Week 6 - The Self and Wellbeing Flashcards
1
Q
Which of the following correctly matches the components of the self?
A) Self-concept: Evaluative, Self-esteem: Descriptive, Social identity: Emotional
B) Self-concept: Descriptive, Self-esteem: Evaluative, Social identity: Social
C) Self-concept: Emotional, Self-esteem: Behavioral, Social identity: Cognitive
D) Self-concept: Social, Self-esteem: Cognitive, Social identity: Evaluative
A
B) Self-concept: Descriptive, Self-esteem: Evaluative, Social identity: Social
2
Q
What is self-concept about?
A) How others view you
B) How you describe yourself
C) How you judge others
D) How you react emotionally
A
B) How you describe yourself
Self-concept is the description of who you believe you are (“I am smart”, “I am caring”).
3
Q
What does self-esteem measure?
A) Your emotions
B) Your social skills
C) Your sense of self-worth
D) Your logical thinking
A
C) Your sense of self-worth
Self-esteem is evaluative, about whether you feel positive or negative about yourself
4
Q
What does social identity focus on?
A) Private self-awareness
B) How you are seen socially
C) Internal emotions only
D) Personal memories
A
B) How you are seen socially
Social identity is how others recognize and label you = public image (e.g., “friend”, “student”).
5
Q
At what stage does an infant begin to develop a sense of self?
A) When they start walking
B) When they distinguish their body from their mother’s
C) When they speak full sentences
D) During adolescence
A
B) When they distinguish their body from their mother’s
An infant’s first development of self-concept comes from realizing their body is separate from their mother’s.
6
Q
Early in life, children’s self-concept is based mainly on:
A) Their private thoughts
B) Their talents and skills
C) Their sex and age
D) Their career goals
A
C) Their sex and age
Young children first identify themselves by obvious categories like whether they are a boy or girl and how old they are.
7
Q
As children grow, self-concept expands to include:
A) Only physical traits
B) Hidden talents and public achievements
C) Talents, skills, and hidden aspects like private thoughts
D) External appearance only
A
C) Talents, skills, and hidden aspects like private thoughts
Older children develop a self-concept that includes abilities and awareness of a private inner self.
8
Q
What new ability regarding self-concept typically develops in adolescence?
A) The ability to see oneself through others’ perspectives
B) Mastery of motor skills
C) Recognizing one’s nationality
D) Understanding basic emotions
A
A) The ability to see oneself through others’ perspectives
During adolescence, perspective-taking becomes part of self-concept, meaning teens think about how others view them.
9
Q
What is a self-schemata?
A) A memory of past achievements
B) A cognitive structure about how you view yourself
C) A list of emotional experiences
D) An automatic behavior
A
B) A cognitive structure about how you view yourself
Self-schemata are organized mental frameworks about yourself, such as ideas of being athletic, shy, or a good friend.
10
Q
An example of a self-schemata is:
A) Remembering yesterday’s lunch
B) Believing that being a mother involves being nurturing and responsible
C) Knowing multiplication tables
D) Imagining a friend’s vacation
A
B) Believing that being a mother involves being nurturing and responsible
Self-schemata include concepts and traits you associate with your roles, like what it means to be a mother.
11
Q
What are possible selves?
A) Past versions of yourself
B) Friends’ perceptions of you
C) Thoughts about what you might become in the future
D) Fantasies about fictional characters
A
C) Thoughts about what you might become in the future
Possible selves represent your hopes, dreams, or fears for who you could become, and they motivate behavior.
12
Q
The “ideal self” refers to:
A) How others expect you to behave
B) What you hope to become
C) Your behavior when you are sad
D) Your memory of childhood
A
B) What you hope to become
The ideal self is your personal vision of who you most want to be.
13
Q
The “ought self” represents:
A) How you see yourself when angry
B) How you think others expect you to behave
C) Your memories of past failures
D) Your relaxed, authentic self
A
B) How you think others expect you to behave
The ought self reflects societal, family, or peer expectations placed on you
14
Q
A conflict between your ideal self and your ought self can lead to:
A) Confidence boosts
B) Emotional distress or anxiety
C) Total self-acceptance
D) Stronger social identity
A
B) Emotional distress or anxiety
When people feel they are not living up to their ideal or ought selves, it can cause feelings of guilt, shame, or anxiety.
15
Q
Which best illustrates perspective-taking in adolescence?
A) Recognizing your favorite color
B) Knowing you enjoy sports
C) Imagining how a friend might judge your actions
D) Listing your hobbies
A
C) Imagining how a friend might judge your actions
Perspective-taking means seeing yourself from someone else’s point of view, a key adolescent skill.
16
Q
Which is an example of a possible self?
A) “I am currently a student.”
B) “I hope to become a doctor someday.”
C) “I feel sad today.”
D) “I like to travel.”
A
B) “I hope to become a doctor someday.”
A possible self refers to what you might become in the future, either hoped for or feared.
17
Q
Self-schemata help people to:
A) Recognize others’ emotions easily
B) Organize and interpret self-related information
C) Improve social popularity
D) Recall only negative memories
A
B) Organize and interpret self-related information
Self-schemata are mental frameworks that shape how you perceive and process information about yourself.
18
Q
A mismatch between your ideal self and actual self most likely results in:
A) Motivation to improve
B) Emotional contentment
C) Increased self-esteem automatically
D) No emotional reaction
A
A) Motivation to improve
Discrepancies between the ideal and actual self often motivate people to set goals for self-improvement.
19
Q
Someone who believes, “I ought to be more responsible because my parents expect it,” is focusing on their:
A) Ideal self
B) Possible self
C) Ought self
D) Authentic self
A
C) Ought self
The ought self is shaped by what you believe others think you should be.
20
Q
What is social identity mainly about?
A) Private thoughts
B) Self-criticism
C) The self shown to others
D) Dreams and fantasies
A
C) The self shown to others
Social identity refers to how we present ourselves outwardly to other people.
21
Q
Which of the following is NOT typically part of social identity?
A) Gender
B) Ethnicity
C) Inner emotions
D) Language
A
C) Inner emotions
Social identity focuses on external, observable traits, not private feelings
22
Q
Social identity includes creating:
A) Emotional security
B) Private fantasies
C) Impressions and expectations for others
D) Personal coping strategies
A
C) Impressions and expectations for others
Through social identity, we show others what to expect from us.
23
Q
What does ‘continuity’ in social identity mean?
A) The self changes daily
B) You remain the same over time
C) You forget your traits easily
D) Social identity is unpredictable
A
B) You remain the same over time
Continuity means you are recognized consistently across time, like having the same gender or surname.
24
Q
Gender and ethnicity are examples of:
A) Traits we can choose
B) Aspects of social identity
C) Personal goals
D) Unconscious behaviors
A
B) Aspects of social identity
Gender and ethnicity are visible social markers included in social identity.
25
An example of continuity in identity would be:
A) Your favorite color changing
B) Having the same surname
C) Changing your hobbies weekly
D) Updating your career goals
B) Having the same surname
Stable aspects like surname or language show continuity.
26
What does 'contrast' in social identity mean?
A) Being identical to others
B) Hiding differences
C) Showing how you differ from others
D) Becoming invisible socially
C) Showing how you differ from others
Contrast means highlighting unique traits, like your eye color, music taste, or ethnicity.
27
Which example shows contrast in identity?
