1 Flashcards

1
Q

As the generations of cephalosporins increase, their effectiveness against gram-negative bacteria decreases.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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2
Q

Nitrofurans are bactericidal in their mode of action.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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3
Q

Primary choice cephalosporine to treat canine pyoderma systemically:

A. Cephalexin
B. cefquinome
C. cefoperazone
D. Cefotaxime

A

A. Cephalexin

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4
Q

What are the chemical properties of aminoglycosides that determine their pharmacokinetics?

A.Negatively charged,polar and hydrophilic

B.Negatively charged, apolar and lipophilic compounds

C.Positively charged, polar and hydrophilic compounds

D.Negatively charged, apolar and hydrophilic compounds.

A

C.Positively charged, polar and hydrophilic compounds

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5
Q

Which of the following substances have positive inotropic effect?

A. both of them
B. none of them
C. pimobendan
D. digoxin

A

A. both of them

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6
Q

Loperamide is given in severe bacterial enteritis

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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7
Q

Due to its low therapeutic index, oclacitinib cannot be used in increased dose.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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8
Q

How much meloxicam injection is needed for the treatment of a cattle (bw: 400kg), if
the dose is 0.5 mg/kg (bw) and the concentration of the product is 20mg/ml?

A. 10ml
B. 100ml
C. 40ml
D. 2ml

A

A. 10ml

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9
Q

Lokivetmab and oklacitinib have antiinflammatory and analgesic properties.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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10
Q

While using chloramphenicol wearing gloves is recommended to avoid the possible
development of aplastic anaemia as a side effect of the usage.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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11
Q

During the use of prolonged-acting insulin derivatives, moderate hyperglycaemia may result due to a rebound effect.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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12
Q

GnRH analogues are often used orally
A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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13
Q

Salmeterol has long duration of action up to 12 hours

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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14
Q

Lincomycin can be used with high safety in the treatment of respiratory tract
infections in horses.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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15
Q

The canine congestive heart failure stage B1 do not need any treatment.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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16
Q

Salinomycin and diclazuril are coccidiostatic agent that are authorized for rabbits as well.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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17
Q

Which substance acts via nonspecific physical interation?

A. magnesium sulfate
B. Both of them
C. Mannitol
D. none of them

A

B. Both of them

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18
Q

Which of the following substances can increase mucociliary movement?

A. bromhexin
B. both of them
C. N-acetylcysteine
D. none of them

A

B. both of them

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19
Q

Which of the following processes involves the formation of toxic metabolites?

A. Neither
B. Reactions leading to glutathione deficiency
C. Modification of sulfhydryl group
D. Both

A

D. Both

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20
Q

Povidone iodine can be used for …

A. all of them
B .skin disinfection
C. mammary gland disinfection
D. mucus membrane disinfection

A

A. all of them

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21
Q

Bacitracin is ineffective against Gram-negative bacteria.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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22
Q

Which substance decreases the production of aqueous humor?

A. both of them
B. timolol
C. none of them
D. dorzolamide

A

A. both of them

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23
Q

In the treatment of BRDC, penicillin and cephalosporins can be active against both fastidious Gram-negative bacteria and mycoplasmae.

