3 Flashcards by Elise Ramberg

Which of the following substances can have antibiotics penetration enhancing effects?

A. bromhexin
B. none of them
C. N- acetylcysteine
D. both of them

D. both of them

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Tulathromycin is ion trapped in white blood cells due to the ionization of amino groups intracellularly in the presence of many protons

A. True
B. False

A. True

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Penicillins are…

A. Inhibitors of folate synthesis
B. DNA damaging agents
C. inhibitors of cell wall synthesis
D. inhibitors of protein synthesis

C. inhibitors of cell wall synthesis

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The first generation of cephalosporins has the most pronounced efficacy against Gram positive bacteria

A. True
B. False

A. True

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Long-acting tetracyclines have an excellent distribution, even crossing the blood-brain barrier, making them suitable for the treatment of neurological infection

A. True
B. False

A. True

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In horse, penicillins can be effective in the treatment of …

A. Abcesses, wound infections
B. both of them
C. strangles
D. none of them

B. both of them

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Acrolein-caused haemorrhage cystitis can be alleviated by mesna

A. True
B. False

A. True

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In the ligand-receptor binding, a high dissociation constant means lower affinity of the ligand to the receptor

A. True
B. False

A. True

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Potentiated sulphonamides are effective against mycoplasma and mycobacterium species

A. True
B. False

B. False

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HES infusions with higher molar substitution have longer half-life, however, the risk of liver side effects is also higher in case of them

A. True
B. False

B. False

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Which of the following adverse reaction is specific to fluorquinolones?

A. vitamin K deficiency
B. genotoxic and fetal effects
C. allergy
D. reversible retinopathy and risk off complete loss of vision when enrofloxacin is given in cats

D. reversible retinopathy and risk off complete loss of vision when enrofloxacin is given in cats

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Pair the active ingredients with their characterisation:

spectinomycin

the alternatives:
1. The safest aminoglycoside with pronounced anti-pseudomonas aeruginosa activity
2. Used almost exclusively in combination with narrow spectrum penicillins
3. also has antiparasitic activity
4. Also used as eyedrops, also has anti-pseudomonas activity
5. With pronounced effect anti-Mycoplasma activity
6. The most toxic aminoglycoside

with pronounced anti-Mycoplasma activity

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Pair the active ingredients with their characterisation:

Tobramycin

Also used as eye drops, also has anti-Pseudomonas activity

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Pair the active ingredients with their characterisation:

Streptomycin

Used almost exclusively in combination with narrow spectrum penicillins

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Pair the active ingredients with their characterisation:

Paromomycin

Also has entiparasitic activity

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Pair the active ingredients with their characterisation:

Amikacin

The safest aminoglycoside with pronounced anti.pseudomonas aeruginosa activity

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Pair the active ingredients with their characterisation:

Neomycin

most toxic aminoglycoside

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Medetomidine is authorised to use mainly in dogs and cats

A. True
B. False

A. True

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Florfenicol belongs to AMEG category D, meaning its use is almost risk-free from a human health point of view

A. True
B. False

B. False

Florfenicol belongs to AMEG C = Caution

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Pair the drugs used in ophthalmology to their description:

Prostaglandin analogue used for the treatment of glaucoma

The alternatives:
1. Cyclosporine
2. Dorzolamide
3. Tropicamide
4. Latanoprost
5. None of them

latanoprost

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Pair the drugs used in ophthalmology to their description:

Short acting parasympatholytic that is used for funds examination

The alternatives:
1. Cyclosporine
2. Dorzolamide
3. Tropicamide
4. Latanoprost
5. None of them

Tropicamide

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Pair the drugs used in ophthalmology to their description:

Long acting parasympatholytic used for the treatment of glaucoma

The alternatives:
1. Cyclosporine
2. Dorzolamide
3. Tropicamide
4. Latanoprost
5. None of them

none of them

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Pair the drugs used in ophthalmology to their description:

it can be used in ERU (equine recurrent uveitis) as an implant

The alternatives:
1. Cyclosporine
2. Dorzolamide
3. Tropicamide
4. Latanoprost
5. None of them

Cyclosporine

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Pair the drugs used in ophthalmology to their description:

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor used for the treatment of glaucoma

The alternatives:
1. Cyclosporine
2. Dorzolamide
3. Tropicamide
4. Latanoprost
5. None of them

Dorzolamide

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Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description: Antiparasitic agent that can be sequestered by intralipid emulsion exclusion (ILE) from the bloodstream in case of intoxication The alternatives: 1. Fluralaner 2. Piriproxifen 3. Fluvalinate 4. Amitraz 5. Moxidectin 6. Permethrin

