Weeks 1-5 Flashcards

Formative 1 (114 cards)

1
Q

What is the difference between prokaryotic, eukaryotic cells and viruses?
What is the role of surface projections?

A
Prokaryotic = few membrane bound organelles and smaller ribosomes
Eukaryotic = have DNA and histones and larger ribosomes
Viruses = lack all cell characteristics

Surface projections = Binds eukaryotic cells via cell junctions

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2
Q

What are all the cell properties?

A
Irritable - react to unnatural things
Conductive - pick up, react, pass on things
Contractile - can move
Absorb and assimilate
Excrete and secrete
Respire
Grow
Reproduce
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3
Q

What is a tissue definition and how is it formed?

What part of a cell is compound tissue?

A

Cellular and extracellular elements assembled to form basis of bodily functional systems, when 1 or more cell types usually predominate.

Formed via histogenesis

Cell epithelium

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4
Q

What are the 3 primary germ layers (examples)?

A

Ectoderm (nervous tissue), mesoderm (muscle), endoderm (epithelium)

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5
Q

What are the 4 tissue types?

A

Epithelia: closely packed cells that line organ surface, derived form 1/3 germ layers
Connective tissue: cells from mesoderm which produce extracellular fibre matrix
Muscular tissue: mesoderm cells with filaments and of contractile proteins in cytoplasm
Nervous tissue: from neuroectoderm, cells with neurites that conduct impulses upon stimulation

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6
Q

What proteins allow endocytosis?

Related pathologies?

A

Fusogenic proteins

Anaemia, lysosomal storage disorders, Zellweger’s syndrome

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7
Q

The protein synthesis pathway?

Related pathologies to exocytosis?

A
Recognition of peptide signal sequence
Peptide orientated by docking protein
Translation and insertion of protein into endoplasmic reticulum
Protein modification and processing
Protein stored
Exocytosis

I-cell disease, Lewy bodies, pro-insulin diabetes

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8
Q

Properties of lysosome and proteasome?

A
Lysosome = works in acidic conditions, peroxisome is type containing catalase
Proteasome = digests protein with ubiquitation
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9
Q

Purpose of microscopes in medicine?

A

To distinguish between normal and abnormal tissue

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10
Q

What are the different types of stain?

A

H and E: Haematoxylin - stains components purple / blue
Eosin - stains basic components pink
Periodic acid Schiff: stains aldehydes, from oxidised sugars, bright pink / purple
Trichome: shows different components, such as muscle
Weigert’s elastin: stains elastic

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11
Q

What is the size of most cells, RBCs and mitochondria?

A

7-20 micrometers

  1. 2 micrometers
  2. 0 X 0.2 micrometers
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12
Q

What are chromosomes, chromatin and nucleosomes?

A
Chromosomes = condensed chromatin
Chromatin = DNA and RNA proteins combined ( proteins are both acidic and basic (histones))
Nucleosomes = 2 DNA double helix wrapped around 8 histones
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13
Q

What is the difference between heterochromatin and euchromatin?

A
Hetero = + condensed, is near nuclear envelope, represents SWITCHED OFF genes
Eu = - condensed, is centrally located, represents SWITCHED ON genes
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14
Q

Properties of histones?

A
  • Rich in basic amino acids
  • Core histones = H2A, H2B, H3, H4
  • Linker histones = H1, H5
  • Use for DNA compacting and chromatin regulation
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15
Q

What are the 3 tissue groups based on cell proliferation?

A
  • Epidermis = Continually renewing
  • Liver / kidney = Conditionally renewing
  • Nerve cells / cardiac cells = static / non-proliferative
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16
Q

What are the 5 cell cycle stages and when does DNA synthesis occur?

A

Prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

S phase

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17
Q

What is the role of cyclins and why are they clinically important?

A
  • Determine cell progress through cell cycle
  • Coordinate cell entry into next phase
  • Cyclin-dependent kinases = activated when they bind to cyclin
  • Target proteins are then activated or inactivated

Clinical importance = may be anti-cancer agents as they arrest cell cycle - tumour suppressors

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18
Q

What are the properties of bases and what is polymerisation direction?

What is the difference between DNA and RNA structure?

What is an insertion mutation?

A

Aromatic, planar, hydrophobic

2’ DNA = hydrogen
2’ RNA = hydroxyl

Chemical inserted between DNA bases

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19
Q

What are the stages of DNA replication?

