Week 6 Flashcards
1
Q
True or false: The number of fat cells is determined perinatally and fixed
A
TRUE - hypercellular obesity is exception
2
Q
Define induced pluripotent stem cells. What is a main factor in deriving these cells.
A
artificially derived from cell non-pluripotent cell. Myc.
3
Q
In ________ secretion, cells accumulate secretory product then distingrate to release material (ex: sebum)
A
holocrine
4
Q
Completion of DNA replication and environmental favorability control the _______ in the cell cycle
A
start of mitosis, G2/M transition
5
Q
Most of kinetochore and overlap microtubules nucleated by centrosomes are released then held and organized at the poles by _______
A
motor proteins
6
Q
What catalyzes the rate limiting step of cyclin destruction?
A
ubiquitin lyase
7
Q
RBCs, granulocytes, macrophages, platelets and lymphocytes are all derived from one population of stem cells in the ____________
A
bone marrow
8
Q
Which two epithelia are involved in transportation?
A
simple columnar and pseudostratified
9
Q
Cyclin-cdk complex is activated by addition of phosphate by _____
A
CAK
10
Q
_______ is a collagenopathy that causes loose skin
A
epidermolysis bullosa
11
Q
Finding a better way to target and kill _________ may lead to a dramatic reduction in cancer occurrence
A
cancer stem cells
12
Q
Describe how Ige binding to a receptor on a mast cell triggers cascade of events
A
Activates AC –> activates protein kinase –> release of Ca++ then granular contents and activates phospholipases to convert arachadonic acid in membrane and secrete leukotrienes, thromboxanes, prostaglandins
13
Q
___________ transplantation or bone marrow transplantation is used in modern cancer therapy
A
hematopoietic stem cell
14
Q
Describe clonality in cancer
A
Neoplasm derived from a single precursor cell
15
Q
________ are of fetal origin or differentiated from ES cells and induced PS cells
A
neural stem cells
16
Q
___________ make up the epidermis of the skin and protect
A
Stratified squamous keratinized
17
Q
__________ cross link two sister chromatids and thus bind chromosomes together
A
Cohesins
18
Q
__________ aka reticular fibers are also fibril forming and highly glycosylated. They form the structural framework of lymph tissue, adipose, liver, lung and skin
A
Collagen III
19
Q
During mitosis, CDC20 activates APC. Describe how APC triggers separation of sister chromatids.
A
APC activation leads to destruction of securin –> activates separase –> separase cleaves cohesin complex –> mitotic spindle pulls sister chromatids apart
20
Q
True or false: epithelial cells are avascular
A
TRUE - receive nutrition by diffusion through basement membrane
21
Q
What’s the difference between brown fat in infants and adults?
A
Infants is multilocar, adults are unilocar
22
Q
_______, cysteine aspartic proteases, are the effectors of apoptosis
A
Caspases
23
Q
True/False - Cells differ because they contain different genetic information
A
FALSE - they express different sets of genes
24
Q
_____ normally binds p53 and and ubiquitylates it targeting it for proteasomal degradation
A
mdm
25
_________ are the primary cell adhesion molecules of the ECM
glycoproteins
26
BCL2 is an anti apoptotic protein that inhibits the caspase cascade and is overexpressed in _________
follicular lymphoma
27
BCl2 family proteins also regulate intrinsic pathway by controlling mitochondrial release of ________ proteins
anti-IAP (anti- apoptosis inhibitory proteins)
28
In _________ (cell type), if part of liver is surgically removed, the remaining cells can proliferate to regenerate
epithelial cells
29
Describe the role of laminin in the basal lamina.
Multi-adhesive ECM components that binds cells to collagen IV and integrins, associated with cell differentiation
30
______ and ______ are elastic fibers that allow tissue to expand and contract. They are abundant in blood vessels, lungs and skin.
elastin and fibrillin
31
True or false: Changing lifestyles is most effective way to prevent cancer
True
32
Chromosomal rearrangement can also cause cancer. In Burkitt's lymphoma, a nearby regulatory DNA sequence causes NL cell overproduction. In _____ a fusion to actively transcribed gene greatly overproduces fusion protein
CML
33
Describe the key characteristic of each phase of mitosis (6)
Prophase (chromosomal condensation), prometaphase (nuclear envelope breakdown), metaphase (chromosomal alignment), anaphase (sister chromatid separation), telophase (daughter chromosome separation), cytokinesis
34
In _________, vesicular exocytosis ocurs that involves part of the plasma membrane which is returned back to cell and recycled
merocrine secretion ** most common type of secretory mechanism
35
The __________ is used to identify malignant tumors of epithelial origin
macula adherens
36
________ is the first selective inhibitor of epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) and is effective against breast cancer and approved for some lung cnacers
Iressa
37
____________ of endothelial cells stimulates differentiated cells to proliferate to repair damaged tissues (i.e. angiogenesis in MI)
vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)
38
It is estimated that _____ mutations need to accumulate in a single line of cells to cause cancer
10-20
39
_______ blocks DNA synthesis. When combined with caffeine, the checkpoint that causes block fails and cells proceed into mitosis with incompletely replicated DNA. This results in _________
hydroxyurea, suicidal mitosis
40
________ assemble on centromeres during late prophase. The DNA sequence at the centromere of each sister chromatid specifies their construction.