Permethrin

Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description: Inhibits metamorphosis The alternatives: 1. Fluralaner 2. Piriproxifen 3. Fluvalinate 4. Amitraz 5. Moxidectin 6. Permethrin

Piriproxifen

Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description: Izoxazoline safe in pregnant dogs The alternatives: 1. Fluralaner 2. Piriproxifen 3. Fluvalinate 4. Amitraz 5. Moxidectin 6. Permethrin

Fluralaner

Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description: When overdosed, mainly orally, alpha 2-agonist side effect are seen The alternatives: 1. Fluralaner 2. Piriproxifen 3. Fluvalinate 4. Amitraz 5. Moxidectin 6. Permethrin

Amitraz

Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description: Pirethroid effective against varroosis in honey bees The alternatives: 1. Fluralaner 2. Piriproxifen 3. Fluvalinate 4. Amitraz 5. Moxidectin 6. Permethrin

Fluvalinate

Pair the agents used against ectoparasites to their description: Macrocyclic lacton highly effective against scabies, demodicosis and myasis The alternatives: 1. Fluralaner 2. Piriproxifen 3. Fluvalinate 4. Amitraz 5. Moxidectin 6. Permethrin

Moxidectin

Which of the following substances might cause heart remodelling? A. furosemide B. none of them C. both of them D. ACE inhibitors

C. both of them

Second generation fluoroquinolone are not effective against intracellular pathogens A. True B. False

B. False

Medetomidine is an alpha 2-antagonist A. True B. False

B. False Medetomidine is a Alpha-2-agonist

Barbiturates do not have a muscle relaxant effect A. True B. False

B. False

The average duration of action of benzylpenicillin - procaine is 12-24 hours A. True B. False

A. True

Theobromine inhibits the catecholamine uptake A. True B. False

B. False

Behaviour modifier agent for the management aural lick dermatitis in the dog A. trilostane B. clomipramine C. diazepam D. teobromine

B. clomipramine

Because of its high protein binding carprofen can cross the blood-milk barrier in dairy cattle: A. True B. False

B. False cannot enter the milk because they are bound to albumin and only the free dorm of the drug can penetrate the blood-milk barrier

Guaifenesin decreases ciliary movement and enhances mucus secretion: A. True B. False

B. False Does not change mucous secretion, enhances ciliary movement

Potassium bromide should only be used in epilepsy in dogs because it causes severe pulmonary edema in cats A. True B. False

True

How much 40% glucose solution is needed to prepare 100ml of 10% solution A. 75 ml B. 25 ml C. 12,5 ml D. 50 ml

B. 25 ml

Propofol has amerced analgesic effect A. True B. False

B. False Propofol is a muscle relaxant, used in combination for analgesia

Valnemulin is excellent for the treatment of diarrhoea caused by salmonella A. True B. False

B. False

If long-term prednisolone is to be used, 48- hour administration (alternative day therapy) is recommended A. True B. False

A. True

Application of xylazine is contraindicated in cats A. True B. False

B. False

Azithromycin can only penetrate the airways and bone in very small amounts, so it is not suitable for the treatment of infections of these organs A. True B. False

B. False

Pair the substances used ofr inducing or inhibiting vomiting to their corresponding statements: Serotonin antagonist antiemetic used PO/IV chemotherapy induced vomiting The alternatives: 1. Dimenhydrinate 2. Apomorphine 3. Metoclopramide 4. Ondansetrone 5. Maropitant 6. Acepromazine

ondansetrone

Pair the substances used ofr inducing or inhibiting vomiting to their corresponding statements: Peripheral antiemetic suitable for emesis from all types of origin The alternatives: 1. Dimenhydrinate 2. Apomorphine 3. Metoclopramide 4. Ondansetrone 5. Maropitant 6. Acepromazine

maropitant

Pair the substances used ofr inducing or inhibiting vomiting to their corresponding statements: Antiemetic agent potentially increase the clinical signs of preudopregnancy The alternatives: 1. Dimenhydrinate 2. Apomorphine 3. Metoclopramide 4. Ondansetrone 5. Maropitant 6. Acepromazine

acepromazin

Pair the substances used ofr inducing or inhibiting vomiting to their corresponding statements: antiemetic agent used to avoid hypersensitivity reaction caused by vaccination The alternatives: 1. Dimenhydrinate 2. Apomorphine 3. Metoclopramide 4. Ondansetrone 5. Maropitant 6. Acepromazine

dimenhydrinate

Pair the substances used ofr inducing or inhibiting vomiting to their corresponding statements: Antiemetic agent having central and peripheral effect as well, suitable for increasing the motility of the duodenum The alternatives: 1. Dimenhydrinate 2. Apomorphine 3. Metoclopramide 4. Ondansetrone 5. Maropitant 6. Acepromazine