A
  • Helicase unravels DNA
  • Leading strand = 3’ end
  • Lagging strand = 5’ end
  • Lagging strand = ozaki fragments so 5-3’ direction
  • RNA primer required for replication
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20
Q

What are the properties of mRNA?

What shifts start codons?

A
  • 5’ cap added post-transcription for translation
  • Has ribosome binding site
  • Has start / stop codons
  • 5’ and 3’ UTRs which have info for mRNA stability and translation
  • Poly(A) tail and signal added post-transcription to regulate mRNA stability and translation

Mutations

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21
Q

What are the impacts of UTR mutation?

A

Causes disease as proteins can’t bind

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22
Q

What determines protein 3D structure and what bonds do primary proteins and cystine have?

What are the properties of peptide bonds?

What do all proteins start with?

A

Genes
Disulphide

Double bond characteristics, no free electron rotation, bond is planar

Methionine

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23
Q

What are the properties of alpha helix and beta sheets?

What are the main polypeptide forces?

A
Alpha = COOH and NH2 form hydrogen bonds
Beta = 5-10 amino acids with hydrogen bonds - parallel and anti-parallel

Hydrophobic, electrostatic (hydrogen, Van der Waal, ionic), covalent

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24
Q

What are the types of protein mutations?

A
  • Dysfunctional or absent protein
  • Cut metabolic pathway
  • Dysfunctional regulatory protein or receptor
  • Protein aggregation
  • Loss / impairment of infection defence
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25
What are oligomers and what are the 2 types? What are protomers?
+1 polypeptide chains Homo-oligomer Hetero-oligomer Identical sub-units
26
What are the properties of oligomers?
- Greater size means better enzyme - Each sub-unit has an active site Globular = regular secondary structure Fibrous = type of secondary structure
27
What are the properties of haemoglobin?
- 4 globin sub-units held by hydrogen bonds and salt bridges - 1 haem group per sub-unit - More O2 = looser sub-units with greater oxygen affinity = salt bridges break - Greater O2 pressure = is cooperative as greater O2 saturation
28
What is glycosylation and hydroxylation?
- Attachment of carbohydrate - Carbohydrate is minor to glycoprotein - Carbohydrate is major to proteoglycans - Requires vitamin C - Proteasome destroys misfolded proteins - Chaperones aid protein folding
29
What are protein misfolding disorders? What are prion diseases?
Alzheimer's, Huntington's Diseases that can be prevented by medical intervention / age associated
30
What is period prevalence? What is disease incidence?
Proportion affected over a period of time New cases in a period of time
31
What is risk? What is attributable risk? What is NNT? How do you work it out?
Probability an event will occur Difference in risk between exposed and unexposed populations if exposure causally related to disease Average number of patients requiring treatment to prevent 1 additional bad outcome - 1 / reduction in risk
32
What is risk ratio? What is odds ratio?
Risk in exposed / risk in unexposed A / B (diseased / healthy in exposed category)
33
How do enzymes cause disease? What are the active site functional groups? When does enzyme specificity increase?
Enzyme under / over expression Co-enzymes, metal ions, amino acid residues In biosynthetic reactions
34
What happens during lock and key? What prevents it?
Hydrophobic, electrostatic and hydrogen substrate interactions Steric hindrance and charge repulsion
35
What happens during induced fit?
Repositioning of amino acid side chains
36
What is the transition state complex?
- Rate of reaction is number of molecules with Ea - Point when bonds maximally strained - Greater binding to enzyme than substrate
37
What are cofactor/ coenzyme properties?
- Prosthetic groups (metal ions) are tightly bound cofactors - Human coenzymes are synthesised from vitamins - Coenzymes decrease in activity in enzyme absence (enzyme provides stability and orientation) - Activation --> transfer / oxidation --> reduction
38
What are isoenzymes? What are advantages of multi-enzyme complexes?
Enzymes that catalyse same reaction with different amino acid sequence Diffusion transit time reduced Less interference
39
Where do you find serum specific enzymes? Where do you find secreted enzymes? Where do you find non-serum specific enzymes?
Normal location Pancreatic lipase / salivary amylase No role in serum, released due to cell turnover, damage or morphological changes
40
What happens in pre-steady state, steady state and what is V0?
Pre-steady state = product gradually builds with excess substrate Steady state = rate of reaction and intermediate concentration slowly change V0 = initial rate of reaction
41
What are the assumptions to make in Michaelis-Menten equation? What is Km? What does high and low substrate conc. mean?
Assume: large number of molecules, low enzyme bound substrate percentage Michaelis constant = affinity to enzyme = substrate concentration when V0 = 1/2 Vmax ``` High = 0 order = rate independent of substrate concentration Low = 1st order = rate proportional to substrate concentration ```
42
What are the properties of inhibitors? What is Ki?
- Bind to active site - Overcome with + substrate concentration - Increase Km - No impact on Vmax - Reversible = not covalently bound to enzyme (competitive, non-competitive, uncompetitive) - Irreversible = target metal atoms at active site, not all covalent - Non-competitive lower Vmax - Uncompetitive only bind to enzyme-substrate complex and form ESIs Ki = inhibitor binding dissociation constant
43
What are two control methods to regulate enzymes?
Substrate response | Product inhibition
44
What is allosteric activation / inhibition and advantages? (regulatory mechanism)
Effectors (small molecules) non-covalently bind to enzymes at allosteric site Advantage = rapid process as effectors don't need to resemble substrate
45
What is and activator and an inhibitor? What are the two types of effector?
``` Activator = + enzyme activity with effector binding Inhibitor = - enzyme activity with effector binding ``` Homotropic effector = substrate is allosteric effector Heterotropic effector = effector differs from substrate
46
What is the difference between positive and negative cooperativity?
Positive = substrate enhances catalytic properties of other subunits by binding to one subunit Negative = substrate binds and reduces catalytic properties of other subunits
47
What are the main properties of cell membranes? Where is ion conc. varied?
- Flexible - Self-sealing - Selectively permeable Between: Extracellular fluid and cell Cell cytoplasm and compartments
48
What are the properties of lipid bilayer / plasma membrane?
- Encloses all mammalian cells - Hydrophobic bilayer - Restricts polar compound movement - Proteins are integral or peripheral
49
What are the properties of phospholipids, glycolipids and fatty acids?
Joined by phosphodiester bonds Covalently attached carbohydrates Carboxyl groups at end of chain
50
What are the two membrane classes and their properties?
Phosphoglycerides: - Polar head attached to phosphate - 2 fatty acids esterified to glycerol backbone - Phosphate attached at position 3 on glycerol Sphingolipids: - Fatty acid joined to sphingosine - Membrane has 2 hydrophobic tails (1 = fatty acid residue, 1 = hydrocarbon tail)
51
What is the role of flippase, floppase and scramblase?
Flippase = moves phospholipids from outer to cytosolic leaflet Floppase = moves phospholipids from cytosolic to outer leaflet Scramblase = moves lipids either direction towards equilibrium
52
What are the properties of membrane proteins?
- Asymmetric orientation - Integral ones have transmembrane domains - Peripheral ones can be released from membrane by ionic solvents - Lipid anchored ones bond to inner / outer surface
53
What are medical examples of illnesses related to membranes?
Clostridium pertringens - anaerobic bacteria causes gangrene and secretes alpha toxin
54
What happens in cross-sectional studies and what are the bias, advantages and disadvantages? (example)
Look at prevalence of a specific disease in a population, at a specific time. - Information is gathered at the same point - Looks at how common things are - Typically on a sample, not a whole population - Must be free of bias Bias = Selection bias or information bias ``` Advantages = Quick, no follow-up, cheap, simple Disadvantages = Not useful for rare outcomes, can't assess causation ```
55
What happens in cohort studies and what are the bias, advantages and disadvantages? (example)
Monitor side effects / health implications of long-term use of a medication - Groups defined on exposure - Patients followed overtime to look for outcomes Bias = Selection bias, ascertainment bias, attrition bias ``` Advantages = Know exposure was prior to disease, easily look at multiple outcomes, direct incidence assessment, little recall of exposure bias, good for rare exposures Disadvantages = Poor for rare outcomes, slow, expensive, attrition bias ```
56
What happens in case control studies and what are the bias, advantages and disadvantages? (example)
Comparing lifestyle of patients with a disease compared to those in population without disease - Groups defined based on outcomes - Cases with outcome studies and controls who don't Bias = Selection bias, recall bias ``` Advantages = Good for rare outcomes with long exposure to disease latency, cheap, quick, easy study of multiple exposures, good for difficult follow-up Disadvantages = Bias, only one outcome studied, bad for rare exposure ```
57
What happens in ecological studies and what are the advantages and disadvantages? (example)
Comparison of disease prevalence in two different places at the same time - Association of outcome and exposure at population level - See relationship of populations and exposure and outcome ``` Advantages = quick, cheap, hypotheses generated, early study of association Disadvantages = Unequal ascertainment or recording of disease, differences in measurement of exposures, can't correct confounding factors, population relationships may not be true at individual level ```
58
What are the parts of cell cytoskeleton?
Actin microfilmanets = Form microvilli and stereocilia skeleton, have 7nm diameter of polar double stranded G actin helix Intermediate filaments = Support desosomes and interact with elements of cytoskeleton, have 10nm of fibres of various proteins twisted Microtubules = In cilia and flagallae, have 25nm hollow alpha and beta tubulin cylinders
59
What is the role of microvilli, what is cilia orientation and centrioles role?
Microvilli = increase SA, no movement Cilia = 9 + 2 orientation Centrioles = 9 + 0 pattern, organise microtubule assembly in cell division
60
What are the 6 cell junctions and their properties and purpose?
Zona occludens: - 5 layer appearance - Continuous intramembranous particle line - Prevent membrane movement from apical to lateal cell surface - Limit water movement between cells through intracellular / paracellular space Zonula adherens: - Provide stability by linking cytoskeleton of adjacent cells (requires calcium) - 20nm gap - Cell adhesion molecules Macula adherens (desmosomes): - Link intermediate filaments in cytoplasm - 30nm gap - Discoid (disc shape) - Specialised cadherens - Perpendicular to basement membrane Hemidesmosomes: - Face basement membrane - Integrins - Laminin - Collagen Communicating junction: - Allows direct communication with adjacent cells - Allows ion, AA, sugar, second messenger and metabolite passage - Permits coordinated cell activity - Connexons formed from connexins Extracellular matrix: - Provides mechanical and structural support - Has ground substance (GAGs) - Hydrophilic so attracts water and sodium - Has collagen and elastin
61
Diseases related to cells?
``` Elhers Danlos syndrome Marfans syndrome Scurvy Homecystimuria Lysosomal storage disorders ```
62
What are epithelia characteristics?
- Entirely cellular - Have cell polarity - Specialised cell contact - Lateral cell communication - Basal lamina separating from underlying tissue - Rapid cell turnover
63
How is epithelia classified?
- Number of cell layers ( 1 = simple, +1 = compound) - Shape of outermost cells (squamous, cuboidal, columnar) - Position of nuclei (stratified / pseudostratified) - Transitional - Ciliated (usually also pseudostratified)
64
What are the main functions of epithelia?
- Absorption (simple epithelia) - Protection (stratified epithelia) - Secretion - Sensory perception - Material movement (cilia) - Wound repair
65
What are the epithelial cell surface specialisations?
Microvilli = increase SA, core of microfilaments, anchored in terminal webs Cilia = apical surface, very numerous, transport materials across surface, microtubules Stereocilia = non-motile, microfilament core (modified microvilli) Basal infoldings = increase SA
66
What is the difference between exocrine and endocrine glands? What are the 3 types of exocrine glands?
Exocrine = duct forms for secretory cells below Endocrine = No duct, secrete into capillaries Eccrine - exocytosis and no cell loss Holocrine - full cell loss during secretion Apocrine - loss of apical surface cells as membrane bound vesicles
67
How can exocrine glands be classified?
- Simple tubular (large intestine) - Simple acinar (penile urethra) - Simple coiled tubular (sweat glands) - Simple branched tubular (stomach) - Simple branched acinar (sebaceous gland) - Compound branched tubular (duodenum) - Compound acinar (pancreas) - Compound tubule-acinar (salivary glands)
68
What are the characteristics of connective tissues? What does mesenchyme have to enable formation of connective tissues?
- ECM separates cells - Nerves and blood vessels in ECM - Cell communication - Slow cell turnover - Interaction of adhesion molecules with ECM Fibroblasts for ECM synthesis and maintenance Adipose cells for storage and mechanical effects Mast cells, macrophages and WBCs for defence
69
What are the two types of structural glycoproteins and their functions?
Filamentous: - Joins fibres together / to cells to form meshwork - Fibrillin links to elastin - Fibronectin links, via integrin, to cells and deposits collagen Non-filamentous: - Links cells and ECM - Laminin is major basement membrane component - Entactin binds laminin to type IV collagen - Tenascin binds to integrins
70
What diseases and auto-immune disorders are associated with connective tissue?
``` Elhers Danlos syndrome Marfans syndrome Scurvy Homocystimuria Lysosomal storage disorders Fibroma ``` Systematic lupus erythematosus Rheumatoid arthritis Scleroderma Mixed connective tissue disease
71
What are the properties of cartilage?
- Chondroblast (GAGs and large proteoglycans) - Turgid hyaline cartilage - Tensile strength - Tough - Resists deformation ECM = ground substance, fibres, chrondroblast (secrete matrix) and chrondrocyte (maintain matrix)
72
How is cartilage growth and maintained?
Matrix = water permeable so delivers dissolved oxygen and nutrients and removes waste Relies on diffusion as is mainly non-vascular Interstitial and appositional growth
73
What are the types of cartilage? What causes cartilage damage?
Hyaline cartilage = articular surfaces, tracheal rings Fibrocartilage = invertebral discs, pubic symphysis Elastic cartilage = external ear, auditory canal, epiglottis Genes (chondrodysplasias) Arthritis Sports injuries
74
What is stress? what is the difference between acute and chronic stress? What are life events?
A physical or psychological response to prepare one to cope with a particular demand ``` Acute = response to an urgent demand Chronic = stress response activated for a long time period ``` Positive or negative change in one's life which requires adjustment
75
What are the events of the stress response?
- Activation of sympathetic nervous system - Activation of HPA axis - Amygdala processes emotion and evaluates events - Hypothalamus activated pituitary gland and controls bodily functions - Pituitary gland secretes hormones which have effect on other body parts - Hippocampus is involved in memory formation and retrieval - Prefrontal cortex carries glucocorticoid receptors
76
What happens in HPA axis with acute stress?
- HPA response triggered so + cortisol release by adrenal cortex - Cortisol attached to glucocorticoid receptors in brain - Cortisol production by brain is inhibited by attachment to receptors - No more cortisol production
77
What happens in HPA axis with chronic stress?
- HPA response constantly triggered so constant cortisol release - Too much in blood so body can't breakdown - Glucocorticoid receptors damaged by excess cortisol - No inhibition of cortisol release so remains constant
78
What are physical, social, behavioural and psychological symptoms of stress?
Headaches, insomnia, nausea Lateness, decreases social engagement Difficulty concentrating, brain fog, anxiety and depression
79
What are direct effects of stress on the body?
- Damage from excess cortisol - Reduced T-cell activity - Reduced healing time - Activated platelets (CVS) - Increase in lipids (CVS) - Plaque promotion on artery walls (CVS)
80
What are indirect effects of stress on body?
- Smoking, alcohol - Exposed to danger - Health protective factors affected - Uptake of medical care influenced
81
What are the 2 types of glial cells and their function? What are their nuclei like?
Astrocytes = cover neuron parts with no synapses or myelin and take up and provide nutrients to neurons from capillaries (form blood-brain barrier) Oligodendrocytes = make myelin from thin spiralled oligodendrocyte layers and allow saltatory conduction through this ``` Astrocyte = larger, oval, lighter, finer granula Oligodendrocyte = round, dark, small Microglia = small, dark, longitudinal ```
82
What is the function of microglial cells? What is the difference between ganglia and nuclei?
Involved in immune system Maintain CNS Phagocytose and act as APCs ``` Ganglia = made from clusters of PNS perikarya Nuclei = made from clusters of CNS perikarya ```
83
What is satellite cells, grey matter, white matter, epineurium, perineurium, endoneurium?
Satellite cells = supports cells for PNS ganglia Grey matter = area with neuron cluster White matter = predominantly myelinated nerve connections Epineurium = collagenous connective tissue Perineurium = forms seal by bundling axons into fascicles and forms a sheath of flat cells Endoneurium = loose connective tissue
84
What is the purpose of a membrane potential and what affects it? What specific drugs affect it?
Homeostasis, transport, signal transduction, intercellular communication Drugs, toxins, venoms ``` CNS drugs Cardiovascular drugs Gastrointestinal drugs Respiratory drugs Urinary and myometrial drugs ```
85
What is diffusion potential and steady state?
Voltage where electrostatic force on ion is opposite and equals to chemical force from concentration gradient Electrochemical equilibrium
86
What does it mean when Vm = Ek and Vm > Ek? What is the role of Na+ / K+ - ATPase? What inhibits sodium pump?
Virtually no ion movement across membrane Constant ion flow across membrane Enzyme which replenishes lost K+ and removes Na+ accumulation in cell and maintains Na+ and K+ concentration gradient Digoxin and ouabain
87
What is difference between AP upstroke (positive feedback) and AP downstroke (negative feedback)?
Membrane depolarisation Increase in Na+ permeability Increase in Na+ influx Membrane depolarisation Increase in K+ permeability Increase in K+ outflow Membrane hyperpolarisation
88
What is the difference between conduction and propagation?
Continuous wave of depolarisation Interrupted wave of depolarisation due to nodes of Ranvier and saltatory conduction
89
What is a reflex? What information does dorsal and ventral spine receive? What is the spinal structure?
Unlearned, automatic response to a stimulus ``` Dorsal = nerve route from efferent nerves, usually sensory input Ventral = nerve route from afferent enrves, usually motor output ``` 7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral, 3-5 fused coccygeal
90
What are the properties of a reflex? What are the properties of volitional control?
- Stimulus response - Innate - Hard wired - Pre-programmed - Internal desire - Learned - Programmed
91
What are the types of reflex? What is Babinski's reflex?
``` Superficial = blink, sneeze, toes curl Deep = patellar Visceral = pupillary, bladder ``` Flexor response = toes curl down (normal) Extensor response = toes curl up (abnormal)
92
What is synaptic transmission? How is the information transformed?
Transmission of information from neuron to target Electrical to chemical neurotransmitters
93
What are pre and post-synaptic events?
Influx of Ca+ in presynaptic knob Neurotransmitter binds to receptors on post-synaptic knob, ion channels open, change in potential, fast and reversible
94
What happens at the inhibitory synapse?
- Ionotropic event where Cl- influx, hyperpolarisation of post-synaptic cell - Inhibitory post-synaptic potential means decreased chance of AP firing as Vm further from threshold value - Reduced excitability
95
What are the main abilities of babies and at what age?
``` Focal length = 20-30cm 3 days = distinguish mother's voice 6 days = identify mother's smell Preterm massage = promotes growth 32 weeks gestation = all of baby body is touch sensitive Newborns = turn head toward sound 1-2 days = can recognise mother ```
96
What are signs of attachment? What causes disruption in attachment? What is the purpose of attachment?
- Separation anxiety - Less afraid with attachment figure - Social referencing Repeated hospitalisation, post-natal depression, day-care For survival
97
How is attachment classified?
- Secure attachment - Insecure / resistant attachment - Insecure / avoidant attachment - Disorganised attachment
98
What are implications for doctors for attachment? What are implications for mothers for attachment?
- Reduced family separation - Support and preparation for parents in medical setting - Continuity of care with child - Insecure attachment = poor emotional response = self-harm - + wellbeing and adaptation to illness with secure attachment - + anxiety = poorer health, more pain, more mental health issues
99
What are the two joint types and their properties?
Fibrous joint = bones joined by fibrous tissue Cartilaginous joint = bones joined by hyaline cartilage (primary) or fibrocartilage (secondary) Synovial joint = bones joined by fibrous capsule, separated by joint cavity (i.e. ball and socket joint)
100
What does HPC, OE, DH, PMH, FH, SH, eGFR, HbA1c and LFT mean?
``` History of present complaint On examination Drug history Past medical history Family history Social history Estimated GFR Glucose levels over period of time Liver function test ```
101
What are the two types of chromosomes?
Metacentric - central centromere and equal arms Acrocentric - eccentric centromere and unequal arms
102
What is Vmax? What does high and low Km mean?
Reaction rate when substrate concentration is infinitely high ``` High = low substrate affinity Low = high substrate affinity ```
103
What are the drawbacks of Lineweaver-Burk equation? What does it resemble? What is the y-intercept value? What is the x-intercept value? What is the gradient?
- Unequal point distribution - Emphasizes points with low substrate conc. y = mx + c 1 / Vmax -1 / Km Km / Vmax
104
What are the characteristics of cholesterol and what is its purpose?
- Only one hydroxyl group - Not really water soluble Maintains membrane fluidity
105
What is the function and contents of ECM?
- Mechanical / structural support - Extracellular communication ``` Ground substance (GAGs, proteogylcans) Fibres (collagen, elastin) ```
106
What are the properties of ground substance and GAGs?
Ground substance = large volume for small mass, hydrophilic GAGs = Acidic, negatively charged OH, COOH
107
What is the role of rubrospinal tract?
Voluntary movement of large muscles of limb
108
What is the role of corticospinal tract?
Controls muscles of limbs
109
What is the role of reticulospinal tract?
Involved in motor coordination, muscle tone, autonomic functions and pain
110
What is the role of vestibulospinal tract?
Posture and balance
111
What is the role of tectospinal tract?
Head and eye movement
112
What are the dorsal columns? (ascending funiculi)
Gracile and cuneate
113
What are the spinocerebellar columns? (ascending funiculi)
Dorsal and ventral
114
What are the spinothalamic columns? (ascending funiculi)
Lateral and anterior