kinetochore
41
A ________ is a non-neoplastic overgrowth of normal tissue
hamaratoma
42
The _____ contains the neoplastic component of a tumor whereas the ____ contains the supportive tissue or "desmoplasia"
parenchyma, stroma
43
__ phase includes the highest number of cells
G1 phase
44
What causes cancer?
uncontrolled cell growth and apoptosis
45
_________ include skin, heart valves, fibrous pericardium, and fibrous capsules of organs and of joints
dense irregular connective tissue
46
_______ generally exhibit genetic instability which promotes tumorigenesis
p53 mutants
47
Features in cancer cells include a low N:C ratio, abnormal mitotic figures and ________
prominent nucleoli
48
What is a classic example of a totipotent cell?
zygote
49
Trauma, lack of blood flow, infection, chemicals, inflammation, nutritional imbalances can all cause _______ of cells
necrosis
50
Differences between serosa and mucosa
Serosa - mesothelium, CT space with blood vessels. Mucosa - epithelium with or without glands, has basement membrane, lamina propia, muscularis mucosae
51
Name the three classes of microtubules
astral, kinetochore, overlap
52
An adenocarcinoma signifies what?
Glandular epithelial malignant tumor (colon, lung, pancreas, breast, prostate)
53
A morphogen can be created in two ways. What are they?
By localized production of an inducer OR by localized production of an inhibitor , both diffuse away from source
54
__________ is the name of the ECM of the umbilical cord
Wharton's Jelly
55
___________ serve as cushioning layers and often associated with adipose tissue
loose connective tissue
56
__________ epithelia are involved in fluid transport, gaseous exchange, lubrication, reduced friction and membrane lining/limiting
simple squamous epithelium
57
Microvilli of ________ border are found in GI tract and gallbladder and may move via pumping action. They are absorptive.
Striated
58
_________ line the conjunctiva of the eye, some large excretory ducts, portions of male urethra and are involved in secretion, absorption, protection
stratified columnar
59
What are the three types of connective tissue fibers?
reticular fibers, elastic fibers, collagen fibers
60
____ and ____ mutations can cause cancer when a small point mutation or deletion causes hyperactive protein to be made in normal amounts
Ras, EGF receptor
61
Describe how S-phase initiation is controlled in animal cells in regards to Rb.
G1-CDK activity initiates Rb phosphorylation --> Rb inactivated --> E2F freed to activate S phase genes (G2/S-cyclin and S-cyclin) --> gene activity enhances Rb phosphorylation --> E2f acts back to stimulate transcription of its own gene
62
The ______ is critical for collecting cells together to form a tissue, a substrate for cell migration in wound healing and embryonic development, and responsible for relay of enviro signals to cell surface
extracellular matrix
63
Cytochrome c triggers assembly of the large, heptameric ______ by binding to APAF1 (apop activating factor 1) which causes it to hydrolyze its ATP followed by replacement by a new ATP.
apoptosome
64
The actin and myosin filaments of the _______ divide the cell in two during M phase
Contractile ring
65
___________ is common in adults and childremn, found in myelogenous cells and grows quickly
Acute myelogenous leukemia
66
Microtubules are nucleated in centrosomes via their _______ ends (anchored at spindle pores) while their _____ ends grow outwards toward the periphery
negative, positive
67
_________ are network forming and found in the basal lamina where they support filtration
Collagen IV
68
Describe fibronectin's role in wound healing
Fibronectin links to fibrin clots where it attracts fibroblasts and endothelial cells that promote healing
69
Abnormalities in homeostasis result in cancer. These abnormalities can be exploited in _____________ in hopes of replacing damaged tissues.
Pluripotent stem cells
70
True or false - well differentiated cancer cells tend to be more aggressive than poorly differentiated
FALSE, backwards
71
What are the two major components of the basal lamina?
Laminin and type IV collagen
72
The loss of _______ by cancer cells allows them to exfoliate into soft tissue
e-cadherin
73
Chromosomes attach to spindle microtubules via a _______
kinetochore
74
Describe the roles of fibronectin and laminin in ECM
glycoproteins that link extracellular fibers to cells
75
_______ is associated with outer nuclear envelope and pores, marker for connective tissue tumors and is found on fibroblasts, endothelial cells, etc
Vimentin
76
__________ line the urinary passages from renal calyces to the urethra and are involved in protection and distensible
transitional epithelium
77
An osteosarcoma signifiies what?