A) Speaking the same language as everyone else
B) Having different musical tastes than your peers
C) Sharing a surname with siblings
D) Wearing a uniform
B) Having different musical tastes than your peers
Contrast is about uniqueness and standing out.
28
How can social identity develop during life?
A) Staying isolated from groups
B) Random genetic mutation
C) Choosing group memberships like sports teams
D) Changing one's biological traits
C) Choosing group memberships like sports teams
We can actively shape our social identity by choosing affiliations.
29
A person who joins a sports team and identifies as an athlete is:
A) Losing identity
B) Demonstrating continuity
C) Shaping their social identity
D) Forgetting personal goals
C) Shaping their social identity
By joining groups, we actively build our outward identity.
30
What is an identity crisis?
A) Forgetting past memories
B) Losing your emotional control
C) Facing major changes that challenge social identity
D) Daydreaming about future roles
C) Facing major changes that challenge social identity
Events like divorce can challenge and reshape how we see ourselves socially.
31
An example of an identity crisis would be:
A) Winning a sports trophy
B) Going through a divorce and redefining yourself
C) Taking a vacation
D) Passing an exam
B) Going through a divorce and redefining yourself
Life changes can challenge your sense of who you are socially.
32
What is an identity deficit?
A) Being overconfident
B) Having too many roles
C) Lack of a stable identity, leading to indecision
D) Failing a memory test
C) Lack of a stable identity, leading to indecision
Identity deficit happens when someone struggles to make even minor decisions due to weak self-definition.
33
Which situation shows an identity deficit?
A) Deciding easily what to study
B) Being confused about career direction and life goals
C) Being confident about hobbies
D) Reaching a leadership position
B) Being confused about career direction and life goals
Without a stable identity, even small choices can seem overwhelming.
34
What is an identity conflict?
A) Agreement between all self-aspects
B) Conflict between two or more aspects of identity
C) Physical aggression toward others
D) Complete acceptance of all roles
B) Conflict between two or more aspects of identity
Identity conflict happens when roles or goals contradict each other, causing inner tension.
35
An example of identity conflict would be:
A) Preferring quiet hobbies
B) Balancing a demanding career with being a parent
C) Choosing a new favorite food
D) Joining a social club
B) Balancing a demanding career with being a parent
Conflicts occur when two important roles pull a person in different directions.
36
Trying to adapt to a new culture while maintaining your old cultural values is an example of:
A) Continuity
B) Identity deficit
C) Identity conflict
D) Identity consistency
C) Identity conflict
Assimilating into a new culture while holding onto old values creates inner conflict.
37
What is self-esteem?
A) Your behavior toward others
B) A general evaluation of your self-concept
C) A list of your skills
D) A description of your hobbies
B) A general evaluation of your self-concept
Self-esteem is about whether you evaluate yourself positively or negatively.
38
Self-esteem can:
A) Stay exactly the same forever
B) Only be measured once
C) Fluctuate over time, even in the short term
D) Be measured only by observing others
C) Fluctuate over time, even in the short term
A person’s self-esteem can rise and fall depending on daily experiences.
39
A person saying “I dislike myself” is showing:
A) High self-esteem
B) Denial of reality
C) Low self-esteem
D) Emotional stability
C) Low self-esteem
Negative self-judgments are a sign of low self-esteem.
40
A person thinking “I like myself” is showing:
A) Low self-esteem
B) Objective thinking
C) High self-esteem
D) Denial
C) High self-esteem
Positive self-evaluations reflect high self-esteem.
41
What is a common method for measuring self-esteem?
A) Brain imaging
B) Direct observation
C) Self-report questionnaires
D) IQ tests
C) Self-report questionnaires
Self-esteem is often measured through questionnaires where individuals rate themselves.
42
A limitation of self-report measures of self-esteem is that:
A) People are always accurate
B) People tend to rate themselves unrealistically positively
C) It requires expensive equipment
D) It measures only physical traits
B) People tend to rate themselves unrealistically positively
Many individuals overestimate their attractiveness, intelligence, or achievements.
43
In studies, self-esteem is often assessed by looking at:
A) Eye movements
B) Blood pressure
C) Correlations with other self-perceptions
D) Changes in height and weight
C) Correlations with other self-perceptions
Researchers look for patterns between self-esteem and how people perceive different aspects of themselves.
44
Which of the following is a characteristic of high self-esteem individuals?
A) Always thinking negatively about themselves
B) Feeling they are generally capable and worthy
C) Denying all flaws
D) Feeling superior to others all the time
B) Feeling they are generally capable and worthy
High self-esteem means having an overall positive evaluation of oneself without needing to feel superior.
45
Which of these best shows the subjectivity involved in self-esteem ratings?
A) People guessing their body weight lower than it is
B) People running faster in competitions
C) People forgetting friends' birthdays
D) People choosing new hobbies
A) People guessing their body weight lower than it is
People often view themselves in a more flattering way than is objectively true.
46
Which aspect of self-esteem can be measured through correlation?
A) Whether someone is tall or short
B) How their self-views relate to their behaviors and feelings
C) Their physical strength
D) Their motor skills
B) How their self-views relate to their behaviors and feelings
Correlational research looks at how a person's self-evaluation connects with other life factors.
47
Which behavior most likely shows high self-esteem?
A) Feeling hopeless after minor failure
B) Bouncing back quickly from a setback
C) Constantly worrying about others’ opinions
D) Avoiding all social situations
B) Bouncing back quickly from a setback
High self-esteem individuals recover faster from failures and maintain self-worth.
48
Which statement suggests low self-esteem?
A) "I believe I can solve difficult problems."
B) "I don't think I’m good enough for any success."
C) "I am proud of my progress."
D) "Mistakes help me grow."
B) "I don't think I’m good enough for any success."
Low self-esteem is reflected in negative self-views and self-doubt
49
A person who consistently overestimates their attractiveness, IQ, and skills on self-reports is demonstrating:
A) Realistic self-esteem
B) High but possibly inflated self-esteem
C) Very accurate self-perception
D) Low self-esteem
B) High but possibly inflated self-esteem
Self-report bias often results in people presenting themselves more positively than reality.
50
High self-esteem is associated with:
A) Better leadership skills
B) Taking more initiative
C) Always accurate social skills
D) Greater memory ability
B) Taking more initiative
Research shows high self-esteem individuals are more likely to step up or take action.
51
According to research, superior social skills among high self-esteem individuals:
A) Are real and objectively better
B) Are exaggerated in their own minds
C) Always lead to career success
D) Make them better friends
B) Are exaggerated in their own minds
High self-esteem people often believe they are more popular or socially skilled than they actually are.
52
Is there a leadership difference between high and low self-esteem individuals?
A) High SE individuals are always better leaders
B) Low SE individuals are better leaders
C) No difference in leadership abilities
D) Only low SE individuals want leadership roles
C) No difference in leadership abilities
Research shows no consistent link between self-esteem levels and leadership performance.
53
Defensive high self-esteem is linked to:
A) Defending others against bullying
B) Being passive in conflicts
C) More bullying and assisted bullying
D) Always being peaceful
C) More bullying and assisted bullying
People with defensive high SE are more aggressive and prone to bullying behaviors.
53
Genuine high self-esteem is linked to:
A) Starting fights
B) Defending victims of bullying
C) Avoiding all social interaction
D) Ignoring bullying
B) Defending victims of bullying
Those with genuine high self-esteem are more likely to protect others rather than attack them.
