Week 8 - Personality Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

What is the root meaning of the term “abnormal”?
a. Natural and common
b. Away from normal
c. Emotionally unstable
d. Medically treatable

A

B) Away from normal

Explanation: “Abnormal” comes from Latin ab (away) and normalis (rule), meaning “away from the norm.”

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2
Q

Which of the following models defines abnormality as a deviation from the average behavior?
a. Medical model
b. Cognitive model
c. Statistical model
d. Humanistic model

A

c. Statistical model

This model labels behaviors as abnormal when they are statistically rare in the population.

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3
Q

Which model views abnormal behavior as a result of physical illness or brain dysfunction?
a. Medical model
b. Psychodynamic model
c. Impairment model
d. Social model

A

a. Medical model

It sees mental disorders like physical diseases, treatable through medical means.

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4
Q

In which model does abnormality depend on cultural or societal expectations?
a. Impairment model
b. Humanistic model
c. Culture/Society model
d. Statistical model

A

c. Culture/Society model

Cultural norms shape what is considered acceptable or abnormal behavior.

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5
Q

Which of the following models emphasizes unconscious conflicts and early experiences as causes of abnormality?
a. Behavioural model
b. Medical model
c. Cognitive model
d. Psychodynamic model

A

d. Psychodynamic model

This model, rooted in Freudian theory, explains abnormality through internal psychological conflicts.

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6
Q

Which model defines abnormality based on a person’s inability to function effectively in daily life?
a. Behavioural model
b. Impairment model
c. Cultural model
d. Psychodynamic model

A

b. Impairment model

It focuses on whether the behavior causes distress or impairs day-to-day functioning

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7
Q

According to the DSM-5, personality disorders typically begin:
A) In childhood
B) In adolescence or early adulthood
C) After a traumatic event in midlife
D) Only in response to environmental stressors

A

B) In adolescence or early adulthood

The DSM-5 specifies that personality disorders usually become evident in adolescence or early adulthood.

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8
Q

According to the DSM-5, a personality disorder involves a pattern of inner experience and behavior that:
A) Begins in late adulthood and is short-term
B) Is flexible and situational
C) Deviates markedly from cultural expectations
D) Resolves quickly with therapy

A

C) Deviates markedly from cultural expectations

Personality disorders reflect behaviors and thoughts that are significantly different from what is culturally considered normal.

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9
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of personality disorders as defined by the DSM-5?
A) Stable over time
B) Pervasive and inflexible
C) Always linked to brain damage
D) Cause distress or impairment

A

C) Always linked to brain damage

While some biological factors may contribute, personality disorders are not necessarily caused by brain damage.

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10
Q

What does the DSM-5 say about the long-term pattern of behavior in personality disorders?
A) It is short-term and easily changed
B) It fluctuates dramatically over days
C) It is stable over time
D) It disappears with age

A

C) It is stable over time

Personality disorders are enduring and consistent across time and situations.

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11
Q

What consequence is typically associated with a personality disorder according to the DSM-5?
A) Increased intelligence
B) Enhanced coping skills
C) Distress or impairment
D) Short-term memory loss

A

C) Distress or impairment

One of the defining features is that the pattern leads to personal distress or functional impairment.

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12
Q

What does the categorical model of personality assume?
A) Personality traits exist on a fluid spectrum
B) Personalities are shaped only by early childhood
C) Personalities can be grouped into distinct types
D) Traits cannot be studied scientifically

A

C) Personalities can be grouped into distinct types

The categorical model treats personality disorders as clear-cut types with distinct boundaries between normal and abnormal.

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13
Q

Which model views personality characteristics as existing on a continuum?
A) Categorical model
B) Behavioural model
C) Trait model
D) Dimensional model

A

D) Dimensional model

The dimensional model suggests personality traits vary in degree and exist along a spectrum rather than as categories.

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14
Q

Which of the following is most associated with dimensional models of personality?
A) Diagnosis based on symptom clusters
B) Sudden onset and remission
C) Factor models such as the Big Five
D) Specific personality “types”

A

C) Factor models such as the Big Five

Factor models break down personality into dimensions (like the Big Five), aligning with the dimensional model approach.

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15
Q

What is one key limitation of the categorical model in understanding personality?
A) It allows too much overlap between traits
B) It focuses only on genetic causes
C) It ignores cultural factors completely
D) It assumes sharp boundaries between disorders and normal traits

A

D) It assumes sharp boundaries between disorders and normal traits

Categorical models don’t account well for the gray areas or overlap between normal and disordered personality traits.

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16
Q

What is a core assumption of the categorical model used in the DSM?
A) Personality traits are fluid and constantly changing
B) Personality exists on a continuous scale without boundaries
C) Personality types are distinct and separate from normal traits
D) All traits are equally distributed across the population

A

C) Personality types are distinct and separate from normal traits

The categorical model assumes clear-cut boundaries between different disorders and between normal and disordered personality.

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17
Q

Which of the following personality disorders is considered a “type” in the DSM’s categorical model?
A) Optimistic personality
B) Narcissistic personality disorder
C) Emotionally intelligent personality
D) Creative personality disorder

A

B) Narcissistic personality disorder

Narcissistic personality disorder is one of the types formally recognized in the DSM’s categorical framework.

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18
Q

Which of the following disorders is also classified under the categorical model in the DSM?
A) Growth-oriented personality
B) Avoidant personality disorder
C) High openness trait
D) Secure attachment style

A

B) Avoidant personality disorder

Avoidant personality disorder is a diagnosable type under the DSM’s categorical approach.

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19
Q

According to the categorical model, where is the boundary between normality and pathology?
A) There is no boundary; all traits are normal
B) The boundary is continuous and overlapping
C) The boundary is clear and discrete
D) The boundary depends entirely on genetics

A

C) The boundary is clear and discrete

The model treats personality disorders as separate from normal personality, with identifiable diagnostic criteria.

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20
Q

What is one criticism of the categorical model in personality diagnosis?
A) It focuses too much on individual variation
B) It is too flexible in classification
C) It oversimplifies by forcing complex traits into fixed types
D) It encourages cultural diversity in diagnoses

A

C) It oversimplifies by forcing complex traits into fixed types

Critics argue that the categorical model doesn’t account for the spectrum or overlap of personality features.

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21
Q

What is the main idea behind dimensional models of personality?
A) People can only be diagnosed with one personality type
B) Personality traits are present in either abnormal or normal forms only
C) Traits exist along a continuum, varying in degree across individuals
D) Disorders are caused exclusively by environmental trauma

A

C) Traits exist along a continuum, varying in degree across individuals

Dimensional models view traits as varying in intensity rather than being strictly present or absent.

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22
Q

In a dimensional model, how is a trait like extraversion typically measured?
A) As either fully present or absent
B) Through biological testing only
C) On a numerical scale showing low to high levels
D) Only in terms of pathological behavior

A

C) On a numerical scale showing low to high levels

Traits are assessed quantitatively, allowing for degrees of expression.

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23
Q

Which of the following models is most consistent with a dimensional approach to personality?
A) DSM categorical model
B) Classical typology model
C) Factor models such as the Big Five
D) Freudian psychosexual theory

A

C) Factor models such as the Big Five

Factor models like the Big Five assess traits (e.g., extraversion, openness) on a scale, fitting the dimensional view.

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24
Q

Which of the following is a key benefit of dimensional models over categorical ones?
A) They make diagnosis faster and simpler
B) They eliminate the need for clinical interviews
C) They capture variation in personality more accurately
D) They ignore cultural context

A

C) They capture variation in personality more accurately

Dimensional models are more sensitive to individual differences in personality traits.