metoclopramide

Pair the substances used ofr inducing or inhibiting vomiting to their corresponding statements: used in dogs, applied SC, non readministerable opioid emetic agent The alternatives: 1. Dimenhydrinate 2. Apomorphine 3. Metoclopramide 4. Ondansetrone 5. Maropitant 6. Acepromazine

apomorphine

Match the names of the active ingredients with the appropriate statement: Used for induction of abortion in dogs The alternatives: 1. Altrenogtest 2. Progesterone 3. Aglepristone 4. Estriol 5. Proligestone

aglepristione

Match the names of the active ingredients with the appropriate statement: oral drug for oestrus synchronisation in horse The alternatives: 1. Altrenogtest 2. Progesterone 3. Aglepristone 4. Estriol 5. Proligestone

altrenogest

Match the names of the active ingredients with the appropriate statement: used in dogs to treat hormone-dependent urinary incontinence due to sphincter dysfunction The alternatives: 1. Altrenogtest 2. Progesterone 3. Aglepristone 4. Estriol 5. Proligestone

estriol

Match the names of the active ingredients with the appropriate statement: vaginal drug delivery system for the regulation of oestrus cycle of cows and heifers The alternatives: 1. Altrenogtest 2. Progesterone 3. Aglepristone 4. Estriol 5. Proligestone

progesterone

Match the names of the active ingredients with the appropriate statement: active substance for injection to prevent oestrus in dogs and cats The alternatives: 1. Altrenogtest 2. Progesterone 3. Aglepristone 4. Estriol 5. Proligestone

proligestone

dogs are more sensitive to cyclophosphamide treatment compared to cats. A. True B. False

A. True

if we increase the dose of time-dependent bactericidal antibiotics, it will result in a quicker killing of bacteria A. True B. False

B. False killing speed is not affected. Much more important to be given for a correct time

EPO and darbepoetin- alpha should be applied parenterally only A. True B. False

A. True

Structure-dependent drug action can occur via receptors and other targets (e.g enzymes, DNA, transporters) as well A. True B. False

A. True

How much meloxicam injection is needed for the treatment of a horse (bw: 400 kg), if the dose is 0.6 mg/kg (bw) and the concentration of the product is 20 mg/ml ? A. 12ml B. 2ml C. 10ml D. 40 ml

A. 12ml

The renal toxicity of NSAIDs is generally reduced during anaesthesia A. True B. False

B. False

Pair the anti fungal drugs to their mechanisms of action! plasma membrane stability inhibitor (polyene) The alternatives: 1. Griseofulvin 2. Terbinafin 3. Nystatin

Nystatin

Pair the anti fungal drugs to their mechanisms of action! Ergosterol synthesis inhibitor The alternatives: 1. Griseofulvin 2. Terbinafin 3. Nystatin

Terbinafin

Pair the anti fungal drugs to their mechanisms of action! fungal mitosis inhibitor The alternatives: 1. Griseofulvin 2. Terbinafin 3. Nystatin

Griseofulvin

In the calculation of the therapeutic index, the drugs LDS50 value is divided with their ED50 value A. True B. False

A. True

The long-term management of epilepsy must be started if the status epilepticus lasted for more than one minute A. True B. False

B. False Start long-term treatment if: Last longer than 5 minutes Multiple seizures within 3-6 months

Packaged of authorised veterinary medicines should always include information about the active substance, dosage form, concentration and target species of the product A. True B. False

A. True

Antibacterial agent topically used in Gr-otitis externa: A. polymyxin-B B. spectinomycin C. pradofloxacin D. metronidazole

A. polymyxin-B

approx 55% of hypotonic crystalloid infusion is distributed in the IS fluid compartment A. True B. False

B. False

Which of the following substances can have antiarrhytmic effect? A. propanolol B. stall C. both of them D. none of them

C. both of them

Pair the active substance to the appropriate description: Less potent disinfectant, it does not kill bacterial spores The alternatives: 1. Chlorinated lime 2. Glutaraldehyde 3. Benzalkonimu cholride 4. Sodium hypochlorite 5. Ethyl alcohol

Ethyl alcohol

Pair the active substance to the appropriate description: Corrosivee agent, its mechanism is the formation of short life free oxygen radicals The alternatives: 1. Chlorinated lime 2. Glutaraldehyde 3. Benzalkonimu cholride 4. Sodium hypochlorite 5. Ethyl alcohol