54
Low self-esteem is most often associated with:
A) Being the bully
B) Being bullied
C) Becoming very popular
D) Showing no emotional response
B) Being bullied
Low self-esteem individuals are more likely to be the victims of bullying.
55
High self-esteem with a low need for approval is linked to:
A) Less cheating
B) More cheating
C) Higher bullying rates
D) Increased aggression
A) Less cheating
High SE people who don't need approval are less likely to cheat.
56
In terms of antisocial behavior, high self-esteem combined with a high need for approval leads to:
A) Less cheating
B) More cheating
C) No difference in behavior
D) More cooperation
B) More cheating
When high SE people also crave approval, they are more likely to cheat to gain it.
57
Is self-esteem a predictor for school antisocial (SA) or conduct disorder (CD) behaviors?
A) Yes, always
B) Only in males
C) No, it is not a predictor
D) Only for extreme cases
C) No, it is not a predictor
Self-esteem alone does not predict antisocial or conduct disorder behaviors at school.
58
The relationship between happiness and self-esteem is:
A) Negative
B) Positive
C) Unrelated
D) Highly unstable
B) Positive
Higher self-esteem tends to be correlated with greater happiness.
58
High self-esteem tends to intensify:
A) Only prosocial behavior
B) Only antisocial behavior
C) Both prosocial and antisocial behavior
D) Only academic performance
C) Both prosocial and antisocial behavior
High SE acts as an amplifier — it can intensify both good and bad behaviors depending on the situation.
58
The relationship between depression and self-esteem is:
A) Positive
B) Negative
C) Random
D) Insignificant
B) Negative
Lower self-esteem is associated with higher levels of depression.
59
A student gets criticized during a presentation but calmly accepts feedback and works to improve. This shows:
A) Defensive high self-esteem
B) Low self-esteem
C) Genuine high self-esteem
D) No self-esteem influence
C) Genuine high self-esteem
Genuine high SE is shown by handling criticism without overreacting and using it to grow.
60
A person becomes very angry and insults someone after receiving mild criticism. This most likely reflects:
A) Defensive high self-esteem
B) Low self-esteem
C) Genuine high self-esteem
D) No relation to self-esteem
A) Defensive high self-esteem
Defensive high SE individuals react aggressively to protect their fragile sense of worth.
61
A teenager often feels worthless and is easily bullied by peers. This situation suggests:
A) Genuine high self-esteem
B) Defensive high self-esteem
C) Low self-esteem
D) High emotional stability
C) Low self-esteem
Low SE is associated with vulnerability to bullying and feelings of low worth.
62
After helping a bullied classmate, a student feels proud but does not brag about it. This is an example of:
A) Defensive high self-esteem
B) Low self-esteem
C) Genuine high self-esteem
D) False consensus
C) Genuine high self-esteem
Helping others and feeling good internally, without needing external praise, reflects genuine high SE.
63
A person cheats in a game because they desperately want others to admire them. This behavior is linked to:
A) Genuine high self-esteem
B) Defensive high self-esteem
C) Low self-esteem
D) Strong leadership skills
B) Defensive high self-esteem
When needing approval leads to dishonest behavior, it reflects defensive high SE.
64
According to Baumeister et al. (2003), boosting self-esteem through programs:
A) Always improves life outcomes
B) Often creates lasting emotional stability
C) Does not consistently lead to better outcomes
D) Guarantees academic success
C) Does not consistently lead to better outcomes
Research found that raising self-esteem alone doesn’t reliably cause better life results.
65
Narcissism differs from genuine high self-esteem because narcissism involves:
A) Real confidence and humility
B) Deep insecurity and a need for constant validation
C) Consistent emotional balance
D) A total lack of ambition
B) Deep insecurity and a need for constant validation
Narcissists often need ongoing praise and attention to maintain their fragile self-image.
65
Indiscriminate praise can unintentionally:
A) Lower motivation
B) Create more cooperative behavior
C) Encourage unrealistic self-views and narcissism
D) Teach critical thinking
C) Encourage unrealistic self-views and narcissism
When praise is not based on real effort or achievement, it can inflate egos unrealistically.
66
Indiscriminate praise intended to raise self-esteem might:
A) Increase true resilience
B) Lead to the development of narcissism
C) Eliminate all antisocial behaviors
D) Always make people more empathetic
B) Lead to the development of narcissism
Careless, exaggerated praise can backfire by fostering narcissistic traits instead of healthy self-esteem.
67
In the traditional view, self-esteem is considered to be:
A) An automatic behavior
B) A value component of the self-concept
C) A random emotional reaction
D) A physical trait
B) A value component of the self-concept
Self-esteem reflects how much value a person places on themselves in their self-concept.
67
A key risk of boosting self-esteem without careful guidance is:
A) Helping people become self-reflective
B) Strengthening true self-confidence
C) Promoting narcissistic traits instead of resilience
D) Improving academic focus
C) Promoting narcissistic traits instead of resilience
Boosting self-esteem without addressing real skills or effort can lead to unhealthy self-views.
68
In the glass metaphor for self-esteem, self-esteem is represented by:
A) The shape of the glass
B) The amount of water in the glass
C) The temperature of the water
D) The color of the glass
B) The amount of water in the glass
Self-esteem is symbolized by the water — more water means higher self-esteem.
69
According to the traditional view, the ultimate goal is to:
A) Empty the glass completely
B) Prevent others from seeing the glass
C) Fill the glass with more self-esteem
D) Smash the glass
C) Fill the glass with more self-esteem
The traditional view emphasizes increasing self-esteem, like adding more water to a glass.
70
Who developed Sociometer Theory in the 1990s?
A) Sigmund Freud
B) Mark Leary
C) Albert Bandura
D) Howard Gardner
B) Mark Leary
Mark Leary proposed Sociometer Theory to explain the relationship between self-esteem and social belonging.
71
According to Mark Leary, self-esteem is closely associated with:
A) Anger management
B) Anxiety regulation
C) Physical strength
D) Logical reasoning
B) Anxiety regulation
Leary noticed that low self-esteem often triggers anxiety about social rejection.
72
In Leary’s (1995) work, self-esteem serves primarily as:
A) A marker of IQ
B) A mechanism to solve adaptive social problems
C) A way to detect physical threats
D) A biological survival instinct
B) A mechanism to solve adaptive social problems
Self-esteem functions as a monitor for how well we are accepted by others.
73
According to Sociometer Theory, self-esteem:
A) Always stays the same
B) Calibrates with feedback from the environment
C) Is disconnected from social life
D) Has no relationship with external validation
B) Calibrates with feedback from the environment
Self-esteem adjusts based on signals of acceptance or rejection from others.
74
Kirkpatrick & Ellis (2001) supported the view that self-esteem is:
A) Unrelated to evolution
B) A purely emotional reaction
C) A mechanism for solving adaptive problems
D) Only about personal happiness
C) A mechanism for solving adaptive problems
They emphasized the evolutionary role of self-esteem in managing social relationships.
75
Which three evolutionary principles are linked to Sociometer Theory by Kirkpatrick & Ellis?
A) Stability, morality, impulsivity
B) Functionality, numerousness, domain specificity
C) Emotion, cognition, perception
D) Power, dominance, submission
B) Functionality, numerousness, domain specificity
They explained that self-esteem mechanisms evolved with these specific features in mind.
76
Functionality in Sociometer Theory refers to:
A) Random emotional shifts
B) The idea that psychological traits serve adaptive purposes
C) The balance of physical health
D) The accuracy of memory
B) The idea that psychological traits serve adaptive purposes
Functionality means traits like self-esteem evolved because they helped survival and social acceptance.