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25
In the Big Five model, which of the following is not one of the five core dimensions? A) Neuroticism B) Extraversion C) Intelligence D) Conscientiousness
C) Intelligence The Big Five includes Openness, Conscientiousness, Extraversion, Agreeableness, and Neuroticism—not intelligence.
26
Which model views personality traits as existing on a spectrum rather than in fixed types? A) Categorical model B) Psychodynamic model C) Medical model D) Dimensional model
D) Dimensional model The dimensional model sees traits as varying in degree across individuals, not fitting into rigid types.
27
Which model is currently used by the DSM to diagnose personality disorders? A) Trait model B) Humanistic model C) Categorical model D) Dimensional model
C) Categorical model The DSM-5 primarily uses a categorical model, diagnosing disorders based on distinct criteria sets.
28
Which of the following is a limitation of the categorical model? A) It is too flexible in diagnosing traits B) It cannot describe stable patterns of behavior C) It lacks clear boundaries between disorders and normality D) It oversimplifies complex personality differences into rigid types
D) It oversimplifies complex personality differences into rigid types Critics argue that forcing personality into fixed categories ignores individual variability.
29
Which of the following best describes the relationship between dimensional and factor models? A) They are unrelated theoretical approaches B) Factor models are categorical in nature C) Factor models support dimensional measurement of personality traits D) Factor models are only used in childhood assessments
C) Factor models support dimensional measurement of personality traits Factor models like the Big Five describe traits as continuous dimensions, aligning with the dimensional approach.
30
Which model allows for the measurement of personality traits in terms of severity or intensity? A) Categorical model B) Dimensional model C) Cultural model D) Diagnostic model
B) Dimensional model Dimensional models assess how much of a trait a person has, rather than if they simply "have it" or not.
31
Which of the following theorists is most associated with the psychodynamic approach? A) Carl Rogers B) B.F. Skinner C) Carl Jung D) Albert Bandura
C) Carl Jung Jung, a student of Freud, expanded psychodynamic theory with concepts like the collective unconscious.
32
Which theoretical perspective emphasizes unconscious conflict and early childhood experiences? A) Humanistic B) Psychodynamic C) Behavioural D) Biological
B) Psychodynamic The psychodynamic approach, developed by Freud and others, focuses on unconscious drives and early life conflict.
33
Which theory is most focused on learned behaviors through conditioning processes? A) Cognitive B) Humanistic C) Behavioural D) Psychodynamic
C) Behavioural Behavioural theory explains personality through learned associations and reinforcements.
34
Which theorist is best known for operant conditioning, a core concept in behavioral theory? A) Maslow B) Skinner C) Horney D) Kelly
B) Skinner B.F. Skinner developed the theory of operant conditioning, which emphasizes reinforcement and punishment.
35
Which theoretical perspective emphasizes self-actualization and unconditional positive regard? A) Biological B) Cognitive C) Humanistic D) Psychodynamic
C) Humanistic Humanistic theory, especially through Rogers and Maslow, focuses on growth, fulfillment, and positive self-concept.
36
Who proposed the hierarchy of needs, with self-actualization at the top? A) Watson B) Maslow C) Eysenck D) Rotter
B) Maslow Maslow's model outlines how individuals progress toward self-actualization through a hierarchy of needs.
37
The cognitive perspective focuses primarily on: A) Repressed memories B) Reinforcement schedules C) Attribution styles and mental schemas D) Evolutionary fitness
C) Attribution styles and mental schemas Cognitive theorists examine how individuals think about themselves and interpret the world.
38
Which of the following theorists is most associated with social-cognitive theory and self-efficacy? A) Freud B) Skinner C) Bandura D) Alder
C) Bandura Albert Bandura emphasized the role of observational learning and belief in one’s ability (self-efficacy).
39
Which perspective explains personality in terms of brain structure, heredity, and evolution? A) Psychodynamic B) Behavioural C) Cognitive D) Biological
D) Biological The biological perspective looks at how genetics, neuroanatomy, and evolution shape personality traits.
40
Which theorist is known for linking biological traits like extraversion to brain arousal levels? A) Rogers B) Cloninger C) Eysenck D) Adler
C) Eysenck Eysenck proposed that biological differences in arousal contribute to major personality traits like extraversion and neuroticism.
41
How are personality disorders typically categorized in the DSM system? A) Through brain imaging and lab tests B) As traits on a fluid continuum C) As discrete diagnostic categories D) Using case studies only
C) As discrete diagnostic categories The DSM follows a categorical model, treating disorders as distinct from normal personality functioning.
42
What is one major limitation of the DSM classification system? A) It provides biological explanations for all disorders B) It uses long-term observation more than symptom checklists C) It is purely descriptive and does not explain or predict D) It ignores patient self-reporting entirely
C) It is purely descriptive and does not explain or predict The DSM is largely descriptive, focusing on symptom lists without explaining underlying causes or predicting outcomes.
43
What is a key criticism of the DSM’s reliance on self-report? A) It lacks scientific terminology B) It ignores all subjective experience C) It relies too much on long-term observational data D) It depends heavily on subjective responses without external validation
D) It depends heavily on subjective responses without external validation Critics argue that too much reliance on self-report can reduce diagnostic reliability and objectivity.
44
In the dimensional model, how are personality disorders conceptualized? A) As genetic abnormalities only B) As fixed disease states C) As points along a continuum D) As temporary behavior patterns
C) As points along a continuum Dimensional models see personality disorders as extreme positions on trait continuums rather than separate categories.
45
Which of the following is an advantage of using a dimensional model over a categorical one? A) Easier communication of diagnoses B) More rigid classification rules C) Recognition of individual differences and complexity D) Simplified assessment process
C) Recognition of individual differences and complexity Dimensional models better capture the variation and overlap seen in personality traits across individuals.
46
Why do clinicians often prefer categorical diagnoses, even when using dimensional data? A) They are more accurate for research B) They align with modern personality theory C) They are simpler to communicate and document D) They require no clinical training
C) They are simpler to communicate and document Categorical diagnoses are often preferred in practice because they are easier to explain to patients, insurers, and other clinicians.
47
What is one practical challenge of using a dimensional model in clinical settings? A) It eliminates the need for assessment tools B) It ignores variability in traits C) It is difficult to summarize and communicate dimensional data D) It discourages the use of self-report
C) It is difficult to summarize and communicate dimensional data Because dimensional data exists on a continuum, it can be harder to translate into clear clinical decisions.
48
What is a primary criticism of the DSM's categorical model for diagnosing personality disorders? A) It accounts too much for cultural diversity B) It explains the causes of disorders clearly C) It creates rigid boundaries that may not reflect real personality variation D) It is based on dimensional personality traits
C) It creates rigid boundaries that may not reflect real personality variation Categorical models divide disorders into distinct types, which may not represent the true complexity of personality.
49
What is one major advantage of the dimensional model of personality disorders? A) It eliminates the need for clinical judgment B) It simplifies diagnosis by avoiding trait measurement C) It captures individual differences and variation more accurately D) It replaces the need for any structured assessment
C) It captures individual differences and variation more accurately Dimensional models allow for a more nuanced understanding of traits across a spectrum.
50
Why can dimensional models be difficult to use in clinical settings? A) They use outdated terminology B) They are only relevant to physical illnesses C) They make it harder to communicate diagnoses clearly D) They ignore personality structure entirely
C) They make it harder to communicate diagnoses clearly Translating dimensional scores into clinical decisions can be challenging compared to categorical labels.
51
Which personality disorder involves a pattern of distrust and suspicion toward others, interpreting their motives as harmful? A) Schizoid B) Borderline C) Paranoid D) Antisocial
C) Paranoid Paranoid Personality Disorder is characterized by persistent distrust and unfounded suspicion of others’ intentions.
52
Which disorder is marked by detachment from social relationships and limited emotional expression? A) Schizoid B) Schizotypal C) Borderline D) Narcissistic
A) Schizoid Schizoid Personality Disorder involves emotional coldness and a lack of interest in forming close relationships.
53
Which disorder includes discomfort with close relationships and cognitive or perceptual distortions? A) Schizoid B) Paranoid C) Borderline D) Schizotypal
D) Schizotypal Schizotypal Personality Disorder features eccentric behavior, odd beliefs, and unusual perceptions.
54
What distinguishes Schizotypal Personality Disorder from Schizoid? A) A history of aggressive behavior B) Deep sadness and fear of abandonment C) Cognitive distortions and eccentric behavior D) A strong need for admiration
C) Cognitive distortions and eccentric behavior Schizotypal includes odd beliefs, magical thinking, and unusual perceptions, unlike the more emotionally flat schizoid type.
55