Bone malignant tumor from mesenchymal tissue
78
A mutation in APC which gives rise to clone cells that act as though Wnt signaling is permanently activated is linked to what type of tumor formation?
Colonic Adenoma
79
What are the two types of signaling pathways needed by cells to proliferate?
mitogens and growth factors
80
Fertilization triggers two types of intracellular movements that determine polarity of embryo. Describe.
cortical rotation through 30 degree relative to core (determined by sperm entry); active transport of disheveled protein in wnt pathway which defines dorsoventral polarity
81
___ fat is found in adults whereas ___ fat is found in infants
white, brown
82
Killer T-lymphocytes with Fas ligand attach to Fas death receptor on target cell which stimulates assembly of _______ and activation/cleavage of Proscaspase 8 or 10 (or both)
DISC
83
_____ looks at the molecular processes of the tumor and is more indicative of how the tumor is going to behave
grading
84
Immobile cilia syndrome is also known as _____________ and results in chronic respiratory difficulty and sterility in males and some females
Kartagener's syndrome
85
_____ initiate changes of microtubule length by causing phosphorylation of MAPs (microtubule associated proteins) and catastrophins
M-cdks
86
During separation of spindle poles in prophase, when two microtubules from opposite centrosomes interact in an overlap zone, + end directed ______ related motor proteins cross-link the microtubules together and tend to drive them in a direction that pulls apart centrosomes
kinesin
87
Describe the two products of asymmetric division by stem cells
(1) one daughter cell that continues proliferating indefinitely, (2) one progenitor cell that further divides and terminally differentiates
88
Without ______, cdk is inactive and cannot trigger specific cell-cycle events
cyclin
89
The epithelia is separated from underlying tissues by the ___________
basement membrane
90
In BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations what kind of DNA repair is defective?
dsDNA break repair
91
In epithelial cells, the extracellular matrix is described as a __________ in light microscopy and as a ___________ in electron microscopy
basement membrane, basal lamina
92
Therapeutic cloning involves taking a nucleus from adult human cells and transferring it to an enucleated egg from which embryonic stem cells can be extracted from cloned embryo. What are three advantages of this?
pluripotency, no tissue rejection by immune system, application combined with gene transfer can correct inherited diseases
93
Most cells in early embryos are coupled by _________, which involve connexons and are a hydrophilic channel
gap junctions
94
_________ is found in epithelial cells and provides structural support or tension-bearing role, is a marker for tumor of epithelial cell origin
Keratin
95
The gastrula is formed at ______ days and contains 3 germ layers
14-16 post fertilization
96
_____ prevents cells with damaged, unstable DNA from dividing. Mutations in this protein can have a dominant negative effect. The most common mutations in this protein that cause cancer are found in its DNA binding domain.
p53
97
Attachment of all chromosomes to the spindle controls the ______ in the cell cycle
metaphase to anaphase transition
98
___________ are present in greatest numbers in areas of chronic inflammation and where foreign substances and microorganisms have entered tissues.
plasma cells
99
How do cancer cells utilize their fibronectin receptors to metastasize?
Malignant cells lack cell surface fibronectin and migrate - their Fn receptors then bind to Fn receptors at distance sites and facilitate metastasis
100
What are the two subtypes of extracellular matrix. Briefly describe.
Interstitial - surrounds cells in tissues, abundant in connective tissue; basement membrane - sheets of fibers that underly the epithelium
101
_______ are loss of function mutations that are recessive. An example is Rb.
tumor suppressor genes
102
When DNA is damaged, protein kinases phosphorylate p53 and what happens?
MDM can no longer bind to it, so p53 concentration in cell increases --> increases transcription of p21 --> p21 binds and inactivates S-cdk and G/S-cdk complexes --> cell arrested in G1 cycle
103
_______ are found on nuclear lamina of all cells and organize peripheral chromatin and control assembly/disassembly of nuclear envelope
lamins
104
Name three types of proper connective tissue
loose, dense, adipose
105
Define pluripotency
Capacity of stem cell to divide into all 3 germ layers
106
What are the disadvantages of therapeutic cloning?
low efficiency of generating embryos, cell culture conditions not fully known, ethical concerns (cloning whole humans, destroying embryos)
107
There are 5 types of glycosaminoglycans (GAGs). _____ is the main type in connective tissue and forms the "backbone" for assembly of other GAGs. It is also a major component of synovial fluid.