A. True
B .False

A

B .False

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24
Q

Narrow spectrum penicillins include…

A. piperacillin
B. amoxicillin
C. benzylpenicillin-procaine
D. ampicillin

A

C. benzylpenicillin-procaine

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25
10-20% of sulfonamides are excreted in the urine in an active form. A. True B. False
B. False
26
Opioid’s pharmacological effects include: A. laxative effect B. sedation C. expectorant effect D. all of them
B. sedation
27
Pharmacokinetics deals with absorption and excretion, while pharmacodynamics deals with metabolism and excretion. A. True B. False
B. False
28
Some NSAIDs decrease aggregation of thrombocytes by decreasing TXA synthesis. A. True B. False
B. False
29
For the treatment of canine gastric ulcers the recommended substance(s) is (are): A. famotidine B. omeprazole C. sucralphate D. Famotidine+omeprazole
B. omeprazole
30
Decreasing the blood glucose levels is a possible side effects of glucocorticoids. A. True B. False
B. False
31
Opioids have mucolytic effect in the respiratory tract. A. True B. False
B. False
32
Spectinomycin has a bacteriostatic mode of action. A. True B. False
B. False
33
An AVM(authorized for cattle) has the following WPs: cattle meat: 0day, cattle milk: 0 hour. How long should the WP be in the following cases? A. Goat meat B. Chicken eggs C. Swine meat
A. Goat meat -> 0 days B. Chicken eggs -> 10 days C. Swine meat -> 1 day
34
Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description: Reversible inhibitor of acetylcholinesterase - Propoxur - afloxlaner - selamectin - deltamethrin - diazinon - atipamezole: amitraz
Propoxur
35
Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description: Orally given ectoparasiticidal agent with one month duration of action: - Propoxur - afloxlaner - selamectin - deltamethrin - diazinon - atipamezole: amitraz
afloxlaner
36
Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description: macrocyclic lactone effective against fleas : - Propoxur - afloxlaner - selamectin - deltamethrin - diazinon - atipamezole: amitraz
selamectin
37
Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description: Repellent antiparasitic substance with “Knock down” effect: - Propoxur - afloxlaner - selamectin - deltamethrin - diazinon - atipamezole: amitraz
deltamethrin
38
Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description: Irreversible inhibitor of acetylcholine aesterase : - Propoxur - afloxlaner - selamectin - deltamethrin - diazinon - atipamezole: amitraz
diazinon
39
Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description: It’s antidote for the case of intoxication: - Propoxur - afloxlaner - selamectin - deltamethrin - diazinon - atipamezole: amitraz
atipamezole: amitraz
40
It can cause colic symptoms, tremor,sweating in horses: A. eCG B. dinoprost C. none of these D. altrenogest
B. dinoprost
41
How can gentamicin be used in adult ruminants? A. both of them B. orally C. as injection D. none of them
C. as injection
42
Amantadine and rimantadine inhibit the release of virus. A. True B. False
A. True
43
Azaperone is a neuroleptic agent that can only be used in dogs A. True B. False
B. False
44
Which of these substances cause immunosuppression? A. ipratropium B. gamithromycin C. cyclophosphamide D. nimesulide
C. cyclophosphamide
45
Which of the equations are true for most drugs? A. none of them B. TD50>LD50 C. ED50 D. TD50
C. ED50
46
Febantel is a prodrug, that is metabolized to albendazole in the body. A. True B. False
B. False
47
Which agents have such excellent pharmacokinetics that they are the most important drugs for the treatment of meningitis after crossing the blood-brain barrier? A. cefalexin and cefapirin B. Ceftazidime and cefoperazone C. ceftriaxone and cefotaxime D. cefuroxime and cefaclor
C. ceftriaxone and cefotaxime
48
The methylxanthines block the adenosine receptor. A. True B. False
A. True
49
traconazole can be used in dogs, but it should not be used in cats due to its toxicity. A. True B. False
A. True
50
. Diazinon can cause irreversible inhibition of AchE. A. True B. False
A. True
51
In these animals, porto-renal system should be considered in case of injectable drug administration? A. fish B.reptiles C. mammals D. bees
B.reptiles
52
What is the MIC value of an antibiotic? A. minimum bacterial concentration B. mean inhibitory concentration C. minimum inhibitory concentration D. Maximum inhibitory concentration E. Maximum bacterial concentration F. mean bacterial concentration
C. minimum inhibitory concentration
53
Phenoxymethylpenicillin is used parenterally in swine for the treatment of Clostridium perfringens C necrotic enteritis. A. True B. False
B. False
54
Clotrimazole can be used against yeast and dermatophytes. A. True B. False
A. True
55
Which of the following drug actions is structure dependent? A. activation of receptor B. none of them C. inhibition of enzymes D. both of them
D. both of them
56
Pair the anticonvulsant agents with their corresponding statement. Anticonvulsive agent given intranasally in status epilepticus
midazolam
57
In the treatment of dehydration, dose of rehydrating infusion can be calculated by dividing the dehydration percentage with the body weight. A. true B. false
B. false
58
In the case of bacitracin, which is the metal ion with which its compound leads to a 10-20X increase in potency? A. Manganese B. Zinc C. Iron D. Copper
B. Zinc
59
In the therapeutic index of a drug is small, it is difficult to overdose. A. True B. False
B. False
60
Which of the following substances can be used for the treatment of proliferative enteropathy caused by lawsonia intracellularis in swine? A. clindamycin B. doxycycline C. tiamulin D. colistin
C. tiamulin
61
this animal is the most sensitive to chloramine: A. fish B. chihuahua C. horse D. cat
A. fish
62
Penicillins can be effectively combined with bacteriostatic antibiotics. A. true B. false