Which disorder is characterized by a disregard for the rights of others and violation of social norms? A) Narcissistic B) Borderline C) Histrionic D) Antisocial
D) Antisocial Antisocial Personality Disorder involves a consistent pattern of violating others' rights, deceitfulness, and lack of remorse.
56
Which disorder involves intense fear of abandonment, unstable relationships, and impulsive behavior? A) Borderline B) Paranoid C) Schizotypal D) Avoidant
A) Borderline Borderline Personality Disorder includes emotional instability, identity disturbance, and chronic feelings of emptiness.
57
Which disorder includes excessive emotionality and attention-seeking behavior? A) Narcissistic B) Histrionic C) Schizoid D) Obsessive-Compulsive
B) Histrionic Histrionic Personality Disorder is marked by dramatic, theatrical behavior and a strong need to be the center of attention.
58
Which disorder features grandiosity, a need for admiration, and a lack of empathy? A) Antisocial B) Narcissistic C) Schizotypal D) Dependent
B) Narcissistic Narcissistic Personality Disorder involves inflated self-importance and a lack of concern for others’ feelings.
59
Which disorder is characterized by social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to criticism? A) Dependent B) Avoidant C) Schizoid D) Borderline
B) Avoidant Avoidant Personality Disorder includes fear of rejection and avoidance of social situations despite a desire for connection.
60
Which disorder involves a pervasive and excessive need to be taken care of, leading to submissive behavior? A) Histrionic B) Schizotypal C) Dependent D) Narcissistic
C) Dependent Dependent Personality Disorder is defined by reliance on others for decision-making and fear of separation.
61
Which disorder is marked by preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and control? A) Obsessive-Compulsive B) Paranoid C) Borderline D) Schizoid
A) Obsessive-Compulsive Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder (OCPD) involves rigid perfectionism, control, and over-attention to rules.
62
Which cluster of personality disorders is often described as “odd or eccentric”? A) Cluster A B) Cluster B C) Cluster C D) Cluster D
A) Cluster A Cluster A includes Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal Personality Disorders and is characterized by odd thinking or behavior.
63
Antisocial, Borderline, Histrionic, and Narcissistic disorders fall under which DSM-5 cluster? A) Cluster A B) Cluster B C) Cluster C D) Cluster D
B) Cluster B Cluster B disorders are dramatic, emotional, or erratic in nature, often involving impulse control and interpersonal issues.
64
Which of the following clusters is often described with the term “sad” due to anxiety-driven features? A) Cluster A B) Cluster B C) Cluster C D) Cluster D
C) Cluster C Cluster C includes Avoidant, Dependent, and Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorders, all marked by fearfulness and anxiety.
65
Which personality disorder is part of Cluster A? A) Histrionic B) Avoidant C) Schizoid D) Dependent
C) Schizoid Schizoid Personality Disorder is part of Cluster A and involves emotional detachment and limited social interaction.
66
Which of the following is NOT part of Cluster B? A) Antisocial B) Borderline C) Narcissistic D) Obsessive-Compulsive
D) Obsessive-Compulsive Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder belongs to Cluster C, not Cluster B.
67
Cluster A – “MAD” – Odd or Eccentric Paranoid Schizoid Schizotypal 📌 Think: "Paranoid Schizo types seem MAD or odd."
68
Cluster C – “SAD” – Anxious or Fearful Avoidant Dependent Obsessive-Compulsive 📌 Think: “Anxious people often feel SAD, withdrawn, or overly worried.”
68
Cluster B – “BAD” – Dramatic, Emotional, Erratic Antisocial Borderline Histrionic Narcissistic 📌 Think: “People who act out dramatically or break rules can be seen as BAD.”
69
According to DSM-5, a personality disorder must show deviation in at least two of which functional areas? A) Diet, sleep, and academic performance B) Language, motor coordination, and reflexes C) Cognition, affectivity, interpersonal functioning, impulse control D) Memory, speech, and concentration
C) Cognition, affectivity, interpersonal functioning, impulse control DSM-5 specifies that personality disorders involve problems in at least two of these four areas.
69
For a personality disorder diagnosis, when must the onset of the pattern be identifiable? A) Only after a traumatic event B) In childhood C) During a psychotic episode D) In adolescence or early adulthood
D) In adolescence or early adulthood DSM-5 requires that the behavior pattern be traceable to at least adolescence or early adulthood.
70
A personality disorder cannot be diagnosed if the pattern is better explained by which of the following? A) A family trait B) Cultural norms C) Another mental disorder or medical condition D) A recent breakup
C) Another mental disorder or medical condition DSM-5 rules out personality disorder diagnoses if the behavior can be better explained by another clinical condition or substance.
70
What does it mean that the pattern is "pervasive"? A) It only occurs in specific high-stress situations B) It affects multiple areas of life and relationships C) It is easy to hide from others D) It comes and goes with seasonal changes
B) It affects multiple areas of life and relationships Pervasiveness means the pattern appears across a broad range of social and personal contexts.
70
Common Pitfall to Avoid Not distinguishing PDs from situational behavior or reactions Personality disorders are trait-based, not just temporary state-based reactions (like someone being irritable for a week after stress)
70
The enduring pattern must lead to which of the following outcomes? A) Increased creativity B) Clinically significant distress or impairment C) Improved social relationships D) Temporary social withdrawal
B) Clinically significant distress or impairment A diagnosis requires that the pattern causes real problems in functioning or well-being.
70
A person must experience distress or impairment for a personality disorder to be diagnosed. True/False
True There must be clinically significant distress or functional impairment in social, occupational, or other areas.
71
The pattern of behavior in a personality disorder must be inflexible and pervasive across different contexts. True/False
True The behavior must occur across a broad range of personal and social situations—not limited to specific settings.
71
A personality disorder can be diagnosed even if the individual shows problems in only one functional area. True/False
False The DSM-5 requires impairment in at least two of the following: cognition, affectivity, interpersonal functioning, or impulse control.
71
A diagnosis of personality disorder can be made during a short-term crisis if the symptoms are severe. True/False
False The pattern must be stable and long-lasting, traceable to adolescence or early adulthood—not just a temporary response to stress.
71
If symptoms are caused by drug use or a medical condition, they cannot be diagnosed as a personality disorder. True/False
True The DSM-5 states the pattern must not be due to substances or medical conditions.
71
Borderline Personality Disorder is part of Cluster C. True/False
False Borderline belongs to Cluster B, which includes dramatic and emotional disorders
71
The dimensional model of personality disorders recognizes traits along a continuum rather than as distinct categories. True/False
True Dimensional models see personality traits as varying in degree, not strictly present or absent.
71
In the psychodynamic perspective, unconscious conflict plays a central role in personality development and disorders. True/False
True Psychodynamic theory emphasizes unconscious forces and early experiences in shaping personality.
71
The DSM-5 uses a purely dimensional approach for diagnosing all personality disorders. True/False
False The DSM-5 still uses a categorical model for official diagnoses, though it acknowledges dimensional traits.
71
Avoidant, Dependent, and Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorders are considered “anxious or fearful” and belong to Cluster C. True/False
True Cluster C includes these three disorders and is marked by anxiety-driven traits.
71
What is the core feature of Paranoid Personality Disorder? A) Emotional detachment B) Unstable self-image C) Persistent distrust and suspiciousness D) Need for admiration
C) Persistent distrust and suspiciousness PPD is defined by interpreting others' motives as malevolent, even without sufficient reason.
71
Which of the following is NOT a diagnostic criterion for Schizoid Personality Disorder? A) Shows emotional coldness and detachment B) Is reluctant to confide in others due to fear of betrayal C) Almost always chooses solitary activities D) Lacks close friends other than first-degree relatives
B) Is reluctant to confide in others due to fear of betrayal This is characteristic of Paranoid Personality Disorder, not Schizoid.
71
Which of the following best describes the intrapsychic experience of someone with Paranoid Personality Disorder? A) Chronic boredom B) Overwhelming fear C) Need for approval D) Emotional numbness
B) Overwhelming fear Internally, individuals with PPD often experience intense fear of harm or betrayal.
71
According to the DSM-5, how many of the listed symptoms must be present for a diagnosis of PPD? A) Two or more B) Three or more C) Four or more D) Five or more
C) Four or more The DSM-5 requires four or more characteristic features, such as unjustified suspicions and reluctance to confide.
72
Which of the following is not part of the diagnostic criteria for Paranoid Personality Disorder? A) Frequent lies and manipulation B) Reads hidden, threatening meanings into benign comments C) Bears long-standing grudges D) Suspects, without justification, that others are deceiving them
A) Frequent lies and manipulation Lying and manipulation are more typical of Antisocial Personality Disorder, not PPD.
72
People with Paranoid Personality Disorder tend to be hypersensitive to criticism. A) True B) False
A) True They often over-interpret feedback or neutral comments as attacks and react defensively.
72
Paranoid Personality Disorder can be diagnosed during a psychotic episode of schizophrenia. A) True B) False
B) False PPD cannot be diagnosed if the suspiciousness occurs exclusively during another psychotic disorder like schizophrenia.
72
People with Schizoid Personality Disorder tend to avoid close relationships, including with family members. A) True B) False
A) True They typically have little to no desire for close interpersonal connections, even with family.
72
Vigilance and hostility are common behavioral and interpersonal traits in Paranoid Personality Disorder. A) True B) False
A) True They frequently behave in a guarded, defensive, or confrontational way due to chronic suspicion.
72
People with PPD typically trust close friends but are suspicious of strangers. A) True B) False
B) False They may mistrust even close friends or partners, often without justification, fearing betrayal or harm.
72
Which of the following is most characteristic of Schizotypal Personality Disorder? A) Strong need for attention and admiration B) Over-controlled behavior and perfectionism C) Eccentric behavior and peculiar speech D) Cold, calculated manipulation
C) Eccentric behavior and peculiar speech People with STPD often speak in an over-elaborate or vague way and dress or behave oddly.
72
What is the core interpersonal feature of Schizoid Personality Disorder? A) Suspicion and hostility toward others B) Intense emotional expression in relationships C) Detachment from social relationships D) Manipulative and attention-seeking behavior
C) Detachment from social relationships SPD is marked by avoidance of close relationships and a preference for being alone.
72
Which of the following is most likely true of a person with Schizoid Personality Disorder? A) They actively seek emotional intimacy B) They are uncomfortable with solitude C) They find emotional expression difficult or unnecessary D) They display highly expressive body language
C) They find emotional expression difficult or unnecessary Individuals with SPD show emotional flatness and limited expression, often seeming indifferent.
72
According to DSM-5, how many symptoms are required for a diagnosis of Schizoid Personality Disorder? A) Two or more B) Three or more C) Four or more D) Five or more
C) Four or more The diagnosis requires four or more symptoms such as lack of interest in relationships and flattened affect.
72
Which of the following best describes the typical behavior of someone with Schizoid Personality Disorder? A) Lively, dramatic, and attention-seeking B) Apathetic, withdrawn, and emotionally indifferent C) Erratic and manipulative D) Dependent and clingy
B) Apathetic, withdrawn, and emotionally indifferent They often appear lethargic and unmotivated, and prefer distance in relationships.
72
Individuals with Schizoid Personality Disorder show a high level of emotional reactivity. A) True B) False
B) False They often exhibit flattened affect and seem emotionally disengaged.
72
A person avoids social relationships, shows minimal emotional expression, and appears indifferent to praise or criticism. Which diagnosis is most likely? A) Schizotypal PD B) Borderline PD C) Schizoid PD D) Paranoid PD
C) Schizoid PD These traits—emotional detachment, social isolation, and indifference—are key features of Schizoid PD.
72
Schizoid Personality Disorder can be diagnosed during the course of schizophrenia or autism spectrum disorder. A) True B) False
B) False DSM-5 specifies that SPD cannot be diagnosed if symptoms occur exclusively within schizophrenia or autism.
72
What is the hallmark intrapsychic experience in Schizotypal Personality Disorder? A) Emotional emptiness B) Grandiosity and entitlement C) Odd beliefs and unusual perceptions D) Hyper-empathy and emotional overwhelm
C) Odd beliefs and unusual perceptions STPD includes magical thinking, ideas of reference, and perceptual distortions below the threshold of psychosis.
72
hich of the following is not typically found in Schizotypal PD? A) Recurrent suspicion of others' motives B) Flattened emotional expression C) Odd or magical thinking D) Strong and stable social connections
D) Strong and stable social connections Individuals with STPD typically have very few, if any, close relationships due to social discomfort and suspicion.
72
How many symptoms are required by DSM-5 for a diagnosis of Schizotypal Personality Disorder? A) Three or more B) Four or more C) Five or more D) Six or more
C) Five or more DSM-5 requires five or more features, including ideas of reference, odd beliefs, unusual perceptions, and social anxiety.
72
What type of social anxiety is most associated with Schizotypal Personality Disorder? A) Anxiety due to fear of embarrassment or judgment B) Anxiety that reduces with familiarity C) Social anxiety based on paranoid fears D) Social anxiety triggered by past trauma
C) Social anxiety based on paranoid fears Unlike Avoidant PD, Schizotypal anxiety is rooted in paranoid ideation, not self-consciousness.
72
Individuals with STPD may have unusual perceptual experiences that do not meet the criteria for hallucinations. A) True B) False
A) True They often report bodily illusions or subtle perceptual distortions, falling below the psychosis threshold.
72
Schizotypal Personality Disorder is a milder form of schizophrenia and always progresses into it. A) True B) False
B) False While related, STPD does not always progress into schizophrenia, and it lacks full-blown psychosis.
73
People with Schizotypal Personality Disorder often believe in telepathy or supernatural abilities. A) True B) False
A) True DSM-5 includes odd beliefs such as clairvoyance and telepathy as potential criteria.
73
According to DSM-5, how many symptoms must be present to diagnose Antisocial Personality Disorder? A) Two or more B) Three or more C) Four or more D) Five or more
B) Three or more At least three of seven specific behavioral criteria must be met since age 15.
73
Social anxiety in Schizotypal PD tends to decrease over time with familiarity. A) True B) False
B) False Their social anxiety is persistent and stems from paranoid fears, not fear of embarrassment.
73
Which Cluster A disorder is primarily marked by chronic mistrust and interpreting others' motives as harmful? A) Schizoid Personality Disorder B) Schizotypal Personality Disorder C) Paranoid Personality Disorder D) Avoidant Personality Disorder
C) Paranoid Personality Disorder Paranoid PD is characterized by persistent suspiciousness and the belief that others intend harm.
73
Which disorder is most likely to include vague, metaphorical, or overelaborate speech patterns? A) Paranoid PD B) Schizotypal PD C) Schizoid PD D) Histrionic PD
B) Schizotypal PD Odd speech is one of the hallmark criteria in Schizotypal Personality Disorder.
73
Which disorder involves emotional detachment and a preference for solitude, without the cognitive distortions seen in other Cluster A disorders? A) Schizotypal Personality Disorder B) Schizoid Personality Disorder C) Paranoid Personality Disorder D) Borderline Personality Disorder
B) Schizoid Personality Disorder Schizoid PD involves apathy, social withdrawal, and flat emotional expression, but no magical thinking or paranoia.
73
A person reports believing in telepathy, experiences unusual bodily sensations, and displays eccentric behavior. Which diagnosis is most appropriate? A) Paranoid PD B) Schizoid PD C) Schizotypal PD D) Narcissistic PD
C) Schizotypal PD These features (odd beliefs, perceptual distortions, and eccentric behavior) are classic signs of Schizotypal PD.
73
Which Cluster A disorder shares suspiciousness with Paranoid PD but also includes odd beliefs and perceptual distortions? A) Schizoid PD B) Avoidant PD C) Schizotypal PD D) Narcissistic PD
C) Schizotypal PD While both Paranoid and Schizotypal involve mistrust, only Schizotypal includes cognitive/perceptual distortions like magical thinking.
73
What is required in addition to the behavioral criteria for a diagnosis of ASPD in DSM-5? A) Presence of Borderline traits B) Conduct Disorder before age 15 C) A family history of psychosis D) Evidence of anxiety and depression
B) Conduct Disorder before age 15 A diagnosis of ASPD requires a history of Conduct Disorder with onset before age 15.
73
Cognitive and perceptual distortions are the key difference between which two personality disorders? A) Paranoid and Schizoid B) Schizoid and Schizotypal C) Schizotypal and Borderline D) Paranoid and Antisocial
B) Schizoid and Schizotypal Both involve social detachment, but only Schizotypal includes odd beliefs, magical thinking, and unusual perceptual experiences.
73
Which of the following traits is not typically associated with Antisocial Personality Disorder? A) High sensation-seeking B) Deep feelings of guilt and shame C) Repeated law-breaking D) Impulsivity and risk-taking
B) Deep feelings of guilt and shame People with ASPD typically lack remorse and do not experience guilt in the way others do.
73
Which of the following best describes the interpersonal style of someone with Antisocial Personality Disorder? A) Emotionally distant and withdrawn B) Manipulative and deceitful C) Overly dependent on others for validation D) Eccentric and socially awkward
B) Manipulative and deceitful ASPD is often marked by superficial charm used to deceive, exploit, or control others.
73
Antisocial behavior in ASPD must not occur exclusively during a manic or psychotic episode. A) True B) False
A) True The diagnosis excludes cases where antisocial behavior only occurs during schizophrenia or bipolar disorder.
73
An individual can be diagnosed with ASPD at age 16 if they meet all behavioral criteria. A) True B) False
B) False DSM-5 requires the individual to be at least 18 years old and to have had Conduct Disorder before age 15.
73
Which statement best captures the relationship between psychopathy and ASPD? A) Psychopathy and ASPD are interchangeable terms B) All individuals with ASPD meet criteria for psychopathy C) Psychopathy predicts ASPD, but ASPD does not always predict psychopathy D) Psychopathy is less severe than ASPD
C) Psychopathy predicts ASPD, but ASPD does not always predict psychopathy Psychopathy is a more specific and severe subset; not all with ASPD meet the criteria for psychopathy.
73
People with ASPD frequently engage in behaviors that violate social norms and the rights of others. A) True B) False
A) True This is a core characteristic of ASPD, including repeated acts that may be grounds for arrest.
73
Individuals with ASPD often experience strong remorse after hurting others. A) True B) False
B) False Lack of guilt or remorse is one of the hallmark diagnostic features.
73
Not all criminals have ASPD (e.g., situational criminals, white-collar crimes). Not all with ASPD are criminals (some may violate norms in less overtly criminal ways). Not all with ASPD are psychopaths, but most psychopaths meet criteria for ASPD. Psychopathy is a narrower, more severe construct, typically measured by tools like the PCL-R
73
All individuals with Antisocial Personality Disorder are considered psychopaths. A) True B) False
B) False Psychopathy is a more specific and severe profile; not everyone with ASPD qualifies as a psychopath.
73
What type of self-image is typically seen in BPD? A) Consistently inflated and grandiose B) Shifting between idealisation and complete worthlessness C) Detached and emotionally flat D) Fixed and realistic
B) Shifting between idealisation and complete worthlessness Their sense of self is often unstable, leading to identity disturbance and intense self-criticism.
73
What is a hallmark interpersonal feature of Borderline Personality Disorder? A) A desire for complete isolation B) A strong need to manipulate others for gain C) Intense fear of abandonment and unstable relationships D) Repetitive legal violations
C) Intense fear of abandonment and unstable relationships Individuals with BPD often make frantic efforts to avoid both real and imagined abandonment.
73
Psychopathy includes all the features of ASPD plus additional traits like lack of empathy and superficial charm. A) True B) False
A) True Psychopathy is broader and includes affective and interpersonal traits not required for ASPD diagnosis.
73
Criminal behavior is always an indication of a personality disorder. A) True B) False
B) False Criminality may result from social, economic, or situational factors without indicating a disorder.
74
Which of the following is not one of the nine DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for BPD? A) Recurrent physical aggression without emotional triggers B) Chronic feelings of emptiness C) Transient, stress-related paranoid ideation D) Impulsivity in areas like spending, sex, or substance use
A) Recurrent physical aggression without emotional triggers Physical aggression may occur but is not a standalone criterion; it must be related to affective dysregulation or anger.
75
What best describes the emotional experience of someone with BPD? A) Limited emotional response B) Consistent emotional state across time C) Intense mood swings and emotional instability D) Indifference to interpersonal events
C) Intense mood swings and emotional instability BPD is marked by rapid shifts in mood, typically lasting hours, not days.
76
What does the term “borderline” historically refer to? A) A person on the edge of addiction and criminality B) A mix of neurotic and psychotic features C) A borderline IQ level D) Someone with unclear sexual identity
B) A mix of neurotic and psychotic features Historically, BPD was thought to lie on the "border" between neurosis and psychosis.
77
People with BPD often engage in dichotomous (black-and-white) thinking. A) True B) False
A) True They tend to see people or situations as all good or all bad, with little middle ground.
78
Impulsivity in BPD is usually limited to verbal outbursts and does not include risky behaviors. A) True B) False
B) False Impulsivity in BPD may involve risky behaviors such as substance abuse, reckless driving, or binge eating.
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Affective instability in BPD refers to rapid and intense shifts in mood, often triggered by interpersonal stress. A) True B) False
A) True Mood changes are common and are typically reactive to perceived rejection or abandonment.
80
BPD symptoms typically appear suddenly in adulthood without any developmental history. A) True B) False
B) False While symptoms often become visible in early adulthood, their roots are usually in childhood experiences, including trauma or attachment disruptions.
81
According to DSM-5, how many symptoms must be present for a diagnosis of Borderline Personality Disorder? A) At least 3 B) At least 5 C) At least 7 D) All 9
B) At least 5 The DSM-5 requires five or more of the nine criteria to be met for a diagnosis of BPD.
82
Which of the following is a DSM-5 criterion for BPD? A) Grandiose self-image B) Frantic efforts to avoid abandonment C) Superficial charm and deceit D) Magical thinking and bodily illusions
B) Frantic efforts to avoid abandonment This is a core interpersonal symptom of BPD, often leading to clingy or panicked behavior.
82
Which of the following is NOT part of the DSM-5 criteria for BPD? A) Inappropriate, intense anger B) Chronic boredom and social withdrawal C) Impulsivity in self-damaging behaviors D) Stress-related paranoid ideation
B) Chronic boredom and social withdrawal This is more associated with schizoid traits, not BPD. BPD is emotionally intense and relationally reactive.
83
Which symptom of BPD involves unstable and extreme views of others in relationships? A) Impulsivity B) Identity disturbance C) Idealisation and devaluation D) Dissociation
C) Idealisation and devaluation Individuals with BPD may quickly shift from loving someone to hating them, based on perceived slights.
83
Recurrent suicidal behavior or self-mutilation is included in the DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for BPD. A) True B) False
A) True This is one of the nine hallmark symptoms of BPD and a major clinical concern.
84
A stable and consistent self-image is typical of people with BPD. A) True B) False
B) False BPD involves identity disturbance, with unstable self-concept and shifting values or goals.
84
BPD includes dissociative symptoms or paranoid ideation that are stress-related and transient. A) True B) False
A) True These symptoms often appear under emotional stress and are typically short-lived
84
Which of the following is considered a core domain affected in BPD? A) Psychomotor coordination B) Affective dysregulation C) Auditory hallucinations D) Obsessive rumination
B) Affective dysregulation BPD is marked by intense mood swings, emotional lability, and reactivity — a central feature of the disorder.
84
What is commonly believed to play a key role in the development (aetiology) of BPD? A) Later-life trauma B) Organic brain damage C) Childhood experiences and attachment disruptions D) Exposure to video games and media
C) Childhood experiences and attachment disruptions Research strongly links BPD with early relational trauma, inconsistent caregiving, or emotional invalidation.
84
Which of the following is not one of the four core functional domains often affected in BPD? A) Interpersonal functioning B) Affective regulation C) Cognitive distortions D) Motor coordination
D) Motor coordination While motor skills are not a focus in BPD, dysfunction in emotional, cognitive, interpersonal, and impulse control domains is central.
84
What is the core intrapsychic style of someone with Histrionic Personality Disorder? A) Logical and analytical thinking B) Shallow and impressionistic thought patterns C) Paranoid and suspicious thinking D) Rigid and perfectionistic
B) Shallow and impressionistic thought patterns Individuals with HPD tend to base opinions on emotional impressions rather than logic or detail.
84
Which statement best reflects the developmental course of BPD? A) It typically appears suddenly in adulthood with no early signs B) It begins in childhood and fully remits in adolescence C) It has a developmental trajectory, often becoming more visible in adolescence D) It is caused solely by adult relationship stress
C) It has a developmental trajectory, often becoming more visible in adolescence BPD does not "suddenly appear" — it builds over time, often shaped by early emotional experiences.
85
What is a common behavioral feature of Histrionic Personality Disorder? A) Secretive and reserved demeanor B) Aggressive outbursts in response to criticism C) Seductive and attention-seeking behavior D) Detailed and methodical speech
C) Seductive and attention-seeking behavior People with HPD often act in sexually provocative or emotionally exaggerated ways to gain attention.
85
According to DSM-5, how many criteria must be met for a diagnosis of HPD? A) Three or more B) Five or more C) Six or more D) All eight
B) Five or more The DSM-5 requires five or more of the eight possible criteria.
85
Which of the following speech patterns is typical in Histrionic PD? A) Precise and logical B) Excessively impressionistic and lacking in detail C) Evasive and paranoid D) Monotonous and detached
B) Excessively impressionistic and lacking in detail Their speech is often emotional, vague, and lacking depth or analysis.
86
Individuals with HPD are often uncomfortable when they are not the center of attention. A) True B) False
A) True This is the first DSM-5 criterion and central to the disorder.
86
People with HPD typically express emotions in a slow, measured, and deeply analytical way. A) True B) False
B) False They show rapidly shifting and shallow emotional expressions.
86
According to DSM-5, how many criteria must be met for a diagnosis of NPD? A) Three or more B) Five or more C) Seven or more D) All nine
B) Five or more The DSM-5 requires five or more of the nine listed traits for diagnosis.
86
Histrionic individuals often consider casual acquaintances to be close personal friends. A) True B) False
A) True They tend to overestimate the intimacy of relationships.
86
What interpersonal pattern is typical in individuals with Narcissistic Personality Disorder? A) Strong emotional empathy B) Fearful and submissive relating C) Exploitation and lack of empathy D) Rigid rule-following and perfectionism
C) Exploitation and lack of empathy Narcissistic individuals may use others to maintain their self-esteem and often ignore others’ needs.
86
Which of the following is a core diagnostic feature of Narcissistic Personality Disorder? A) Impulsive self-harming behavior B) Persistent fear of abandonment C) Grandiosity and need for admiration D) Repetitive law-breaking behavior
C) Grandiosity and need for admiration NPD is characterized by inflated self-importance and a deep need for external validation.
86
Suggestibility is one of the diagnostic features of Histrionic Personality Disorder. A) True B) False
A) True They are often easily influenced by others or external circumstances.
86
Which of the following best captures the intrapsychic experience of Narcissistic Personality Disorder? A) Deep guilt and remorse B) Intense emptiness and fear of rejection C) Underlying anger, shame, and envy D) Magical thinking and dissociation
C) Underlying anger, shame, and envy Despite their outward superiority, narcissistic individuals often struggle with inner feelings of inadequacy and shame.
86
Narcissistic individuals typically form long-lasting, emotionally close relationships. A) True B) False
B) False They tend to alienate others and struggle with genuine intimacy due to their lack of empathy and need for control.
86
Individuals with NPD often appear confident but are deeply sensitive to criticism. A) True B) False
A) True Their self-esteem is fragile and highly dependent on external validation.
86
Which of the following traits is most specific to Narcissistic Personality Disorder? A) Excessive emotional expression to gain attention B) Grandiosity and fantasies of success or power C) Repeated deceit or law-breaking behavior D) Fear of abandonment and self-harm
B) Grandiosity and fantasies of success or power This trait is central to NPD and distinguishes it from HPD (emotionality) and ASPD (rule-breaking).
86
Fantasies of unlimited success or power are included in the DSM-5 criteria for NPD. A) True B) False
A) True These grandiose fantasies are a diagnostic feature of NPD.
86
A person lies and manipulates others for personal gain, without remorse. Which diagnosis is most likely? A) Histrionic Personality Disorder B) Narcissistic Personality Disorder C) Borderline Personality Disorder D) Antisocial Personality Disorder
D) Antisocial Personality Disorder While NPD may exploit others to boost self-esteem, ASPD involves manipulation without conscience or concern for others' rights.
86
Which disorder is most associated with seductive behavior and shallow emotional expression rather than arrogance or entitlement? A) Narcissistic Personality Disorder B) Histrionic Personality Disorder C) Antisocial Personality Disorder D) Borderline Personality Disorder
B) Histrionic Personality Disorder HPD is characterized by emotional expressiveness, attention-seeking, and sexual provocation—not grandiosity.
87
Which personality disorder is most likely to involve manipulation for the sake of maintaining fragile self-esteem rather than for practical gain or power? A) Antisocial Personality Disorder B) Histrionic Personality Disorder C) Narcissistic Personality Disorder D) Avoidant Personality Disorder
C) Narcissistic Personality Disorder Narcissistic manipulation is often self-esteem driven, unlike the goal-oriented exploitation in ASPD.
87
How do NPD and ASPD most clearly differ? A) Narcissists are impulsive; antisocial individuals are not B) Antisocial individuals feel more shame than narcissists C) Narcissists seek admiration; antisocial individuals seek power or control D) Antisocial individuals are more emotionally reactive than narcissists
C) Narcissists seek admiration; antisocial individuals seek power or control NPD is driven by the need for admiration, whereas ASPD focuses more on domination and disregard for others.
87
What is the core interpersonal style in Avoidant Personality Disorder? A) Controlling and manipulative B) Dramatic and seductive C) Reticent but desiring closeness D) Hostile and confrontational
C) Reticent but desiring closeness People with AvPD fear rejection and hold back, but they often long for connection deep down.
88
Avoidant PD is characterized by hypersensitivity to criticism and fear of social rejection. A) True B) False
A) True This is central to the disorder and underlies most avoidant behaviors.
88
Which of the following best describes the intrapsychic experience of Avoidant PD? A) Grandiosity and pride B) Deep shame and inadequacy C) Indifference to feedback D) Confusion about personal identity
B) Deep shame and inadequacy Avoidant individuals often see themselves as socially inferior and unworthy, leading to withdrawal.
88
How many criteria are required for a diagnosis of Avoidant PD according to DSM-5? A) Two or more B) Four or more C) Five or more D) All seven
B) Four or more DSM-5 requires at least four of the seven listed features for diagnosis.
88
In contrast to Schizoid PD, individuals with Avoidant PD: A) Are uninterested in relationships B) Have intense social anxiety and want connection C) Lack emotional expression D) Show eccentric beliefs
B) Have intense social anxiety and want connection Unlike Schizoid PD (who are detached), Avoidant individuals do want connection but feel unworthy of it.
88
Which of the following is a DSM-5 criterion for Avoidant Personality Disorder? A) Inappropriate seductiveness in social situations B) Unwillingness to get involved unless certain of being liked C) Frequent manipulation of others to avoid shame D) Obsessive attention to detail
B) Unwillingness to get involved unless certain of being liked Fear of rejection makes the person reluctant to form relationships unless reassurance is strong.
88
Individuals with Avoidant PD are generally comfortable in close relationships but dislike large groups. A) True B) False
B) False Even in close relationships, they often show restraint and fear ridicule or rejection.
89
Avoidant PD is marked by a belief that one is socially inept or inferior to others. A) True B) False
A) True These deeply held self-views contribute to their social withdrawal and low confidence.
89
What is the core interpersonal feature of Dependent Personality Disorder? A) Exploitation of others for gain B) Clinging behavior and fear of separation C) Detachment and emotional coldness D) Avoidance due to fear of rejection
B) Clinging behavior and fear of separation DPD is marked by submissive behavior and an overwhelming need to maintain relationships.
90
Which of the following best describes the intrapsychic experience of someone with DPD? A) The self is independent and self-reliant B) The self is weak and helpless C) The self is superior to others D) The self is emotionally detached
B) The self is weak and helpless Individuals with DPD often see themselves as incompetent and unable to function without help.
90
According to DSM-5, how many criteria must be met to diagnose Dependent Personality Disorder? A) Three or more B) Four or more C) Five or more D) Six or more
C) Five or more The DSM-5 requires five or more of the eight specified traits.
90
Which of the following is not a DSM-5 criterion for Dependent Personality Disorder? A) Has difficulty making everyday decisions without reassurance B) Believes they are uniquely special and deserving of admiration C) Feels helpless when alone D) Goes to great lengths to gain nurturance and support
B) Believes they are uniquely special and deserving of admiration This is characteristic of Narcissistic Personality Disorder, not DPD.
90
A person who repeatedly seeks new caretaking relationships immediately after one ends is likely demonstrating symptoms of: A) Borderline Personality Disorder B) Schizoid Personality Disorder C) Dependent Personality Disorder D) Avoidant Personality Disorder
C) Dependent Personality Disorder Seeking another caretaker urgently after a breakup is a key sign of DPD.
90
Individuals with Dependent Personality Disorder often fear they cannot take care of themselves. A) True B) False
A) True This fear drives their clinginess and reliance on others.
90
People with DPD tend to express their opinions openly, even when it risks upsetting others. A) True B) False
B) False They often avoid disagreement to preserve the relationship and avoid loss of support.
91
A key diagnostic feature of DPD is the need for others to assume responsibility in major life areas. A) True B) False
A) True They often rely on others for decision-making, finances, or emotional direction.
92
What is a key difference between OCD and OCPD? A) OCPD involves unwanted intrusive thoughts B) OCPD is ego-dystonic, while OCD is ego-syntonic C) OCD causes no distress, while OCPD does D) OCPD traits are ego-syntonic, aligning with the person's values
D) OCPD traits are ego-syntonic, aligning with the person's values People with OCPD typically see their rigidity as right or necessary, unlike OCD, where symptoms are distressing and unwanted.
92
What is the behavioral presentation of someone with OCPD? A) Disorganized and emotionally erratic B) Rigid, controlling, and perfectionistic C) Impulsive and risk-taking D) Detached and indifferent
B) Rigid, controlling, and perfectionistic They insist on control and often sacrifice flexibility and efficiency for order.
92
According to DSM-5, how many criteria are required to diagnose OCPD? A) Two or more B) Three or more C) Four or more D) Five or more
C) Four or more Four or more of the eight listed criteria are required for diagnosis.
92
Which of the following is not a DSM-5 criterion for OCPD? A) Hoarding due to emotional attachment B) Perfectionism interfering with task completion C) Miserly spending habits and saving for catastrophe D) Reluctance to delegate unless others follow their way
A) Hoarding due to emotional attachment Hoarding in OCPD is not sentimental, unlike in Hoarding Disorder or OCD.
93
A person who refuses to relax, obsesses over rules, and becomes distressed when others don’t follow their exact instructions may have: A) Borderline Personality Disorder B) Avoidant Personality Disorder C) Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder D) Dependent Personality Disorder
C) Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder These are classic interpersonal and task-related signs of OCPD.
93
People with OCPD often struggle to complete tasks because of overly high personal standards. A) True B) False
A) True Their perfectionism often results in procrastination and inefficiency.
93
In OCPD, individuals are usually flexible, easygoing, and open to others’ methods. A) True B) False
B) False They are often rigid, stubborn, and unwilling to compromise.
94
OCPD involves compulsions and intrusive thoughts similar to OCD. A) True B) False
B) False OCPD is a personality style, not an anxiety disorder, and lacks the obsessions and compulsions typical of OCD.
94
OCPD includes excessive devotion to work at the expense of leisure and relationships. A) True B) False
A) True Workaholism and rigid productivity are hallmarks of OCPD.
94
Which disorder is most associated with a fear of embarrassment and feelings of social inadequacy, despite a desire for connection? A) Dependent Personality Disorder B) Avoidant Personality Disorder C) Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder D) Schizoid Personality Disorder
B) Avoidant Personality Disorder Avoidant PD involves social withdrawal driven by fear of criticism, not disinterest.