Sodium hypochlorite

Pair the active substance to the appropriate description: Non-corrosive but irritative disinfectant, less influenced by impurities The alternatives: 1. Chlorinated lime 2. Glutaraldehyde 3. Benzalkonimu cholride 4. Sodium hypochlorite 5. Ethyl alcohol

Glutaraldehyde

Pair the active substance to the appropriate description: White powder, its watery solution can be used to disinfect the walls of stables The alternatives: 1. Chlorinated lime 2. Glutaraldehyde 3. Benzalkonimu cholride 4. Sodium hypochlorite 5. Ethyl alcohol

Chlorinated lime

Pair the active substance to the appropriate description: It is a combination of a halogen disinfectant and a cationic detergent The alternatives: 1. Chlorinated lime 2. Glutaraldehyde 3. Benzalkonimu cholride 4. Sodium hypochlorite 5. Ethyl alcohol

Benzalkonium chloride

Put the local anaesthetic according to their toxicity in increasing order Lidocaine, Bupivacaine, Procaine, Mepivacaine

1. Procaine 2. Lidocaine 3. Mepivacaine 4. Bupivacaine

Pair the active ingredient to the appropriate description: Macrocyclic lactone, active against nematodes and ectoparasites The alternatives: 1. Triclabendazole 2. Ivermectin 3. Closantel 4. Levamisole 5. Albendazole

Ivermectin

Pair the active ingredient to the appropriate description: Narrow spectrum antiparasitic, active against all stages of liver fluke The alternatives: 1. Triclabendazole 2. Ivermectin 3. Closantel 4. Levamisole 5. Albendazole

Triclabendazole

Pair the active ingredient to the appropriate description: Among nematodes this antiparasitic agent is active only against bloodsucking worms The alternatives: 1. Triclabendazole 2. Ivermectin 3. Closantel 4. Levamisole 5. Albendazole

Closantel

Pair the active ingredient to the appropriate description: It is a broad spectrum antiparasitic agent, active against Nematoda, Cestoda, and Trematoda. The alternatives: 1. Triclabendazole 2. Ivermectin 3. Closantel 4. Levamisole 5. Albendazole

Albendazole

Pair the active ingredient to the appropriate description: Antiparasitic agent effective only against nematodes The alternatives: 1. Triclabendazole 2. Ivermectin 3. Closantel 4. Levamisole 5. Albendazole

Levamisole

In the so-called on-target effect, the harmful effect of the substances occurs when it binds to the wrong receptor A. True B. False

B. False On-target = The drug binds to the appropriate receptor BUT: Intended receptor, Inappropriate conditions or Intended receptor, Suboptimal kinetics

Specific symptom in toxicosis caused by diazinon: A. enophtalmus B. vomiting C. depression D. tachycardia

C. depression

Which of the following substance groups has got diuretic effect? A. ATII receptor antagonists B. none of them C. both of them D. CA2+ channel blockers

B. none of them

What is the mechanism of action of rifamycin? A. protein synthesis inhibition B. inhibition of cell wall synthesis C. detergent action D. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase inhibiton

D. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase inhibiton

In dogs, typical side effects of glucocorticoids include skin scaling, thinning and alopecia A. True B. False

A. True

Which agents are suitable for the treatment of Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection? A. cefuroxime and cefaclor B. ceftazidime and cefoperazone C. ceftriaxone and cefotaxime D. cefalexin and cefapirin

B. ceftazidime and cefoperazone

which of the following is a first-generation antihistamine? A. both B. hydroxyzine C. dimenhydrinate D. none

A. both

Lincosamides and macrolides have different spectra, the former being more effective against Gram - negative bacteria, while the latter is only effective against Gram - positive bacteria A. True B. False

B. False They are both bacteriostatic antibiotics Lincosamides are effective against gram+ and gram- anaerobic Macrolides are effective against gram+

What are the central nervous system effects of first generation antihistamines? A. Off-target effect on the inappropriate receptor but in the appropriate tissue B. On-target effect on the appropriate receptor in the appropriate tissue C. Of-target effect on the inappropriate receptor in the inappropriate tissue D. On-target effect on the appropriate receptor but not in the appropriate tissue

D. On-target effect on the appropriate receptor but not in the appropriate tissue

Amplodipine is mainly used in cat hypertension, verapamil and diltiazem are applied as antiarrhytmic agents A. True B. False

A. True

If we increase the dose of concentration-dependent bactericidal antibiotics, it will result in a quicker killing of bacteria A. True B. False

A. True

Butyl-scopolamine can be used to treat horse colic A. True B. False

A. True

Imepitoin is an important agent in the management of status epilepticus A. True B. False

B. False Imepitoin is used for epilepsy, BUT it is a very expensive drug so it is not used frequently