77
Numerousness in Sociometer Theory means that:
A) We have just one global self-view
B) We possess multiple mechanisms to solve many social problems
C) Emotions are rare in humans
D) Everyone uses exactly the same strategies
B) We possess multiple mechanisms to solve many social problems
Numerousness suggests humans evolved many specialized psychological systems, including self-esteem regulation.
78
Domain specificity in Sociometer Theory suggests that:
A) Self-esteem operates the same way in all life areas
B) Self-esteem mechanisms are generalized and random
C) Self-esteem responds to specific adaptive challenges
D) Self-esteem never changes across contexts
C) Self-esteem responds to specific adaptive challenges
Domain specificity means self-esteem shifts differently based on specific social threats (e.g., romantic rejection vs. group exclusion).
79
According to Hill & Buss (2006) and Kavanagh & Scrutton (2015), recent research on self-esteem:
A) Completely disproves Sociometer Theory
B) Shows that there are competing theories about self-esteem
C) States that self-esteem is biologically meaningless
D) Found that self-esteem is caused only by genetics
B) Shows that there are competing theories about self-esteem
Later researchers emphasized that self-esteem may have multiple causes and functions, not just social belonging.
80
According to Kirkpatrick & Ellis (2001), self-esteem responds specifically within domains such as:
A) Artistic creativity
B) Instrumental coalitions, mating, family, and group competition
C) Spiritual enlightenment
D) Personal hobbies only
B) Instrumental coalitions, mating, family, and group competition
Self-esteem adjusts depending on success or failure in key social relationships and group dynamics.
80
Hill & Buss (2006) described self-esteem as part of a:
A) Single emotional reaction
B) Cognitive map
C) Sensory mechanism
D) Random memory process
B) Cognitive map
Self-esteem is part of a cognitive map that tracks traits and abilities related to solving specific life challenges.
80
Which of the following is NOT one of the domains where self-esteem functions according to Kirkpatrick & Ellis?
A) Mating relationships
B) Family relationships
C) Environmental preservation
D) Between group competition
C) Environmental preservation
Kirkpatrick & Ellis emphasized direct social domains, not environmental activism.
80
In Hill & Buss' model, the environmental monitor:
A) Monitors pollution levels
B) Tracks sleep cycles
C) Monitors personal performance and social standing
D) Controls blood pressure
C) Monitors personal performance and social standing
The environmental monitor checks how well you’re doing compared to others around you.
81
What is the function of the updating mechanism in self-esteem regulation?
A) Preserving old self-beliefs only
B) Ignoring new feedback
C) Updating the self-concept based on new information
D) Removing emotions
C) Updating the self-concept based on new information
It helps individuals adjust their self-view if new social information (positive or negative) comes in.
82
When the updating mechanism is triggered, it can cause:
A) Only an increase in self-esteem
B) Only a decrease in self-esteem
C) No change, an increase, or a decrease
D) Immediate self-destruction
C) No change, an increase, or a decrease
Depending on the situation, your self-esteem can go up, down, or stay the same.
83
The affective evaluation function in self-esteem involves:
A) Ignoring all emotions
B) Random emotional shifts
C) Evaluating internal traits and updating based on outcomes
D) Separating emotion from social comparison
C) Evaluating internal traits and updating based on outcomes
It deals with feelings tied to how well a person perceives their internal characteristics fit their goals.
84
Affective evaluations can be based on:
A) Only permanent personality traits
B) Temporary states and stable traits
C) Dreams only
D) Blood type
B) Temporary states and stable traits
Evaluations happen both at a temporary (state) and a longer-term (trait) level.
85
The motivational function of self-esteem helps:
A) Force one single behavior
B) Freeze behavioral responses
C) Encourage flexible behavioral choices based on self-information
D) Eliminate emotions altogether
C) Encourage flexible behavioral choices based on self-information
New information about yourself motivates you to adjust your behavior to succeed.
86
The behavioral output mechanism in Hill & Buss' model is designed to:
A) Solve adaptive problems by changing behavior
B) Record daily life events
C) Prevent emotional responses
D) Control automatic body functions
A) Solve adaptive problems by changing behavior
When self-esteem mechanisms detect a threat, they motivate behavior change to solve the problem.
87
In the final Sociometer Theory summary, what are the three components of self?
A) Ego, id, and superego
B) Self-concept, self-esteem, social identity
C) Conscious, subconscious, unconscious
D) Self-perception, self-reaction, self-control
B) Self-concept, self-esteem, social identity
These three elements explain how we view, evaluate, and present ourselves socially.
88
Sociometer Theory mainly suggests that self-esteem is:
A) Random and meaningless
B) A flexible psychological tool to solve adaptive problems
C) Only a reflection of school success
D) Completely stable and unchanging
B) A flexible psychological tool to solve adaptive problems
Sociometer Theory sees self-esteem as a tool evolved to navigate social acceptance and success.
89
Sarah realizes her friends are ignoring her messages and feels concerned. Which mechanism is at work?
A) Motivational function
B) Environmental monitor
C) Behavioral output mechanism
D) Affective evaluation
B) Environmental monitor
Sarah's system is detecting social feedback from her environment.
90
After noticing poor performance at work, Tom lowers his self-confidence slightly. Which mechanism is activated?
A) Updating mechanism
B) Motivational function
C) Environmental monitor
D) Sublimation
A) Updating mechanism
Tom updates his self-concept based on new negative feedback.
91
Laura feels motivated to improve her grades after realizing her performance is below her classmates. Which mechanism is triggered?
A) Motivational function
B) Environmental monitor
C) Affective evaluation
D) Projection
A) Motivational function
New self-knowledge motivates Laura to change behavior to solve the adaptive problem.
92
After receiving lots of praise, Mike feels more proud and positive about himself. What is happening?
A) Environmental monitoring
B) Affective evaluation
C) Sublimation
D) Updating mechanism
B) Affective evaluation
Mike's internal emotional evaluation of himself improves with positive feedback.
93
Emma decides to join a new club after realizing she’s feeling isolated. Which mechanism is responsible for this change?
A) Behavioral output mechanism
B) Environmental monitor
C) Updating mechanism
D) Denial
A) Behavioral output mechanism
Emma adjusts her behavior to fix the problem and reconnect socially.
94
An emotion is best described as:
A) A general mood without cause
B) A conscious evaluative reaction to an event
C) A completely random body reaction
D) An unconscious habit
B) A conscious evaluative reaction to an event
Emotions involve evaluating something consciously and reacting.
95
Which of the following is NOT one of the three key parts of an emotion?
A) Distinct subjective feelings
B) Bodily changes
C) Action tendencies
D) Complete logical analysis
D) Complete logical analysis
Emotions involve feelings, body responses, and behaviors, not pure logic.
96
Increased heart rate during surprise represents which part of an emotion?
A) Subjective feeling
B) Bodily change
C) Action tendency
D) Logical processing
B) Bodily change
Physical reactions like heart rate increase are bodily changes linked to emotions.
97
Jumping up and gasping after a surprise refers to which component of emotion?
A) Logical conclusion
B) Action tendency
C) Subjective feeling
D) Cognitive distortion
B) Action tendency
Jumping and gasping are instinctive behaviors tied to emotional reactions.
98
A mood is best defined as:
A) A temporary emotional reaction to an event
B) A strong conscious emotional outburst
C) A feeling state not clearly linked to a specific event
D) An unconscious bodily change
C) A feeling state not clearly linked to a specific event
Moods are long-lasting emotional states without obvious causes.
99
What is "affect" in psychological terms?
A) A calculated decision
B) An automatic response that something is good or bad
C) A neutral observation
D) A memory of past events
B) An automatic response that something is good or bad
Affect is the basic emotional "good vs. bad" feeling.
100
Conscious emotion is defined as:
A) A shallow fleeting feeling
B) An automatic body reaction
C) A powerful and unified feeling state
D) An unconscious evaluation
C) A powerful and unified feeling state
Conscious emotions are strong, fully felt emotional experiences.
101
Automatic affect refers to:
A) Careful reflection on events
B) Quick reactions of liking or disliking
C) Logical argumentation
D) Planning future behavior
B) Quick reactions of liking or disliking
Automatic affect involves immediate emotional reactions (good/bad) without thinking.
102
Without any clear reason, Jason has been feeling sad all afternoon. This is an example of:
A) Mood
B) Conscious emotion
C) Automatic affect
D) Action tendency
A) Mood
A mood is a general feeling state not directly linked to a specific event.
103
Anna sees a puppy and immediately feels warm and happy without thinking. This quick emotional reaction is an example of:
A) Conscious emotion
B) Mood
C) Automatic affect
D) Logical judgment
C) Automatic affect
Automatic affect is the fast, almost reflex-like "good or bad" feeling.
104
Liam just won a major award and feels a strong, overwhelming sense of pride and joy. This would be classified as:
A) Automatic affect
B) Mood
C) Conscious emotion
D) Body change
C) Conscious emotion
Conscious emotion is a powerful, unified emotional experience tied to a specific meaningful event.
105
What is the main difference between emotional traits and emotional states?
A) Emotional traits are temporary, emotional states are permanent
B) Emotional traits are consistent patterns, emotional states are temporary and situational
C) Emotional traits are based on mood, emotional states are based on genetics
D) Emotional traits are learned behaviors, emotional states are automatic reflexes
B) Emotional traits are consistent patterns, emotional states are temporary and situational
Emotional traits are stable patterns across situations, while emotional states are short-lived and situation-dependent.
106
Which example illustrates an emotional trait?
A) Amanda is a cheerful person
B) Amanda cried after watching a sad movie
C) Amanda felt nervous before her job interview
D) Amanda was upset about the weather
A) Amanda is a cheerful person
Being cheerful shows a consistent emotional style, not a short-term feeling.
107
Emotional states are:
A) Long-term patterns of behavior
B) Inherited personality characteristics
C) Temporary reactions depending on the situation
D) Chronic emotional disorders
C) Temporary reactions depending on the situation
Emotional states are short-lived and tied to specific events or experiences.
108
Emotional traits are typically:
A) Extrinsic and short-lived
B) Intrinsic and consistent across life situations
C) Caused by external events
D) Difficult to predict and irregular
B) Intrinsic and consistent across life situations
Emotional traits are part of a person’s inner emotional nature and stay relatively constant.
109
Emotional Intelligence (EQ) refers to:
A) The ability to suppress emotions at will
B) The capacity to ignore emotional cues
C) The ability to perceive, access, generate, understand, and regulate emotions
D) The tendency to be overly emotional
C) The ability to perceive, access, generate, understand, and regulate emotions
EQ involves effectively managing both your own emotions and those of others.
110
Which test measures Emotional Intelligence (EQ)?
A) Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales
B) Mayers-Salovey-Caruso Emotional Intelligence Test (MSCEIT)
C) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory
D) Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale
B) Mayers-Salovey-Caruso Emotional Intelligence Test (MSCEIT)
MSCEIT evaluates key emotional skills like perceiving and managing emotions.
111
Which is NOT a component measured by the MSCEIT?
A) Perceiving Emotion
B) Facilitating Thought
C) Predicting Intelligence
D) Managing Emotions
C) Predicting Intelligence
MSCEIT focuses on emotional skills, not intellectual prediction.
112
Research suggests that individuals with high Emotional Intelligence:
A) Struggle more in social environments
B) Experience less success in careers
C) Are more successful in personal and professional life
D) Are more impulsive and reactive
C) Are more successful in personal and professional life
High EQ helps with leadership, relationships, and achieving career goals.
113
Which combination of personality traits is most strongly linked to higher well-being?
A) Low Extraversion, High Neuroticism
B) High Extraversion, Low Neuroticism
C) Low Extraversion, Low Neuroticism
D) High Extraversion, High Neuroticism
B) High Extraversion, Low Neuroticism
High extraversion and low neuroticism predict better well-being, stronger than demographic factors like age or ethnicity.
114
At a fun party, a person low in extraversion would most likely experience:
A) Positive affect and higher well-being
B) Negative affect and lower well-being
C) Excitement and enthusiasm
D) No emotional experience
B) Negative affect and lower well-being
Low extraverts might feel uncomfortable or drained even in fun social settings.
114
The best predictor of responsiveness to positive mood induction is:
A) Neuroticism
B) Agreeableness
C) Extraversion
D) Openness to Experience
C) Extraversion
People high in extraversion respond more strongly to positive mood stimulation.
115
According to the direct model, how does personality influence well-being?
A) By causing emotional reactions directly
B) Through building social networks
C) By encouraging physical exercise
D) By influencing educational attainment
A) By causing emotional reactions directly
In the direct model, personality itself leads to immediate emotional responses without needing lifestyle changes.
115
According to the indirect model, how does personality influence well-being?
A) Through emotional reactions only
B) By creating certain lifestyles and causing emotional reactions
C) By changing biological structures
D) Through genetic inheritance alone
B) By creating certain lifestyles and causing emotional reactions
Personality traits lead people to shape their experiences, which then affect their emotions.
116
In an indirect model example, what is a likely behavior of someone low in extraversion?
A) Attending many social events
B) Hosting large parties
C) Staying home and watching movies
D) Leading group activities
C) Staying home and watching movies
Lower extraversion often results in choosing quieter, solitary activities, which influences emotional experiences.
116
The best predictor of responsiveness to negative mood induction is:
A) Extraversion
B) Conscientiousness
C) Neuroticism
D) Agreeableness
C) Neuroticism
High neuroticism is linked to stronger reactions to negative emotional triggers.
117
118
119
According to Beck’s cognitive theory, what makes a person vulnerable to depression?
A) Biological illness
B) A pessimistic attitude acquired from others
C) Pre-existing cognitive schemas
D) Chronic stress from work
C) Pre-existing cognitive schemas
Beck believed that depression vulnerability comes from deep-seated ways of interpreting experiences.
120
Which explanatory style is associated with vulnerability to depression?
A) Optimistic
B) Pessimistic
C) Indifferent
D) Defensive
B) Pessimistic
A pessimistic explanatory style attributes negative events internally, stably, and globally.
121
In a pessimistic explanatory style, negative events are typically explained as:
A) External, unstable, specific
B) Internal, stable, global
C) External, stable, global
D) Internal, unstable, specific
B) Internal, stable, global
Individuals blame themselves, expect it to continue, and believe it affects all aspects of life.
122
Which component of Type A behavior is most strongly linked to heart disease?
A) Achievement striving
B) Competitiveness
C) Hostility
D) Impatience
C) Hostility
Research shows that hostile attitudes particularly increase the risk of cardiovascular problems.
122
Which traits are characteristic of the Type A personality?
A) Relaxed, patient, cooperative
B) Achievement striving, impatience, competitiveness, hostility
C) Creativity, openness, flexibility
D) Sensitivity, warmth, calmness
B) Achievement striving, impatience, competitiveness, hostility
Type A individuals are driven and easily angered, especially by obstacles to success.
123
In terms of the Big Five traits, Type A individuals tend to show:
A) High agreeableness, low neuroticism
B) Low agreeableness, high neuroticism
C) High openness, low conscientiousness
D) High extraversion, low openness
B) Low agreeableness, high neuroticism
Type A personalities are often suspicious and emotionally volatile, matching these Big Five patterns.
124
What are the three components of emotions?
A) Feelings, reasoning, and perception
B) Thought patterns, memory, and behavior
C) Affects, bodily changes, and action tendencies
D) Moods, thoughts, and personality traits
C) Affects, bodily changes, and action tendencies
Emotions involve subjective feelings, physiological responses, and behavioral impulses.
125
Which of the following is NOT one of the six universal emotions?
A) Happiness
B) Shame
C) Fear
D) Disgust
B) Shame
The six universal emotions are happiness, sadness, anger, surprise, disgust, and fear — not shame.
126
What mnemonic can help remember the six universal emotions?
A) BLAH OP
B) FISH SD
C) DASH SF
D) CHEER UP
C) DASH SF
DASH SF stands for Disgust, Anger, Surprise, Happiness, Sadness, and Fear.
127
The indirect model of personality and well-being suggests:
A) Personality directly causes emotional responses
B) Personality affects lifestyle choices which then influence emotions
C) Well-being shapes personality traits over time
D) Personality has no impact on well-being
B) Personality affects lifestyle choices which then influence emotions
The indirect model explains that lifestyle patterns influenced by traits contribute to emotional outcomes.
128
The direct model of personality and well-being suggests:
A) Personality influences emotion through external rewards
B) Lifestyle mediates the effect of personality
C) Personality itself causes emotional responses
D) Emotion has no relationship to personality
C) Personality itself causes emotional responses
In the direct model, personality traits influence emotional reactions immediately, without lifestyle mediation.
129
Emotions have three components. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
A) Affects
B) Bodily changes
C) Cognitive dissonance
D) Action tendencies
C) Cognitive dissonance
Emotions involve feelings, physical changes, and behavioral tendencies, not cognitive dissonance.
130
Emotional states are:
A) Long-lasting personality traits
B) Temporary reactions to situations
C) Biologically inherited
D) Permanent mood disorders
B) Temporary reactions to situations
States are short-lived and caused by external events.
131
Emotional traits are best defined as:
A) Situational feelings
B) Enduring patterns of emotional responses
C) Random mood swings
D) Single emotional episodes
B) Enduring patterns of emotional responses
Traits describe stable emotional tendencies across life situations.
132
The categorical approach to emotion suggests that emotions are:
A) Best understood through dimensions like pleasantness
B) Few and distinct primary emotions
C) Unlimited and variable
D) Created by cultural learning
B) Few and distinct primary emotions
Categorical approach focuses on basic, universal emotions.
133
The dimensional approach to emotion primarily uses:
A) Genetic studies
B) Experimental interventions
C) Factor analysis of self-ratings
D) Animal research
C) Factor analysis of self-ratings
Dimensional studies analyze self-reported emotions to find key dimensions.
134
In the dimensional model, emotions are organized mainly by:
A) Memory and intelligence
B) Pleasantness and arousal
C) Social and cultural relevance
D) Duration and frequency
B) Pleasantness and arousal
These two dimensions form the basis of emotional experience.
135
In emotional research, factor analysis is mainly used in the:
A) Categorical approach
B) Biological theory
C) Dimensional approach
D) Trait theory
C) Dimensional approach
Researchers use factor analysis to identify emotional dimensions.
136
In emotional life, 'content' refers to:
A) How emotions are experienced
B) The specific emotions experienced
C) The biological intensity of emotion
D) Physical reactions only
B) The specific emotions experienced
Content describes the types of emotions.
137
Reciprocal causality suggests:
A) Happiness causes all traits
B) Happiness and positive outcomes influence each other
C) Negative emotions dominate life
D) Personality traits are fixed
B) Happiness and positive outcomes influence each other
Causality flows in both directions.
138
'Style' of emotional life refers to:
A) The type of emotions
B) The intensity and variability of emotional experience
C) The number of emotional experiences
D) Happiness levels
B) The intensity and variability of emotional experience
Style explains how emotions are felt.
138
The hedonic component of happiness involves:
A) Ratio of positive to negative emotions over time
B) Immediate pleasure only
C) Solely work satisfaction
D) Lack of emotions
A) Ratio of positive to negative emotions over time
Hedonic balance measures emotional experience across time.
139
Which traits predict happiness according to Costa and McCrae?
A) High conscientiousness and low openness
B) High extraversion and low neuroticism
C) Low agreeableness and high openness
D) High neuroticism and low extraversion
B) High extraversion and low neuroticism
These traits are linked with greater happiness.
140
In the indirect model, personality influences happiness by:
A) Causing direct emotional reactions
B) Creating certain lifestyles
C) Regulating neurotransmitters
D) Altering memories
B) Creating certain lifestyles
Lifestyle shaped by personality leads to emotional reactions.
140
Eysenck’s biological theory attributes neuroticism to:
A) Early life trauma
B) Parenting styles
C) Limbic system reactivity
D) Social upbringing
C) Limbic system reactivity
Eysenck saw neuroticism as biological.
141
In the direct model, personality:
A) Changes after experiences
B) Causes emotional reactions directly
C) Is based only on external events
D) Fades over time
B) Causes emotional reactions directly
Direct link between trait and emotion
142
The anterior cingulate is associated with:
A) Happiness production
B) Early emotion regulation in the brain
C) Language development
D) Memory storage
B) Early emotion regulation in the brain
Important for emotional responses.
143
Beck’s cognitive triad involves negative thoughts about:
A) Work, family, religion
B) Self, world, future
C) Emotions, behavior, biology
D) Friends, hobbies, health
B) Self, world, future
Three key areas distorted in depression.
143
Cognitive theories view neuroticism as a result of:
A) Genetics
B) Styles of information processing
C) Environmental pollution
D) Physical strength
B) Styles of information processing
Neuroticism stems from cognitive biases.
144
Overgeneralization refers to:
A) Making logical conclusions
B) Broadening positive experiences
C) Drawing broad negative conclusions from one event
D) Avoiding decision-making
C) Drawing broad negative conclusions from one event
One failure seen as total failure.
145
Arbitrary inference is:
A) Careful analysis
B) Logical evaluation
C) Jumping to negative conclusions without evidence
D) Positive thinking
C) Jumping to negative conclusions without evidence
Making unsupported negative assumptions.
146
Catastrophizing means:
A) Always expecting the worst outcome
B) Being overly happy
C) Minimizing problems
D) Ignoring facts
A) Always expecting the worst outcome
Thinking disasters will happen.
147
The neurotransmitter theory of depression focuses on imbalances in:
A) Blood sugar
B) Norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine
C) Hormones only
D) Sleep patterns
B) Norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine
Chemical imbalances linked to depression.
148
Hostility is defined as:
A) Calm disagreement
B) Response to frustration with anger and aggression
C) Desire for cooperation
D) Rational decision-making
B) Response to frustration with anger and aggression
Hostility leads to antagonistic behavior.
149
Brain areas linked to aggression include:
A) Occipital and parietal lobes
B) Frontal and temporal lobes
C) Brainstem only
D) Cerebellum and amygdala
B) Frontal and temporal lobes
Damage here affects impulse control.
150
Affect intensity refers to:
A) Type of emotion
B) Strength of typical emotional experiences
C) Memory capacity
D) Amount of happiness only
B) Strength of typical emotional experiences
How strongly emotions are felt.
151
High affect intensity individuals experience emotions:
A) Mildly and gradually
B) Strongly and with high variability
C) Only rarely
D) In a delayed fashion
B) Strongly and with high variability
They feel emotions intensely and frequently.
152
Low affect intensity individuals tend to:
A) Feel frequent strong emotions
B) Remain stable and calm
C) Display erratic behaviors
D) Always feel happy
B) Remain stable and calm
Emotions are moderate and steady.
153
Affect intensity represents the:
A) Content of emotions
B) Style of emotional life
C) Purpose of life goals
D) Satisfaction level
B) Style of emotional life
Describes how emotions are experienced.
154
Hedonic balance and affect intensity are:
A) Highly correlated
B) Completely unrelated
C) Identical measures
D) Based on different neurotransmitters
B) Completely unrelated
People can be high or low on each independently.
155
The self-concept refers to:
A) How others perceive us
B) Our personal unconscious
C) Our understanding of who we are
D) Our public reputation
C) Our understanding of who we are
The self-concept answers the question "Who am I?"
156
When does the self-concept begin to develop?
A) During old age
B) In adolescence
C) In infancy
D) In early adulthood
C) In infancy
Self-knowledge begins very early in life.
157
A self-schema is:
A) A biological drive
B) A cognitive representation of the self
C) An unconscious desire
D) A social skill
B) A cognitive representation of the self
Schemas organize self-relevant knowledge.
158
Possible selves represent:
A) How we are perceived by friends
B) Our fixed self-image
C) Ideas about who we might become
D) Random daydreams
C) Ideas about who we might become
Possible selves include hopes, fears, and goals.
159
The ideal self is:
A) Who others expect us to be
B) Who we fear becoming
C) Who we personally aspire to be
D) Our public reputation
C) Who we personally aspire to be
The ideal self reflects personal goals.
160
The ought self refers to:
A) Our dream version of ourselves
B) What others want us to be
C) Our hidden feelings
D) Past versions of ourselves
B) What others want us to be
Ought self reflects external expectations.
161
Self-esteem is primarily a result of:
A) Biological inheritance
B) Evaluations of oneself
C) Genetic predisposition
D) Cognitive dissonance
B) Evaluations of oneself
Self-esteem comes from meeting or failing standards.
162
When does the first spark of self-esteem typically occur?
A) During teenage years
B) When learning social skills
C) After meeting behavioral standards like toilet training
D) When entering college
C) After meeting behavioral standards like toilet training
Mastering early tasks builds early self-esteem.
163
How do low self-esteem persons typically react to failure?
A) They are motivated to try harder
B) They give up or reduce effort
C) They ignore the failure
D) They become overly aggressive
B) They give up or reduce effort
Failure confirms their negative self-view.
163
Later in childhood, self-esteem sources shift toward:
A) Avoiding parental punishment
B) Social comparison
C) Achieving financial success
D) Physical attractiveness
B) Social comparison
Children start comparing themselves to others.
164
Self-esteem consists of:
A) Only social approval
B) Only internal self-talk
C) Multiple domains like performance, appearance, and social aspects
D) Biological instincts
C) Multiple domains like performance, appearance, and social aspects
Self-esteem is multi-dimensional.
165
High self-esteem persons react to failure by:
A) Accepting it fully
B) Seeing it as inconsistent with their self-image
C) Avoiding all further efforts
D) Seeking social isolation
B) Seeing it as inconsistent with their self-image
They tend to reject or discount negative feedback.
166
High self-esteem persons are more motivated by:
A) Fear of failure
B) Fear of success
C) Desire for success
D) Need to be accepted
C) Desire for success
They strive for achievement rather than fear failure.
167
Defensive pessimism involves:
A) Believing one will surely succeed
B) Expecting to fail as a strategy to soften failure's impact
C) Overconfidence
D) Ignoring challenges
B) Expecting to fail as a strategy to soften failure's impact
Low self-esteem people use this to protect emotions.
168
Self-handicapping is when:
A) People prepare hard for success
B) People deliberately sabotage their own performance
C) People seek professional advice
D) People overestimate their abilities
B) People deliberately sabotage their own performance
They create excuses for potential failure.
169
Self-esteem variability refers to:
A) General low self-esteem
B) Fluctuations in self-esteem over time
C) Long-term depression
D) Mood disorders
B) Fluctuations in self-esteem over time
Some people's self-esteem rises and falls frequently.
170
Which is NOT a cause of high self-esteem variability?
A) Sensitivity to social evaluation
B) Strong internal standards
C) Overreliance on social approval
D) Anger and hostility after criticism
B) Strong internal standards
Variability is linked to external dependence, not strong internal standards.
171
Social identity is:
A) How we feel internally
B) The public side we show to others
C) Only about career success
D) Unrelated to self-concept
B) The public side we show to others
Identity is the outward expression of self.
172
A key feature of social identity is:
A) Emotional instability
B) Continuity and contrast
C) Mood fluctuation
D) Cognitive dissonance
B) Continuity and contrast
Identity remains stable but distinguishes individuals.
173
Continuity in identity means:
A) Constant change
B) Others can count on consistency over time
C) Public deception
D) Becoming identical to others
B) Others can count on consistency over time
You remain recognizable across situations.
174
Identity contrast means:
A) Fitting in with everyone
B) Differentiating yourself from others
C) Following trends
D) Avoiding standing out
B) Differentiating yourself from others
Your identity sets you apart.
175
Identity crisis involves:
A) Complete loss of memory
B) Anxiety about defining or redefining oneself
C) Joy from gaining new identities
D) Avoiding self-reflection
B) Anxiety about defining or redefining oneself
Identity crises are stressful periods of self-questioning.
175
According to Erikson, achieving an identity requires:
A) Instant realization
B) Blind obedience
C) Effort and risk of role confusion
D) Following family traditions only
C) Effort and risk of role confusion
Forming identity demands work and carries risk.
176
Identity deficit occurs when:
A) A person has too many identities
B) A person struggles due to a lack of solid identity
C) A person has a happy childhood
D) Identity is shaped by genetics only
B) A person struggles due to a lack of solid identity
Without a clear identity, decision-making suffers.
177
Identity conflict involves:
A) Fear of losing old friends
B) Conflict between two important roles or goals
C) Obsession with minor problems
D) Lack of social skills
B) Conflict between two important roles or goals
Competing values create internal stress.
178
Identity conflicts are typically:
A) Avoidance–avoidance conflicts
B) Approach–approach conflicts
C) Approach–avoidance conflicts
D) No-conflict situations
B) Approach–approach conflicts
Both choices are desirable but incompatible.
178
Intense guilt or remorse often accompany:
A) Successful identity resolutions
B) Identity conflicts
C) Career changes
D) Routine decisions
B) Identity conflicts
Conflicting identities can trigger guilt.
179
A good resolution to an identity crisis involves:
A) Blindly following others’ advice
B) Ignoring emotional conflict
C) Choosing core values and acting on them
D) Avoiding all social roles
C) Choosing core values and acting on them
Values are clarified and transformed into behavior.