Hyaluronan
108
_____ is caused by a lack of vitamin C which is an important cofactor for proline hydroxylase. Ulceration of gums and hemmorhages are seen
Scurvy
109
Activation of executioner caspases by initiator capases leads to cleavage of?
cytosolic proteins and nuclear lamin
110
Macrophages differentiate from monocytes upon _________
entry to connective tissue
111
Caspases posses a _______ residue on their active site and cleave a ______ residue in target peptide
cysteine, aspartate
112
A _________ occurs when gastric carcinoma metastasizes to the ovaries via vascular supply due to loss of e-cadherin
Krukenberg tumor
113
In absence of an apoptotic stimulus, cytosolic _____ proteins bind to and inhibit spontaneously activated caspases.
IAP (inhibition of apoptosis proteins)
114
Glucose uptake by tumor cells ends up producing what two things
An abundance of lactate and building blocks
115
Describe the potency characteristic of stem cells
ability to differentiate into any specialized cell
116
TNF death ligands bind to ___ death receptors which directly activate a distinct initiator caspase (8 or 10)
Fas
117
Invasion of cancer cells facilitated by laminin attachment, fibronectin, cytokine secretion, angiogenesis and what other two factors?
type IV collagenases, loss of intracellular adhesion
118
p21 binds and inactivates _____ and _____ complexes which arrests cell in G1
G1/S-cdk and S-cdk
119
The most common metastasis of lungs is to the ___________
brain
120
What are the four different cell types in intestinal epithelium that are generated from undifferentiated multipotent stem cells?
absorptive cells, goblet cells, enteroendocrine cells, paneth cells
121
During the cell cycle, sensory mechanisms detect unreplicated DNA and block the activation of ______
M-CDK
122
_______ targets the r600E mutation in Raf and is present in about 1/2 of all melanomas
Zelporaf
123
Composition of _____ determines cell phenotype and behavior
ECM
124
The Bcl family is part of the ________ pathway of apoptosis whereas Fas and TNF receptors are part of the _______
intrinsic/mitochondrial, extrinsic/death receptor pathway
125
Describe collagen function in ECM
rope like fibers that give tissue tensile strength
126
_______ is more important for prognosis and involves looking at the tumor size/location, nodes, and metastases
Staging
127
____________ of fibroblasts allows differentiated cells to proliferate to repair a cut or wound
platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)
128
_______ encompasses cancers that arise form hematopoietic cells and those derived from cells of nervous system
Leukemias
129
What are the 4 layers of the intestinal wall?
mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, serosa
130
True/False : Apoptotic signaling pathways are being used to provide new therapeutic way of treating cancer
True
131
Describe how a survival signal binding to RTK leads to inhibition of apoptosis
PI3K activated --> PIP2 produced --> PDK1 and PKB recruited to membrane --> PDK1 phosphorylates and activates PKB --> PKB dissociates and phosphorylates BAD --> Bad cannot inactivate death inhibitory protein
132
Lysyl oxidase initiates cross linking in what two compounds?
elastin and collagen
133
____ are involved in the control of G1/S phases. Their binding rearranges the structure of the cdk site, rendering it inactive. p27 is an example.
CDK inhibitor proteins (CKI)
134
Adult stem cell therapy uses patient's own stem cells to eliminate potential complications of ________________
immune rejection
135
________ are gain of function mutations that have DOMINANT transforming effects. An example is Ras.
Oncogenes
136
What are the three criteria in tumor grading?
gland formation, nuclear atypical pleomorphism, mitosis
137
___________ results from sensitivity to gluten and is characterized by loss of microvilli on surface of small intestine leading to osmotic diarrhea (decreased absorptive capacity)
Celiac sprue
138
__________ are derived in bone marrow and possess granules containinng histamine, heparin and granulate with secondary exposure to antigen/allergens. They are capable of synthesizing primary mediators
Mast cells
139
_________ are cancers arising from epithelial cells wheras ________ are cancers arising from connective tissue or muscle cells
carcinomas, sarcomas
140
The typical salivary exocrine gland is the compound _______
tubuloalveolar
141
Mechanical junctions include zonula adherins which anchor to _______, desmosomes which anchor to ______ and hemidesmosomes which anchor to _________
actin microfilaments, keratin, basement membrane
142
The arterial form of __________ is characterized by rupture of vessels, colon rupture, joint and skin and is caused by defects in type IV collagen
Ehlers-Danlos Type II
143
Sister chromatids attach to kinetochore microtubules which bind by their ____ ends. Each kinetochore forms a ______ on the surface of the centromere.
positive, plaque
144
___________ can develop aggressively in AIDs patient and involve the skin, lungs, GI tract and other organs
Kaposi's sarcoma
145
Fibronectin is a glycosylated multi-adhesive protein found in connective tissues and plasma that is associated with what?
cell proliferation and migration
146
Mixed tumors are usually benign and contain _________, where as teratomas have components derived from ________
2 germ layers, all 3
147
During _________, chromosomes move poleward, away from the metaphase plate with the retraction of the microtubule. In the second phase, __________, the mitotic poles marked by the centrosomes themselves separate.
anaphase A, anaphase B
148
Stem cells can replicate indefinitely whereas __________ can divide only a limited number of times
progenitor cells
149
TNF and other cell death receptor ligands consist of 3 ____________ so their binding to cell death receptors induces receptor _______
polypeptide chains, trimerization
150
What are elastic fibers composed of? Name examples.
Elastin core and microfibrils. Fibrillin
151
Microvilli of _______ border are found in proximal convoluted kidneys, choroid plexus, placenta and are absorptive.
microvilli
152
Describe the steps of collagen synthesis
Procollagen synth in ER --> hydroxylation of prolines and lysines --> glycosylated on hydrolysines and asparagines --> disulfide bonds between 3 alpha chains --> procollagen secreted from cell --> ECM proteases cleave ends --> tropocollagen fiber --> crosslink to form collagen
153
__________ is common in adults and grows slowly in myeloid cells
Chronic myelogenous leukemia
154
___________ are found in the epididymis, ductus deferens, internal ear and have no mobility . They are absorptive and may be secretive.
stereocilia
155
_____________ is the most common form of collagen and is found in bone, skin, tendons, dentin and fibrocartilage
Collagen I
156
____________ and ______ protein kinases phosphorylate and activate p53 tumor suppressor protein and the resulting increase in p53 leads to transcriptional activation of target genes which include cdk inhibitor p21 and BH3-only proteins PUMA and Noxa
ATM (ataxia telangiectasia mutated) and CHK2
157
The ________ is the principal microtubule organizing center. Before a cell divides, it must duplicate this structure to provide one for each daughter cell.
centrosome
158
As cells differentiate, their rate of proliferation usually decreases and most cells in adult animals are arrested in _____ stage of cell cycle
G0
159
________ is common in kids and found in lymphoid cells, exhibiting quick growth
Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
160
What are the two pathways in apoptosis?
intrinsic (mitochondrial) and extrinsic (death receptor initiated)
161
_____ and ____ activity results in cdk inactivation during G1. Once the cell is ready for another cell cycle, the increase in G1/CDK and G1/S CDK activities inhibit these proteins, allowing S-cdk activity to increase.
Hct1 and Sic1
162
Describe the Pi3K/Akt/mTOR pathway briefly
Growth factor binds RTK --> RTK activated --> Pi3K activated --> PIP2 converted to PIP3 --> Akt recruited to membrane and activated --> activates mTOR and Acl. mTOR increases protein synthesis and inc glycolysis leads to more citrate production. Acl converts citrate to acetyl coa needed for membrane biosynthesis in cell growth.
163
Activation of PUMA and NOXA leads to activation of ____________ (2 proteins) which leads to mitochondrial release of cytochrome C (activates apoptosis)
Bax and Bak
164
A _______ or ______ is a non-neoplastic normal tissue in an abnormal location
heterotopia, ectopia
165
Name the four agents known to cause cancer
UV radiation, ionizing radiation, viruses (15%), smoking
166
Epithelial cells are polarized and attached to each other via _________ to form a sheet with little or no intercellular space between cells
junctional complexes
167
__________ in epidermis and _________ or Kupffer cells in the liver represent different types of macrophages
Langerhans, Perisinusoidal
168
_____ and ____ signaling control the production of differentiated cells from stem cells in the intestine
Wnt and Notch
169
The zonula occludens or ____________ prevent lateral migration of specifialized membrane proteins
tight junctions
170
What three things compose connective tissue?
ground substance (GS), fibers, cells
171
Describe the "starry sky" phenomenon seen in Burkitt's lymphoma
Tumor rapidly dividing --> unregulated cell division --> high turnover --> high rates of apoptosis --> phagocytes make holes
172
_______ are found on neurons and provide support for axons and dendrites
Neurofilaments
173
Which of the following is not a major location of collagen?
a) tendon
b) lungs
c) artery
d) kidney
e) liver
d)
174
__________ are less differentiated and present in most adult tissues
self renewing cells
175
Abrupt changes in the biochemical state occurs from ________ to ______
metaphase, anaphase
176
_________ is fibril forming and found in hyaline and elastic cartilage and vitreous humor
Collagen II
177
Which is of the following is NOT a type of simple epithelium?
a) squamous
b) cuboidal
c) columnar
d) transitional
e) pseudotratified
d) transitional - that is stratified
178
The apoptosome recruits ______ through a caspase recruitment domain (CARD) on each protein which then cleave and activate downstream executioner procaspases, turning on caspase cascade
procaspase 9
179
What are the three types of self-renewing cells in medicine?
embryonic stem cells, adult stem cells, and induced pluripotent stem cells
180
______ and _______ are cell surface receptors that mediate adhesions to ECM and neighboring cells
dystroglycan complex and integrins
181
___________ are the most pluripotent types of stem cells, but there are ethical concerns with using these types of cells
Embryonic
182
What is the role of GAGs and proteoglycans in the cell?
