2 Flashcards

(97 cards)

1
Q

The side chains of beta lactams antibiotics are responsoble for …

A. None of them
B. the spectrum of the antibiotic
C. both
D. the pharmacokinetic properties of the antibiotic

A

both

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2
Q

Antiparasitic agent licensed for oral use in poultry against bird mites (Dermanissus gallinae)

A. Deltamethrin
B. Moxidectin
C. Fluralaner
D. fypronil

A

c. fluralaner

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3
Q

Against which of the following pathogens are aminoglycosides not effective?

A. Salmonella spp
B. Streptococcus spp
C. E.coli
D. Staphylococcus spp

A

streptococcus

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4
Q

in status epilepticus, levetiracetam may be used intravenously or rectally

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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5
Q

tiletamine belongs to the group of nmda receptor antagonists called dissociative anesthetics

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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6
Q

which of the following substances has sedatohypnotic effect?

A. Xylazine
B. Romifidine
C. Medetomidine
D. None of them
E. All of them

A

all of them

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7
Q

isoflurane is an injectable anesthetic

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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8
Q

the competitive antagonist of 3 beta hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase enzyne

A. Cabergoline
B. Trilostan
C. Denaverin
D. Terbutalin

A

Trilostan

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9
Q

clopidogrel should not be used in cats only dogs

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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10
Q

which of the following has a marked inhibitory effect on t cells

A. Tacrolimus
B. Lokivetmab
C. sulfasalazine
D. Oclacitinib

A

tacrolimus

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11
Q

which of the following substances can cause azotemia

A. None of them
B. Both of them
C. Enalapril
D. Lisinopril

A

d. both

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12
Q

which of the following drugs can be effective in Moraxella bovis keratoconjunctivitis?

A. None of them
B. Both of them
C. Chlortetracycline
D. Florfenicol

A

b. both

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13
Q

pair agents

juvenile hormone analogue antiparasitic

  • Afoxolaner
  • Fipronil
  • Metopren
  • imidacloprid
  • fluralaner
  • piriprol
A

Metopren

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14
Q

pair agents

Gaba antagonist antiparasitic agent not recommended to use in rabbits

  • Afoxolaner
  • Fipronil
  • Metopren
  • imidacloprid
  • fluralaner
  • piriprol
A

Fipronil

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15
Q

pair agents

Izoxazoline eliminated by the kidney

  • Afoxolaner
  • Fipronil
  • Metopren
  • imidacloprid
  • fluralaner
  • piriprol
A

Afoxolaner

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16
Q

pair agents

Antiparasitic agent only effective against fleas

  • Afoxolaner
  • Fipronil
  • Metopren
  • imidacloprid
  • fluralaner
  • piriprol
A

imidacloprid

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17
Q

pair agents

Antiparasitic agent with relative longer elimination half-life due to enterohepatic circulation

  • Afoxolaner
  • Fipronil
  • Metopren
  • imidacloprid
  • fluralaner
  • piriprol
A

fluralaner

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18
Q

pair agents

Gaba antagonist agent effective against tics and fleas in case of 3-10 times overdose CNS signs can occur

  • Afoxolaner
  • Fipronil
  • Metopren
  • imidacloprid
  • fluralaner
  • piriprol
A

piriprol

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19
Q

Orthosteric agonist binds to the receptor at the same place where its ligand binds while allosteric agonist binds to a different site.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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20
Q

Pairs

Methylxanthine with weakest direct cardiac effect

  • Caffeine
  • theophylline
  • strychnine
  • Doxapram
  • picrotoxin
A

Caffeine

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21
Q

Pairs

Antidote for gaba ergic cns depressants

  • Caffeine
  • theophylline
  • strychnine
  • Doxapram
  • picrotoxin
A

picrotoxin

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22
Q

Pairs

Short acting respiratory stimulant

  • Caffeine
  • theophylline
  • strychnine
  • Doxapram
  • picrotoxin
A

Doxapram

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23
Q

Pairs

Inhibits phosphodiesterase enzyme and it is a potent bronchodilator, can be used in the treatment of asthma