94
A person who believes they are incapable of functioning independently and urgently seeks others to take care of them is most likely to have: A) Avoidant Personality Disorder B) Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder C) Dependent Personality Disorder D) Schizotypal Personality Disorder
C) Dependent Personality Disorder DPD centers on fears of being alone and helpless, leading to clinginess and submission.
94
Which personality disorder includes extreme perfectionism and rigid control over oneself and others, often at the expense of efficiency? A) Avoidant Personality Disorder B) Dependent Personality Disorder C) Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder D) Borderline Personality Disorder
C) Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder OCPD is defined by rigid rule-following, over-control, and inefficiency due to perfectionism.
95
Which of the following best distinguishes Dependent PD from Avoidant PD? A) Dependent PD includes more social inhibition B) Avoidant PD is driven by fear of criticism; Dependent PD by fear of abandonment C) Dependent individuals have low anxiety D) Avoidant individuals seek constant reassurance and advice
B) Avoidant PD is driven by fear of criticism; Dependent PD by fear of abandonment Though both involve anxiety and low self-esteem, Avoidant = criticism-based, Dependent = abandonment-based.
95
Which Cluster C disorder is most likely to involve workaholism and difficulty delegating tasks due to control issues? A) Avoidant PD B) Dependent PD C) Obsessive-Compulsive PD D) Schizoid PD
C) Obsessive-Compulsive PD Individuals with OCPD often struggle to delegate and obsess over productivity and order.
96
Dialectical Behaviour Therapy (DBT) was originally developed to treat which mental health condition? A) Antisocial Personality Disorder B) Major Depressive Disorder C) Borderline Personality Disorder D) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
C) Borderline Personality Disorder DBT was specifically designed to address the core features of BPD, especially emotional instability and self-harming behaviours.
96
Which of the following is not one of the core skill areas taught in DBT? A) Mindfulness B) Emotion regulation C) Cognitive restructuring D) Distress tolerance
C) Cognitive restructuring While DBT uses some CBT principles, cognitive restructuring is more central to traditional CBT than to DBT’s focus on skills training and acceptance.
96
One reason DBT is effective for BPD is that it helps individuals: A) Eliminate all emotional responses B) Avoid all interpersonal contact C) Reduce emotional reactivity and improve coping with distress D) Repress their feelings to control mood swings
C) Reduce emotional reactivity and improve coping with distress DBT teaches practical strategies to manage intense emotions, tolerate distress, and improve relationships.
96
Which of the following best describes the therapeutic stance in DBT? A) Confrontational and directive B) Emotionally distant and analytical C) Validating, non-judgmental, and collaborative D) Passive and observational
C) Validating, non-judgmental, and collaborative The therapeutic relationship in DBT emphasizes acceptance and validation, which helps reduce shame and resistance in BPD clients.
96
What are the main characteristics of a psychological disorder? A. Pleasant experiences and enhanced relationships B. Distressing behavior, impairment in life domains, and increased risk of suffering C. Success in personal and professional life D. Mild discomfort without life impact
B. Distressing behavior, impairment in life domains, and increased risk of suffering Psychological disorders involve distress, functional impairment, and elevated risk of further suffering or dysfunction.
96
Which edition of the DSM is currently used for diagnosing personality disorders? A. DSM-III B. DSM-IV C. DSM-5 D. DSM-VI
C. DSM-5 The DSM-5 is the current diagnostic manual published by the American Psychiatric Association.
96
How does the dimensional view of personality disorders differ from the categorical view? A. It considers disorders as present or absent B. It uses numerical scores for intelligence C. It sees disorders along a continuum from normality to disability D. It only evaluates physical health
C. It sees disorders along a continuum from normality to disability The dimensional model describes personality disorders as existing along a spectrum, not just as present or absent.
97
What is a key feature of antisocial personality disorder? A. Excessive attention seeking B. General disregard for others C. Fear of abandonment D. Obsessive orderliness
B. General disregard for others Antisocial personality disorder includes persistent disregard for the rights and feelings of others, often beginning in childhood.
97
Which personality disorder involves a pervasive fear of abandonment and emotional instability? A. Narcissistic B. Borderline C. Paranoid D. Dependent
B. Borderline Borderline personality disorder is marked by intense relationships, emotional instability, and fear of rejection or abandonment.
97
Which disorder is characterized by excessive need for admiration and lack of empathy? A. Histrionic B. Schizoid C. Narcissistic D. Avoidant
C. Narcissistic Narcissistic individuals seek constant admiration and exhibit a lack of empathy, often with fragile self-esteem.
97
Which personality disorder is most commonly associated with childhood abuse or neglect? A. Avoidant B. Obsessive-Compulsive C. Borderline D. Schizotypal
C. Borderline Research shows borderline personality disorder is strongly linked to early childhood trauma, abuse, and neglect.
97
What is the hallmark of avoidant personality disorder? A. Desire to control others B. Strong need to be admired C. Pervasive feeling of inadequacy and sensitivity to criticism D. Persistent suspicion of others
C. Pervasive feeling of inadequacy and sensitivity to criticism Avoidant individuals avoid social interaction due to fear of rejection and criticism, often feeling inadequate.
97
Which personality disorder is most common in the general population? A. Borderline B. Narcissistic C. Obsessive-Compulsive D. Schizoid
C. Obsessive-Compulsive Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder (OCPD) has the highest prevalence, affecting over 4% of the population.
98
Which model describes psychopathy in terms of boldness, meanness, and lack of inhibition? A. Dimensional model B. Social learning model C. Triarchic model D. Neurochemical model
C. Triarchic model The triarchic model is a modern framework explaining psychopathy via boldness, meanness, and disinhibition, supported by neuroscience findings.
98
What distinguishes personality disorders from temporary or situational behaviors? A. They are the result of medication side effects B. They are short-term and fluctuate with circumstances C. They are enduring patterns inconsistent with cultural expectations D. They occur only under stress
C. They are enduring patterns inconsistent with cultural expectations Personality disorders are long-lasting and pervasive, differing significantly from what is expected in the individual's cultural context.
99
Why is cultural background important in diagnosing personality disorders? A. Culture determines the age of onset B. It influences brain development C. Cultural norms affect behavior interpretation D. Culture has no impact on diagnosis
C. Cultural norms affect behavior interpretation Behaviors considered disordered in one culture may be normal in another, so cultural context is essential to avoid misdiagnosis.
99
Which factor is crucial before diagnosing adolescents with a personality disorder? A. Checking their school performance B. Evaluating medication use C. Considering identity experimentation as typical D. Testing IQ levels
C. Considering identity experimentation as typical Adolescents often experiment with identity; this is common and not necessarily pathological unless patterns are persistent and impairing.
99
Which of the following disorders is part of the Erratic Cluster? A. Schizoid Personality Disorder B. Avoidant Personality Disorder C. Borderline Personality Disorder D. Paranoid Personality Disorder
C. Borderline Personality Disorder The Erratic Cluster includes antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic personality disorders—marked by emotional instability and unpredictability.
99
Which childhood factors are most associated with future antisocial personality disorder? A. High academic achievement B. Shyness and withdrawal C. Early conduct problems and aggression D. Emotional sensitivity
C. Early conduct problems and aggression Early signs such as lying, cruelty to animals, and breaking rules are predictors of developing antisocial traits in adulthood.
99
Which trait is especially common in individuals with histrionic personality disorder? A. Avoidance of public attention B. Logical and detail-oriented thinking C. Dramatic, shallow, and rapidly shifting emotions D. Deep empathy for others
C. Dramatic, shallow, and rapidly shifting emotions Histrionic individuals display exaggerated emotions and seek attention, often without much emotional depth.
100
What best describes the ‘narcissistic paradox’? A. Narcissists have no need for others B. Their high self-esteem hides actual low self-worth C. They have strong self-esteem that is fragile and dependent on others' validation D. They have no emotional experience
C. They have strong self-esteem that is fragile and dependent on others' validation Though they project grandiosity, narcissists are extremely sensitive to criticism and depend on others for maintaining their self-image.
100
What makes schizotypal personality disorder different from schizoid personality disorder? A. Schizoid individuals are anxious in social settings B. Schizotypal individuals show magical thinking and perceptual distortions C. Schizoid people have hallucinations D. Schizotypal individuals are emotionally warm
B. Schizotypal individuals show magical thinking and perceptual distortions Schizotypal individuals have eccentric thoughts and behaviors, including magical beliefs and unusual perceptions.
101
What is the primary difference between obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD) and obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)? A. OCPD includes ritual behaviors, while OCD does not B. OCD is a personality trait C. OCD involves intrusive thoughts and compulsions; OCPD is about perfectionism and control D. OCPD is more severe than OCD