provide flexible mechanical support to tissues, slow diffusion of proteins and movement of cells, act as lubricant in joints, bind and sequester soluble ECM proteins
183
Name the three components of junctional complexes
Zonula occludens (ZO), zonula adherens (ZA), macula adherens (MA)
184
Name 6 major components of ECM
collagen, fibronectin, laminin, elastin/fibrillin, GAGs, proteoglycans
185
____ and _____ mutations that lead to gene amplification can cause cancer when a normal protein is made but greatly overproduced
src, myc
186
_____ and _____ are oncogenic. When mutated, can cause Bad to lose ability to inactivate death inhibitory proteins.
PDK1 and PKB
187
Chondroitin sulfate, dermatoin sulfate, keratin sulfate, and heparin sulfate are types of GAGs that do what?
attach through core and link proteins to hyaluronic acid backbone
188
The __________ are a type of mechanical junction that mediate folding of epithelial sheets in embryo
zonula adherens
189
__________ are a class of about 300 genes that have been identified that are repeatedly altered in different cancers
Cancer critical genes
190
Describe the functions of ground substance
traps & holds water, acts as a charge and size barrier, contributes to physiological properties of connective tissue, facilitates cell migration
191
In almost all CML cases, leukemic WBCs can be distinguished from normal cells by ________________ which is created by translocation between long arms of chromosomes 9 and 22
philadelphia chromosome
192
Which of the following is NOT a type of stratified epithelium?
a) squamous
b) cuboidal
c) columnar
d) transitional
e) pseudostrafied
e - pseudostratified
193
Which simple epithelia are involved in lubrication?
simple squamous and pseudostratified
194
The ectoderm leads to ________ tissue in the head region while the _______ leads to this type of tissue everywhere else
connective, mesoderm
195
Constitutive secretion occurs via the ________________ in epithelium. This membrane also involved in signal reception and transduction and generation of ion gradients.
basal lateral membrane
196
__________ is characterized by skin hyperextensibility, abnormal wound healing and hypermobility and can be caused by defects in collagen I or II
Ehlers-Danlos-Type I
197
Describe elastin and fibrillin function in ECM
thin fibers that give tissue elasticity
198
About 90% of human cancers are ________
carcinomas - digestive organs, resp system, reprod tract and breast are most common
199
All exocrine glands are derived from the _________
epithelium
200
Caspases 2,8,9,10 are ________ while 3,6,7 are _______
initiators, executioners
201
Ground substance is composed of what two things?
GAGs and proteoglycan
202
Bone marrow cells are mobilized and recovered for ___________ for applications in disease such as cancer and stroke
autologous transplantation
203
Most GAGs are complexed to core proteins forming ________
proteoglycans, exception HA
204
What type of collagen makes up the basal lamina?
IV
205
The cell cycle is also controlled by cyclin proteolysis which is _________ dependent
ubiquitin
206
_______ is found on astrocytes and provides structural support, marker for glial tumors
Glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP)
207
Activation of ____ promotes protein synthesis, partly through activation of EIF4E and S6 kinase
PI3K
208
In the reticular lamina, reticular fibers embedded in ______ link basal lamina with underlying connective tissue.
ground substance
209
In the basement membrane, the ________ is a product of epithelium and includes the glycoproteins laminin and fibronectin, GAG proteins, and type IV collagens
basal lamina
210
Describe the phenomenon of contact inhibition in cell culture
Normal cells stop proliferating once they have covered petri dish with one layer, cancer cells don't cuz THEY DONT GIVE A FUUUCK
211
_______ is the most common form of interaction in development. Signals are usually limited to time and place.
Inductive signaling
212
Describe characteristics of collagen I
Majority is lysine and proline, each alpha chain turned into L handed helix, 3 alpha chains assemble in R helix
213
_______ is a cancer drug that is a competitive inhibitor of Ras binding protein (binds to galactin which is part of signaling complex that brings Ras to GEFs like Sos)
Salirasib
214
________ cleaves and activates effector caspases and the extrinsic pathway. It also cleaves and activates Bid which activates the intrinsic pathway and later __________
caspase 8, caspase 9
215
____________ are caused by the inability to degrade GAGs
lysosomal storage diseases
216
Prostate cancer to vertebral column metastases are commonly seen. Is this osteoblastic or osteoclastic?
osteoblastic - bone formation
217
Name the four fundamental tissues
epithelium, connective tissue, muscular and nervous
218
True or False: Sensory Bcl proteins contain BH2 domain only
FALSE, BH3
219
Tumor cells can consume up to 100X more glucose than normal cells due to a shift from oxidative phosphorylation to __________ to yield more ATP
aerobic glycolysis.
220
__________ include tendons, aponeuroses, and ligaments
dense regular connective tissue
221
Flipped out _________ acts as an "eat me" signal for phagocytosis of apoptotic bodies and is restricted to inner leaflet of PM
Phosphatidylserine
222
__________ line the ducts of sweat glands and are involved in absorption and secretion
Stratified cuboidal
223
Ethical concerns are a disadvantage of embryonic stem cell usage. What is another disadvantage?
cell culture conditions to obtain differentiated cell types are not yet characterized
224
```
Name two proteins from each Bcl family class
a) regulator (inhibitor), b) effector (channel), c) sensor
```
a) Bcl2, Bcl-XL; b) Bax, Bak; c) Bad, Bim, Bid, Puma, Noxa
225
_______ bind chromosomes together in DNA coiling
condensins
226
_______ are found in spermatozoa and are the largest cell surface modifications
flagella
227
True or false: The half-life of microtubules in prophase is 20X shorter than half-life in interphase
FALSE - METAPHASE not prophase
228
_____ control regulation of cell growth and division, proliferation of cells, survival, migration, physical function of cells
growth factors
229
"Little people" aka __________ are caused by collagen defects
chondrodysplasias
230
The main driving force of cell movements during gastrulation is __________
convergent extension
231
Lynch syndrome is often associated with colon cancer. In this syndrome, whatt ype of DNA repair is defective?
mismatch
232
During anaphase A, what are the 2 major forces that separate daughter chromosomes?
Motor proteins operating at kinetochores and depolymerization of kinetochore microtubules (shortening)
233
An active cyclin-cdk complex is turned off when phosphorylated by ________. This can be reversed by ________
wee1 kinase, cdc25 phosphatase
234
What is responsible for ubiquitlyation and destruction of cyclins in S/G1 phase? M phase?
S/GI phase= SCF; M phase=AMP (anaphase promoting complex)
235
__________ is found in lymphoid cells, grows slowly, and is common in adults
chronic lymphoblastic leukemia
236
______ are found in the resp system, oviduct, uterus, ependyma and are anchored by basal bodies and move surface mucus and particulate matter via a beating rhythm
cilia
237
Ionizing radiations or XRs generally cause _________ (Types of mutations)
chromosomal breaks and translocations
238
________ are pluripotent stem cells derived from ICM of a blastocyst that can be grown indefinitely as pure stem cell population and have potential in treatment Parkinson's, Alzheimer's, DM, and spinal cord injuries
embryonic stem cells
239
The ______________ is involved in cell contact and adhesion and cell communication and contains junctional complexes
cell contact and adhesion, cell communication
240
Describe proteoglycan function in ECM
gel like slimy mucus that hydrates space between cells
241
_______ is a common tumor suppressor gene because the enzyme that is codes for _______ normally suppresses the Pi3k/Akt/mTOR pathway that is exploited by tumor cells to cause excessive glycolysis
PTEN, PTEN phosphatase
242
________ is a procedure of animal cloning in which the nuclei of an adult somatic cell is transferred to an enucleated egg
somatic cell nuclear transfer
243
In _________, some cytoplasm is pinched off with contained secretion
apocrine
244
___________ are derived from a non-pluripotent cell by inducing a forced expression of specific genes. A disadvantage of this method is that these cells have been found to be tumorigenic
induced pluripotent stem (IPS) cells
245
_____ secretions tend to be protein rich and carb poor while _______ from goblet cells tend to be carb rich and protein poor
serous, mucous
246
_____ stimulate cell division via Ras MAPK cascade which produces the gene regulatory protein _____ that sitmulates production of G1-cdk and G1/S-cdk
mitogens, myc
247
Describe pathway that leads to active M-cdk in cell cycle and thus entry into mitosis
M-cyclin levels rise and cdk associates --> phosphorylated by CAK and Wee1 (latter inhibitory --> CDC25 then dephosphorylates the inhibitory P --> active M-CDK. Active M-CDK then inhibits Wee1 and promotes dephosphorylation by CDC25.
248
"Eat me" signals for phagocytosis include thrombospondin, an adhesive glycoprotein, soluble factors and natural antibodies and proteins of complement system, notably ____
Clq
249
In xeroderma pigmentosum, what kind of DNA repair is defective?
nucleotide excision repair
250
True or false - Differentiated cells are no longer able to proliferate
FALSE, some can still proliferate (but most can't)
251
Which of these diseases is NOT caused by insufficient apoptosis? (more than one)
a) lupus
b) rheumatoid arthritis
c) cancer
d) type I diabetes
e) stroke
d+e - both caused by xs apoptosis
252
______________ are recovered from placenta and umbilical cord
allogenic stem cells
253
______ is found in skeletal, cardiac and smooth muscle and forms a framework linking myofibrils, myofilaments, and is a marker for tumors of muscle origin
Desmin
254
_______ was the first targeted cancer drug developed for CML. It is a TK inhibitor that binds to ABL1 ATP site and inhibits its hyperactive activity.