  • Caffeine
  • theophylline
  • strychnine
  • Doxapram
  • picrotoxin
A

theophylline

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24
Q

Pairs

Glicine antagonist that causes severe convulsions

  • Caffeine
  • theophylline
  • strychnine
  • Doxapram
  • picrotoxin
A

strychnine

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25
Benzyl penicillin Na/K has an average duration of action 4-6 hours A. True B. False
A. True
26
Carprofen is safe for use in most mammalian animals A. True B. False
A. True
27
Meloxicam injection for swine 100 kg if dose is 0.4 mg/kg and concentration is 20mg/mg A. 100ml B. 10ml C. 2 ml D. 40ml
c. 2 ml
28
Pair Locally and systematically applied allylamine derivative The alternatives: 1. Naftifine 2. Amphotereicin-B 3. Itraconazole 4. Clotriamazole 5. Terbinafin
terbinafine
29
Pair Locally applied imidazole derivative The alternatives: 1. Naftifine 2. Amphotereicin-B 3. Itraconazole 4. Clotriamazole 5. Terbinafin
clotrimazole
30
Pair Systemically applied imidazole derivative The alternatives: 1. Naftifine 2. Amphotereicin-B 3. Itraconazole 4. Clotriamazole 5. Terbinafin
itraconazole
31
Pair Parentally applied polyene The alternatives: 1. Naftifine 2. Amphotereicin-B 3. Itraconazole 4. Clotriamazole 5. Terbinafin
amphotericin-b
32
Pair Locally applied allylamine derivative The alternatives: 1. Naftifine 2. Amphotereicin-B 3. Itraconazole 4. Clotriamazole 5. Terbinafin
Naftifine
33
put the local anaesthetics according to their toxicity in increased order: Procaine , Mepivacaine Bupivacaine, Lidocaine
Procaine -1 Lidocaine -2 Mepivacaine 3 Bupivacaine 4
34
Side effects of glucocorticoids include muscle hypertrophy, increased calcium absorption and collagen synthesis A. True B. False
B. False
35
Despite the excellent distribution of lincomycin it does not cross the BBB A. True B. False
A. True
36
Acrolein hemorrhagic cystitis can be alleviated by Mensa A. True B. False
A. True
37
Aminoglycosides are positively charged, cationic polar and hydrophilic compounds A. True B. False
A. True
38
EPO can treat anemia because of chronic kidney failure or cancer only after hematocrit level determination A. True B. False
A. True
39
Pairs _____anti-inflammatory drug used in milder cases of corneal ulcers The alternatives: 1. Azelastine 2. Prednisolone 3. Sodium chromoglycate 4. Bromfenac 5. Atropine
Bromfenac
40
_____ can inhibit the formation of synechia in uveitis The alternatives: 1. Azelastine 2. Prednisolone 3. Sodium chromoglycate 4. Bromfenac 5. Atropine
Atropine
41
_____ anti-inflammatory drug used inn uveitis if cornea is intact The alternatives: 1. Azelastine 2. Prednisolone 3. Sodium chromoglycate 4. Bromfenac 5. Atropine
Prednisolone
42
_____ mast cell stabilizers used in allergic conjunctivitis The alternatives: 1. Azelastine 2. Prednisolone 3. Sodium chromoglycate 4. Bromfenac 5. Atropine
Sodium chromoglycate
43
_____antihistamine used inn allergic conjunctivitis The alternatives: 1. Azelastine 2. Prednisolone 3. Sodium chromoglycate 4. Bromfenac 5. Atropine
Azelastine
44
Which of the following agents are suitable for the treatment of enteritis caused by clostridia? A. Vancomycin B. Both C. Neither D. Bacitracin
both
45
The antimicrobial spectrum off azithromycin and clarithromycin includes staphylococcus and streptococci A. True B. False
A. True
46
A higher therapeutic index means that the drug can easily be overdosed A. True B. False
B. False
47
First generation quinolone carboxylic acids have narrow spectrum and are effective against gram negative rods and coliforms A. True B. False
A. True
48
Pus and debris greatly impact the effectiveness of sulfonamides A. True B. False
A. True
49
Diazepam can cause paradoxical reaction inn cats A. True B. False
A. True
50
70- 80% isotonic crystalloid infusion are distributed in IV fluid compartment A. True B. False
B. False
51
Idoxuridine can be used locally to treat herpes virus caused keratitis in cats A. True B. False
A. True
52
Pseudomonas aerginosus is highly sensitive to florfenicol A. True B. False
B. False
53
Pairs Biguanidine disinfectant The alternatives: 1. Pocidone iodine 2. Hydrogen peroxide 3. Calcium hydroxide 4. Quaternary ammonium compound 5. Chlorhexide
Chlorhexidine
54
Pairs Cationic detergents The alternatives: 1. Pocidone iodine 2. Hydrogen peroxide 3. Calcium hydroxide 4. Quaternary ammonium compound 5. Chlorhexide
quarternary ammonium compound
55
Pairs Halogen containing disinfectant The alternatives: 1. Povione iodine 2. Hydrogen peroxide 3. Calcium hydroxide 4. Quaternary ammonium compound 5. Chlorhexide
povione Iodine
56