C. OCD involves intrusive thoughts and compulsions; OCPD is about perfectionism and control OCD involves distressing thoughts and compulsions, whereas OCPD is a rigid personality style focused on order and perfection.
102
What is the prevalence rate of having at least one personality disorder in the general population? A. 4% B. 13% C. 0.2% D. 30%
B. 13% About 13% of people are diagnosable with one or more personality disorders at any given time.
103
Which personality disorder is significantly more common in men than women? A. Dependent Personality Disorder B. Histrionic Personality Disorder C. Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder D. Antisocial Personality Disorder
D. Antisocial Personality Disorder Antisocial personality disorder shows the most marked gender difference, with a much higher prevalence in men.
103
Which personality disorder has the lowest known prevalence? A. Schizoid B. Histrionic C. Narcissistic D. Dependent
C. Narcissistic Narcissistic personality disorder is the least common, affecting about 0.2% of the population.
103
What is a differential diagnosis? A. A treatment plan for severe disorders B. The identification of multiple disorders in one patient C. A process of determining the best-fitting diagnosis among similar options D. A therapy method
C. A process of determining the best-fitting diagnosis among similar options Differential diagnosis involves distinguishing between disorders with similar symptoms to determine the most accurate diagnosis.
104
What research supports the genetic basis of schizotypal personality disorder? A. Hormonal testing B. Twin studies and family prevalence of schizophrenia C. Social reinforcement theories D. Case studies of trauma survivors
B. Twin studies and family prevalence of schizophrenia Schizotypal disorder is genetically related to schizophrenia, supported by family and twin studies.
105
In the triarchic model, what is 'meanness' associated with? A. Rule-following behavior B. Excessive empathy C. Dysfunction in empathy-related brain systems D. High self-awareness
C. Dysfunction in empathy-related brain systems The "meanness" trait in psychopathy relates to brain dysfunctions affecting empathy and social bonding.
105
According to research, what is a likely contributing factor to borderline personality disorder? A. Strong parenting B. Childhood neglect and chaotic environments C. Excessive cognitive stimulation D. Genetic mutations
B. Childhood neglect and chaotic environments Most evidence links borderline personality disorder to early relational trauma, neglect, and unstable environments, not genetics.
106
What is a common paradox seen in avoidant personality disorder? A. They seek confrontation despite fear B. They avoid supportive relationships that could help self-esteem C. They refuse help even when it is needed D. They are emotionally expressive but detached
B. They avoid supportive relationships that could help self-esteem In trying to avoid rejection, avoidant individuals also avoid relationships that could improve their confidence and wellbeing.
106
What trait best defines obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD)? A. Emotional expressiveness B. Suspicion and paranoia C. High need for order, perfectionism, and control D. Lack of empathy
C. High need for order, perfectionism, and control OCPD is characterized by excessive conscientiousness, orderliness, and perfectionism that interferes with flexibility and relationships.
107
Which is the core feature of avoidant personality disorder? A. Repetitive compulsions B. Excessive need to be admired C. Pervasive feelings of inadequacy and fear of criticism D. Dramatic emotional outbursts
C. Pervasive feelings of inadequacy and fear of criticism Avoidant personality disorder involves social inhibition due to intense fears of criticism, rejection, and inadequacy.
107
Which personality disorder is most related to hoarding behavior and excessive perfectionism? A. Narcissistic B. Borderline C. Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder D. Avoidant
C. Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder People with OCPD often hoard items and obsess over order, rules, and perfection to a rigid degree.
108
What is the hallmark of dependent personality disorder? A. Suspicion of others B. Constant need to be taken care of and told what to do C. Need for perfection in all tasks D. Impulsive, aggressive behavior
B. Constant need to be taken care of and told what to do Dependent individuals show submissiveness and seek constant reassurance, guidance, and support from others.
109
Why do people with dependent personality disorder avoid conflict or disagreement? A. They want to manipulate others B. They fear loss of support and disapproval C. They lack emotional intelligence D. They have strong moral beliefs
B. They fear loss of support and disapproval Dependent individuals avoid conflict because they are afraid of losing the people they rely on emotionally and practically.
110
How does obsessive-compulsive personality disorder differ from OCD? A. OCPD is a personality style; OCD includes intrusive thoughts and rituals B. OCD is less severe than OCPD C. OCPD includes hallucinations D. OCD only affects social functioning
A. OCPD is a personality style; OCD includes intrusive thoughts and rituals OCD involves intrusive, unwanted thoughts and compulsions; OCPD is a rigid personality pattern without obsessions or rituals.
111
What is a unique feature of OCPD not seen in most other personality disorders? A. Willingness to break rules B. Emotional detachment C. Miserly spending and difficulty discarding items D. Lack of interpersonal interest
C. Miserly spending and difficulty discarding items OCPD individuals often hoard possessions and are overly frugal, reflecting their need for control and fear of waste.
112
Which cluster includes disorders characterized by nervousness and fearfulness? A. Erratic B. Eccentric C. Anxious D. Emotional
C. Anxious The Anxious Cluster includes avoidant, dependent, and obsessive-compulsive personality disorders.
113
Which personality disorder shows the highest overall prevalence in the population? A. Schizoid B. Dependent C. Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder D. Paranoid
C. Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder OCPD is the most prevalent, affecting just over 4% of the population.
114
Which personality disorders are each around 2% prevalent in the population? A. Narcissistic, avoidant, paranoid B. Schizotypal, histrionic, dependent C. Antisocial, schizoid, borderline D. Borderline, narcissistic, schizotypal
B. Schizotypal, histrionic, dependent Schizotypal, histrionic, and dependent personality disorders each occur in roughly 2% of the general population.
115
What is the total estimated prevalence of personality disorders in the general population? A. 5% B. 8% C. 13% D. 21%
C. 13% Research indicates that about 13% of the population has at least one diagnosable personality disorder at any given time.
116
Which personality disorder has the largest gender gap in diagnosis? A. Avoidant B. Borderline C. Antisocial D. Paranoid
C. Antisocial Antisocial personality disorder is far more common in men (4.5%) than in women (0.8%).
117
What best describes the cause of borderline personality disorder, based on research? A. Inherited brain disorder B. Dysfunctional parenting and early trauma C. Excess dopamine D. Genetic links to OCD
B. Dysfunctional parenting and early trauma Borderline personality disorder is most strongly associated with childhood neglect, trauma, and chaotic home environments.
118
Which disorder is most genetically linked to schizophrenia? A. Histrionic B. Schizotypal C. Avoidant D. Dependent
B. Schizotypal Schizotypal personality disorder shares genetic underpinnings with schizophrenia and often occurs in relatives of schizophrenia patients.
119
Which disorders show elevated prevalence among relatives of schizophrenia patients? A. Dependent and narcissistic B. Paranoid and avoidant C. Histrionic and antisocial D. Borderline and obsessive-compulsive
B. Paranoid and avoidant Paranoid and avoidant personality disorders, like schizotypal, occur more frequently in families of those with schizophrenia.
120
Which personality disorder is strongly associated with learning difficulties in response to punishment? A. Avoidant B. Narcissistic C. Antisocial D. Dependent
C. Antisocial Research suggests that people with antisocial personality disorder often fail to learn from punishment, a key trait contributing to antisocial behaviors.
121
In the triarchic model of psychopathy, what does ‘boldness’ refer to? A. Excessive caution B. Emotional vulnerability C. Fearlessness and social dominance D. Delusional thinking
C. Fearlessness and social dominance Boldness includes traits like fearlessness, charm, and dominance, and is associated with reduced activation in the brain’s fear systems.
122
What is the ‘lack of inhibition’ component in psychopathy linked to, neurologically? A. Overactive amygdala B. Impaired cognitive control and moral reasoning C. Sensory hallucinations D. Inflexible morality
B. Impaired cognitive control and moral reasoning This component is tied to dysfunction in the frontal cortex, impairing self-regulation and ethical judgment.
123
Which component of psychopathy is thought to relate to low oxytocin and weak empathy circuits? A. Boldness B. Meanness C. Disinhibition D. Perfectionism
B. Meanness ‘Meanness’ involves reduced capacity for empathy and bonding, potentially due to disrupted neurochemical pathways like oxytocin.
124
Why is it hard to determine the causes of personality disorders through research? A. Most studies are experiments with random assignment B. Researchers avoid studying personality disorders C. Research is mostly correlational, not causal D. They are caused only by brain injuries
C. Research is mostly correlational, not causal Because most studies are correlational, it's difficult to prove causation, especially since nature and nurture often interact.
125
What does the DSM-5’s Section III address? A. Obsolete disorders B. Non-psychiatric conditions C. Emerging models and disorders needing further research D. Treatment procedures
C. Emerging models and disorders needing further research Section III of DSM-5 contains disorders and models under consideration for future inclusion, highlighting areas needing more research.