Gleevec
255
__________ is a group of inherited diseases caused by accumulation of GAGs in lysosomes
mucopolysaccharoidoses
256
What are the three issues with adult stem cell therapy?
technical problems exist with modern stem cell culture methods, stem cells have not been ID'd in certain types of adult tissues and they lack PLURIPOTENCY
257
During initiation of DNA replication, origin recognition complex (ORC) remains associated with a replication origin throughout the cell cycle. In G1, ____ protein associates with the ORC. This aids the assembly of the _____ on the adjacent DNA strand, which results in formation of the pre-replicative complex
CDC6, MCM ring
258
Interphase is made up of G1, S, and G2. G1 is the gap between ________ and G2 is the gap between _____
M--> S, S--> M
259
MAPs and catastrophins have opposite effects on microtubule polymerization. Describe the effects.
MAPs regulate stability, catastrophins cause destablization
260
_____________ are found lining the mouth, epiglottis and vagina and are involved in protection and secretion
stratified squamous nonkeratinized
261
In the basement membrane, the ________ is a product of the underlying CT and anchors plaque and fibrils with type IV and type VII collagen
reticular lamina
262
Fibrocytes, fibroblasts, adipose, mast cells, macrophages, and pencytes compose the _____________ of connective tissue
fixed (resident) cells
263
Name the three types of colon surface epithelium
absorptive epithelial cells and two types of secretory cells - goblet cells and enteroendocrine cells
264
The regulated secretory pathway occurs via the ____________ in epithelium. This membrane is also involved in regulation of nutrient/H2O uptake and protection.
apical plasma membrane
265
Defects in elastin play a causative role in _______ and cause Williams-Pseuren syndrome
aortic stenosis
266
_________ are an example of selective permeability in epithelia
Tight Junctions
267
Marfan syndrome is caused by a defect in what ECM protein?
fibrillin
268
The ________ are major producers of fibers and ground substance in connective tissue and are the most common cells in connective tissue proper
fibroblasts
269
Members of the Bcl2 family regulate the intrinsic pathway by controlling mitochondrial release of _________. Release of this molecule triggers caspase activation.
cytochrome c
270
Physiological conditions, such as tissue sculpting and shedding of endometrium in menstrual cycle, along with pathological conditions, such as Alzheimer's and DNA damage, can cause ______ of cells
apoptosis
271
A benign tumor of mesenchymal tissue (mesodermal origin) would be known as a
leiomyoma
272
_______ is the process by which tumor cell exfoliate into body cavity
seeding
273
Which of these is a type of cell that has a short life span and must be continually replaced?
a) cardiac stem cell
b) neural stem cell
c) skeletal muscle
d) lining of digestive tract
e) liver
f) all of the above
all of the above
274
During prophase, negative end associated _____ motors help separate centrosomes by pulling on two sets of astral microtubules
dyenin
275
HPV can cause cervical cancers because of rare occasion there is an accident that causes what?
the plasmid chromosome to fragment and integrate into the host causing unregulated production of viral proteins which interferes with control of cell division in the basal cell
276
When an apoptotic stimulus activates the intrinsic pathway, _______ proteins are released from mitochondria and through activated BH123 proteins, bind to and block inhibition of caspases
anti-IAP
277
During anaphase B, what are the two major forces involved? What motor proteins are involved with these forces
elongation and sliding of overlap microtubules (by cross linking of positive end motor proteins) and outward forces exerted by astral microtubules (by binding of negative end motor proteins)
278
Environmental favorability controls the _______ in the cell cycle
start transition
279
Plasma cells, lymphocytes, granulocytes and macrophages comprise the ___________ of connective tissue
free (transient) cells
280
Following injury, differentiated cells are replaced by _________
stem cells
281
S-cdk blocks re-replication during S phase by doing what?
Causes dissociation of CDC6 by phosphorylating it (leading to its ubiquitylation by TCF); phosphorylates MCM proteins that are taken outside nucleus.
Causes breakdown of pre-replicative complex.
282
Chemical carcinogens generally cause _______ mutations in a DNA sequence
point
283
Intestinal epithelium is renewed via __________, a population of cells derived from stem cells that proliferate for 3-4 divisions and then differentiate into 3 types of colon surface epithelium
transit amplifying cells
284
What is the most common unicellular exocrine gland?
Goblet cell
285
Cleavage occurs at what two parts of mitotic spindle to form four daughter cells?
between centrosomes linked by mitotic spindles, between two centrosomes that are adjacent
286
In necrosis, the nucleus _____ whereas in apoptosis the nucleus ________ into apoptotic bodies
dissolves, fragments