B. false
63
ACE inhibitors act very rapidly and intravenous application is recommended in life-threatening conditions. A. True B. False
B. False
64
In case of oral drug administration, absorbents and antacids can decrease absorption. A. True B. False
A. True
65
Pair the anticonvulsant agents with their corresponding statement. Antiepileptic agent inducing CYP enzymes in the liver : - imepitoin - primidone - Phenobarbital - KBr - levetiracetam
Phenobarbital
66
Pair the anticonvulsant agents with their corresponding statement. Antiepileptic agent inducing microsomal CYP enzymes in the liver : - imepitoin - primidone - Phenobarbital - KBr - levetiracetam
imepitoin
67
Pair the anticonvulsant agents with their corresponding statement. Antiepileptic agent recommended to use only in the human medicine : - imepitoin - primidone - Phenobarbital - KBr - levetiracetam
primidone
68
Pair the anticonvulsant agents with their corresponding statement. Antiepileptic agent with the possible side effects of: polyphagia,pruritus, paraparesis: - imepitoin - primidone - Phenobarbital - KBr - levetiracetam
KBr
69
Pair the anticonvulsant agents with their corresponding statement. Antiepileptic agent with minimal side effects applied TID-QID PO for long-term management of epilepsy: - imepitoin - primidone - Phenobarbital - KBr - levetiracetam
levetiracetam
70
Pair the active substances with the expected duration of action. benzylpenicillin-procaine: - 4-6 hours - 12-24 hours - 72-96 hour - 6-10 days - 18-23 days
12-24 hours
71
Pair the active substances with the expected duration of action. tulathromycin: - 4-6 hours - 12-24 hours - 72-96 hour - 6-10 days - 18-23 days
6-10 days
72
Pair the active substances with the expected duration of action. tildipirosin: - 4-6 hours - 12-24 hours - 72-96 hour - 6-10 days - 18-23 days
18-23 days
73
Pair the active substances with the expected duration of action. benzylpenicillin-Na/K : - 4-6 hours - 12-24 hours - 72-96 hour - 6-10 days - 18-23 days
4-6 hours
74
Pair the active substances with the expected duration of action. benzylpenicillin-benzazine: - 4-6 hours - 12-24 hours - 72-96 hour - 6-10 days - 18-23 days
72-96 hour
75
The mechanism of action of tetracyclines is inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis at the 50S subunit of the ribosome. A. True B. False
B. False
76
What is the spectrum of action of sulfonamides? A. Gram-positive antibacterial action B. coccidial action C. All of them D. Gram-negative antibacterial action
C. All of them
77
Metomidate belongs to the steroid anaesthetics? A. True B. False
B. False
78
4. Which of the following agents has excellent absorption after oral administration in pigs? A. Amoxycillin B. Florfenicol C. Gentamicin D. Colistin
B. Florfenicol
79
The mutant selection window (MSW) means the concentration range between MIC and MPC values of antibiotics. A. True B. False
A. True
80
Ester-type local anaethetics are hydrolysed primarily by plasma esterases. A. True B. False
A. True
81
In canine congestive heart failure stage D it is effective to dilate the pulmonary arteries A. telmisartan B. sildenafil C. ramipril D. Pimobendan
B. sildenafil
82
How much 20% glucose solution is needed to prepare 100ml of 5% solution? A. 50ml B. 12.5ml C. 25ml D. 75ml
C. 25ml
83
Diclofenac is anti-inflammatory drug that can be used safely in dogs A. True B .False
B .False
84
Which of the following substances can have urethra sphincter relaxing effect? A. both of them B. Doxazosin C. Phenoxybenzamine D. non of them
A. both of them
85
It may causes follicular cysts or pyometra in small animals. A. cloprostenol B. fertirelin C. eCG D. megestrol acetate
D. megestrol acetate
86
Average daily fluid uptake of dogs is 40-60ml/kg/day. A. True B. False
A. True
87
How are fluoroquinolones excreted in the first place? A. Active form via the liver B. Inactive form via the liver C. Active form via the liver D. Inactive form via the kidney
A. Active form via the liver
88
This drug can inhibit the CYP450 enzymes: A. codein B. gentamicin C. ketoconazole D. phenobarbital
C. ketoconazole
89
Phenobarbital can be used for the longterm control of epilepsy as well as for the treatment of status epilepticus. A. True B. False
A. True
90
Acrolein-caused haemorrhagic cystitis can be alleviated by mensa A. True B. False
A. True
91
n case of external drug administration, systemic effects cannot occur. A. True B. False
B. False
92
Eye drops usually have shorter duration of action than eye ointments, therefor eye drops should be administered less frequently on a daily basis. A. True B. False
A. True
93
Which of the following side effects are typical of phenicols? A. Yellow discoloration of bones B. Anaemia, immunosuppression C. Photosensitization D. Explicit kidney damage
B. Anaemia, immunosuppression
94
Match the active ingredient to the appropriate description macrocyclic lactone that active against nematodes and ectoparasites: - Fenbendazole - Praziquantel - selamectin - Pirantel embonate - Melarsomine
selamectin
95
Match the active ingredient to the appropriate description Antiparasitic agent only effective against tapeworms. : - Fenbendazole - Praziquantel - selamectin - Pirantel embonate - Melarsomine
Praziquantel
96
Match the active ingredient to the appropriate description This antiparasitic is effective against taenia and Giardia species : - Fenbendazole - Praziquantel - selamectin - Pirantel embonate - Melarsomine
Fenbendazole
97
Match the active ingredient to the appropriate description Antiparasitic agent effective against intestinal nematodes : - Fenbendazole - Praziquantel - selamectin - Pirantel embonate - Melarsomine
Pirantel embonate
98
Match the active ingredient to the appropriate description A medicine active against adult Dirofilaria. : - Fenbendazole - Praziquantel - selamectin - Pirantel embonate - Melarsomine
Melarsomine