180
Self-complexity helps individuals:
A) Avoid emotions
B) Handle life's ups and downs better
C) Feel constant anxiety
D) Lower their self-esteem
B) Handle life's ups and downs better
More complex selves provide emotional protection.
181
People with high self-complexity:
A) Have fewer life roles
B) Have multiple, independent aspects of self
C) Are very sensitive to all criticism
D) Have unstable identities
B) Have multiple, independent aspects of self
More facets mean greater resilience.
182
What does the theory of self-monitoring primarily describe?
a. Differences in emotional intelligence and stress regulation
b. Variations in how people perceive their own physical appearance
c. Individual differences in valuing, creating, and managing social images and public appearances
d. The ability to remain consistent in behavior across all situations
c. Individual differences in valuing, creating, and managing social images and public appearances
183
According to self-monitoring theory, high self-monitors are most likely to:
a. Avoid public appearances due to fear of inauthenticity
b. Consistently act according to internal values regardless of the situation
c. Adjust their behavior to fit social expectations and impress others
d. Believe that social appearances have no real-world consequences
c. Adjust their behavior to fit social expectations and impress others
184
Low self-monitors are best described as:
a. Skilled at projecting socially desirable images
b. Focused on maintaining a consistent, authentic self across situations
c. Willing to modify their behavior to match the group
d. Likely to manipulate social situations for personal gain
b. Focused on maintaining a consistent, authentic self across situations
185
According to Gangestad & Snyder (2000), high self-monitors:
a. Consider social appearances to be inherently deceptive
b. Struggle to adapt to changing social situations
c. Take pride in their ability to shape social impressions
d. Reject the importance of others’ perceptions
c. Take pride in their ability to shape social impressions
186
The theory of self-monitoring is primarily concerned with:
a. Emotional intelligence and empathy
b. How people regulate their behavior to match social contexts
c. Moral reasoning and ethical decision-making
d. Cognitive biases in perception
b. How people regulate their behavior to match social contexts
187
Who generally makes a good actor?
a. High self-monitors
b. Low self-monitors
A) a. High self-monitors
High self-monitors are skilled at modifying their behavior and expressing emotions, which makes them well-suited to acting.
188
Who is able to create the impression they want other people to have on them?
a. High self-monitors
b. Low self-monitors
✅ Correct answer: a
Explanation: High self-monitors are very effective at managing their public image to match the situation.
189
Who is adept at communicating emotions on demand?
a. High self-monitors
b. Low self-monitors
✅ Correct answer: a
Explanation: Their adaptability allows high self-monitors to express emotions even if they don't genuinely feel them.
190
Who is good at judging the impact of their own behaviors on others?
a. High self-monitors
b. Low self-monitors
✅ Correct answer: a
Explanation: High self-monitors are highly attuned to how their actions affect others and adjust accordingly.
191
Who is more sensitive and responsive to situational cues regarding how to behave?
a. High self-monitors
b. Low self-monitors
✅ Correct answer: a
Explanation: High self-monitors closely watch social cues to guide how they present themselves in different settings.
192
Who has more “principled identity” because they act more in accordance with their inner principles?
a. High self-monitors
b. Low self-monitors
✅ Correct answer: b
Explanation: Low self-monitors value authenticity and resist adjusting their behavior to fit in.
192
Whose behavior is more a function of their own personal attributes and attitudes?
a. High self-monitors
b. Low self-monitors
✅ Correct answer: b
Explanation: Low self-monitors act based on internal beliefs rather than external social cues.
193
Whose behavior is less variable across different situations?
a. High self-monitors
b. Low self-monitors
✅ Correct answer: b
Explanation: Low self-monitors show consistency in behavior, guided by their stable self-concept.
194
Who tends to have a single undifferentiated group of friends with whom they engage in a variety of social activities?
a. High self-monitors
b. Low self-monitors
✅ Correct answer: b
Explanation: Low self-monitors prefer one consistent group of friends, reflecting their stable identity.
195
For whom is it easier to maintain a repertoire of different self-presentations for different people?
a. High self-monitors
b. Low self-monitors
✅ Correct answer: a
Explanation: High self-monitors are flexible in how they present themselves and shift depending on the audience.
195
Who tends to have more segmented social worlds with different and separate groups of friends for different social activities?
a. High self-monitors
b. Low self-monitors
✅ Correct answer: a
Explanation: High self-monitors adapt to different social environments and tend to maintain distinct friend groups.
196
Who tends to prefer relatively structured social encounters in which roles are well understood?
a. High self-monitors
b. Low self-monitors
✅ Correct answer: a
Explanation: High self-monitors thrive in structured environments where expected roles and behaviors are clearly defined.
197
Who is more impressed by physical attractiveness?
a. High self-monitors
b. Low self-monitors
✅ Correct answer: a
Explanation: High self-monitors are more attuned to surface-level social cues, including physical appearance.
198
In the workplace, who prefers positions that allow expression of one’s own personality?
a. High self-monitors
b. Low self-monitors
✅ Correct answer: b
Explanation: Low self-monitors prefer authentic self-expression and are less interested in roles requiring social adaptation.
198
Of those in an exclusive dating relationship, who is more likely to have been dating longer on average?
a. High self-monitors
b. Low self-monitors
✅ Correct answer: b
Explanation: Low self-monitors tend to form deeper, longer-lasting romantic connections.
199
Of those not in an exclusive dating relationship, who is more likely to have dated more people on average?
a. High self-monitors
b. Low self-monitors
✅ Correct answer: a
Explanation: High self-monitors are more socially exploratory and tend to date more people.
200
Who is more likely to report wanting to date a higher number of their friends rather than their current partner?
a. High self-monitors
b. Low self-monitors
✅ Correct answer: a
Explanation: High self-monitors are more influenced by appearance and social variety, which can reflect in broader romantic interest among their social circles.
201
Who is more likely to stay committed and value long-term relationships?
a. High self-monitors
b. Low self-monitors
✅ Correct answer: b
Explanation: Low self-monitors value consistency and emotional depth in relationships.
201
According to Snyder & Simpson (1984), who is more likely to report wanting to date their friends rather than their current romantic partner?
a. High self-monitors
b. Low self-monitors
✅ Correct answer: a
Explanation: High self-monitors are more open to new social opportunities and influenced by appearance and variety
202
Which of the following is typically a strength of high self-monitors?
a. Stubbornness
b. Adaptability
c. Inflexibility
d. Integrity
✅ Correct answer: b
Explanation: High self-monitors are praised for being adaptable and able to fit into various social settings.
202
Which of the following is a common criticism of high self-monitors?
a. Too principled
b. Inconsistent behavior
c. Social awkwardness
d. Lack of confidence
✅ Correct answer: b
Explanation: High self-monitors may be seen as wishy-washy or two-faced due to changing behavior across situations.
203
Which trait best describes low self-monitors?
a. Emotionally reactive
b. Consistent and honest
c. Popular and flexible
d. Performance-driven
✅ Correct answer: b
Explanation: Low self-monitors value authenticity and remain true to themselves across contexts.
204
Which of the following is a weakness commonly associated with low self-monitors?
a. Being socially manipulative
b. Being too responsive to others’ opinions
c. Being insensitive and stubborn
d. Being overly flexible in group settings
✅ Correct answer: c
Explanation: Low self-monitors may come off as rigid or unwilling to adapt in dynamic social environments.
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