Pairs Oxidizing agent The alternatives: 1. Pocidone iodine 2. Hydrogen peroxide 3. Calcium hydroxide 4. Quaternary ammonium compound 5. Chlorhexide
hydrogen peroxide
57
Pairs Belongs to the alkalis disinfectants The alternatives: 1. Pocidone iodine 2. Hydrogen peroxide 3. Calcium hydroxide 4. Quaternary ammonium compound 5. Chlorhexide
calcium hydroxide
58
The lower the therapeutic index of an active substance the closer its ED50 is to LD50 value A. True B. False
A. True
59
Primary choice cephalosporine to treat canine pyoderma systemically A. Cefotaxime B. Cefoperazone C. Cephalexin D. Cefquinome
Cephalexin
60
Which side effect is specific to fluoroquinolones?
a. Inhibition of growth of cartilage in young animals
61
In case of transformation the resistance gene is transmitted by a bacteriophage A. True B. False
B. False | in case of transduction!
62
Short acting tetracyclines should be administrated once daily orally and long acting should be administered every 2 days A. True B. False
B. False
63
Anti-inflammatory effects of glucocorticoids can only be achieved in high dose A. True B. False
B. False
64
Prostaglandin E increases mucin secretion in gastric mucosa A. True B. False
A. True
65
In fish WP is determined in degree days which is the cumulative sum of daily water temperature A. True B. False
A. True
66
Tiamulin is a concentration dependent bactericidal antibacterial agent A. True B. False
B. False | Bacteriostatic
67
Azepromazine can be used handling aggressive animals A. True B. False
A. True
68
Dembrexin is used for feline asthma A. True B. False
B. False
69
In status epilepticus propofol is administrated intramuscularly A. True B. False
B. False | IV
70
Antibiotic resistance genes encoded on chromosomes have a bigger impact on the spread of the resistance compared to genes on plasmids A. True B. False
B. False
71
In which of the following conditons is the use of oclatinib contraindicated A. Both B. None C. Noncancerous diseases D. Demodicosis
Both
72
Which of the following effects are considered to be adverse effects of drugs A. Toxic metabolite formation B. Damaging immune response C. idosyncratic response D. All three
All three
73
Pairs Gram positive mastitis The alternatives: 1. Ceftriaxone 2. Cefoperazone 3. Cefovecin 4. Cefapirin
cefapirin
74
Pairs Gram negative mastitis The alternatives: 1. Ceftriaxone 2. Cefoperazone 3. Cefovecin 4. Cefapirin
cefoperazone
75
Pairs Meningitis The alternatives: 1. Ceftriaxone 2. Cefoperazone 3. Cefovecin 4. Cefapirin
ceftriaxone
76
Pairs UTI The alternatives: 1. Ceftriaxone 2. Cefoperazone 3. Cefovecin 4. Cefapirin
cefovecin
77
Agent used for long term management phonophobia: A. Acepromazine B. Clomipramine C. Selegiline D. Cefovecin
Clomipramine
78
The MAO selegilin can be used in dogs to slow down the progression of old age dementia A. True B. False
A. True
79
How much 40% glucose solution is needed to prepare 100 ml 5% solution? A. 25ml B. 50ml C. 12.5 ml D. 75ml
12.5ml
80
which of the following substances have a bronchodilator effect? A. Anticholinergic drugs B. Sympathomimetics C. Xanthine derivatives D. All of them E. None of them
All of them
81
which of the following can reduce high blood pressure? A. Both of them B. None of them C. ATII receptor anatgonists D. ACE inhibitors
all of them
82
Pairs monovalent ionophore coccidiostat The alternatives: 1. Toltrazuril 2. Lazalocid 3. Salinomycin 4. Maduramycin 5. Diclazuril
salinomycin
83
Pairs Triazine coccidiostat for use in chemophylaxis via feed The alternatives: 1. Toltrazuril 2. Lazalocid 3. Salinomycin 4. Maduramycin 5. Diclazuril
diclazuril
84
Pairs semidivalent ionophore coccidiostat The alternatives: 1. Toltrazuril 2. Lazalocid 3. Salinomycin 4. Maduramycin 5. Diclazuril
maduramycin
85
Pairs active substance for the treatment if coccidiosos via drinking water The alternatives: 1. Toltrazuril 2. Lazalocid 3. Salinomycin 4. Maduramycin 5. Diclazuril
toltrazuril
86
divalent ionophore coccidiostst The alternatives: 1. Toltrazuril 2. Lazalocid 3. Salinomycin 4. Maduramycin 5. Diclazuril
lazalocid
87
Hes infusions with higher average molecular weight have a longer half life, however the risk off liver side effects is also higher in case of them A. True B. False
B. False
88
Atropine can be used in case of uveitis and organophosphate toxicosis A. True B. False
A. True
89
Generally if the drug has high affinity to the receptor, higher dose is needed and the drugs effect develops slowly A. True B. False
B. False
90
Only ionized drugs can cross biological membranes’ by diffusion A. True B. False
B. False
91
Pairs Used in dogs, applied in conjuctivital sack, non readministtered opiod emetic agent The alternatives: 1. Apomorphine 2. Maropitant 3. