minute C) Patients with creatinine clearance (CrCl) > 100 ml/minute D) Patients with creatinine clearance (CrCl) between 30-50 ml/minute

Answer: B) Patients with creatinine clearance (CrCl) < 30 ml/minute

Question: Which of the following is an advantage of Dabigatran over Warfarin? A) Delayed onset B) Requires routine monitoring C) Numerous drug-drug interactions D) Lower risk of major bleeding

Answer: D) Lower risk of major bleeding

Question: What is the primary mechanism of action for iron when it is absorbed by mucosal cells of the small intestine? A) Stored as ferritin within the mucosal cells B) Transported in the bloodstream as hemoglobin C) Stored in the brain D) Excreted from the body through the kidneys

Answer: A) Stored as ferritin within the mucosal cells

Question: What is the recommended dose of regular-release ferrous sulfate for iron deficiency anemia? A) 50 mg B) 100 mg C) 200 mg D) 60-65 mg of elemental iron

Answer: D) 60-65 mg of elemental iron

Question: What are common side effects associated with iron supplementation? A) Increased energy B) Headache C) Nausea, heartburn, constipation, bloating or diarrhea D) Improved vision

Answer: C) Nausea, heartburn, constipation, bloating, or diarrhea

Question: In which special population should iron supplementation be avoided, particularly when they receive frequent blood transfusions? A) Children B) Pregnant women C) Elderly adults D) Athletes

Answer: C) Elderly adults

Question: What is a common indicator of anemia in the elderly known as "anemia of chronic disease"? A) High serum ferritin B) High hemoglobin levels C) Low serum ferritin D) Low total iron-binding capacity

Answer: A) High serum ferritin

Question: Which of the following is not commonly monitored to assess iron levels and anemia? A) Hemoglobin and hematocrit B) RBC count and RBC indices C) Serum ferritin and transferrin saturation D) Serum glucose concentration

Answer: D) Serum glucose concentration

Question: What is the primary medical condition for which Recombinant human Erythropoietin (r-HuEPO) is commonly prescribed? A) Hypertension B) Anemia due to chronic renal failure C) Diabetes D) Cancer

Answer: B) Anemia due to chronic renal failure

Question: What is the mechanism of action of Recombinant human Erythropoietin (r-HuEPO)? A) It inhibits RBC production B) It reduces blood viscosity C) It directly binds to hemoglobin D) It binds to erythropoietin receptors on proerythroblasts, increasing RBC production

Answer: D) It binds to erythropoietin receptors on proerythroblasts, increasing RBC production

Question: What immediate effect does the administration of r-HuEPO have on blood? A) Decreases reticulocyte count B) Reduces erythrocyte levels C) Increases blood viscosity D) Increases reticulocyte count

Answer: D) Increases reticulocyte count

Question: What significant side effect is associated with r-HuEPO administration? A) Anemia B) Hypotension C) Increased blood pressure D) Elevated cholesterol levels

Answer: C) Increased blood pressure

Question: In which group of patients is the use of EPO typically not recommended, and it even has a black box warning? A) Patients with hypertension B) Cancer patients receiving palliative care C) Patients with diabetes D) Patients with infectious diseases

Answer: B) Cancer patients receiving palliative care

Question: Under what condition do patients on dialysis have strict parameters before they can receive EPO? A) If they have high cholesterol B) If they have high blood pressure C) If they have a high threshold for hemoglobin D) If they have low platelet counts

Answer: C) If they have a high threshold for hemoglobin

Question: What is the primary mechanism of action of Cyanocobalamin (B12 Supplement)? A) Reducing blood pressure B) Promoting DNA development in red blood cell production C) Enhancing bone density D) Suppressing appetite

Answer: B) Promoting DNA development in red blood cell production

Question: Which of the following is a common adverse effect associated with Cyanocobalamin (B12 Supplement) use? A) Muscle pain B) Vision changes C) Tingling sensation in hands and feet D) Hair loss

Answer: C) Tingling sensation in hands and feet

Question: In which condition or situation is Cyanocobalamin typically used? A) Osteoporosis B) Type 2 diabetes C) Pernicious Anemia or insufficient dietary B12 intake D) Hypertension

Answer: C) Pernicious Anemia or insufficient dietary B12 intake

Question: Which route of administration is typically used for Cyanocobalamin in cases of pernicious anemia? A) Oral (PO) B) Intravenous (IV) C) Intramuscular (IM) D) Subcutaneous (SC)

Answer: B) Intramuscular (IM)

Question: What is the recommended initial daily dose of Cyanocobalamin for treating pernicious anemia? A) 500 mcg B) 1000-2000 mcg C) 2500 mcg D) 5000 mcg

Answer: B) 1000-2000 mcg

Question: Why should Cyanocobalamin not be administered with folic acid in cases of B12 deficiency? A) It enhances the effect of Cyanocobalamin B) Folic acid can alleviate neurologic deficits C) Folic acid may mask the presence of B12 deficiency D) Folic acid has no effect on B12 deficiency

Answer: C) Folic acid may mask the presence of B12 deficiency

Question: What is the primary mechanism of action of hydroxyurea? A) Stimulation of red blood cell production B) Inhibition of ribonucleotide reductase (RR) C) Promotion of platelet count increase D) Activation of white blood cells

Answer: B) Inhibition of ribonucleotide reductase (RR)

Question: What is one common adverse effect associated with hydroxyurea use that may lead to a decrease in white blood cell count? A) Lowered hemoglobin levels B) Increased platelet count C) Skin hyperpigmentation D) Neutropenia

Answer: D) Neutropenia

Question: What is the purpose of hydroxyurea increasing the production of fetal hemoglobin (HbF)? A) To promote the synthesis of red blood cells B) To stimulate the immune system C) To prevent sickle hemoglobin from forming clumps D) To induce melanonychia

Answer: C) To prevent sickle hemoglobin from forming clumps

Question: In which patient populations is the use of hydroxyurea typically recommended? A) Individuals with hypertension B) Pregnant women C) Patients with frequent painful episodes due to hemoglobin SS or Sβ0 thalassemia D) People with allergies

Answer: C) Patients with frequent painful episodes due to hemoglobin SS or Sβ0 thalassemia

Question: What dosing modifications should be considered for pregnant or lactating females in relation to hydroxyurea? A) Higher daily doses are recommended B) No dose modifications are necessary C) Pregnant or lactating females should not use hydroxyurea D) Lower daily doses are recommended

Answer: C) Pregnant or lactating females should not use hydroxyurea

Question: What is the typical daily dose of hydroxyurea for patients with hemoglobin SS or Sβ0 thalassemia who experience frequent painful episodes? A) 5–10 mg/kg/day B) 15–20 mg/kg/day C) 10–15 mg/kg/day D) 20–25 mg/kg/day

Answer: C) 10–15 mg/kg/day

Week 2 Flashcards

(133 cards)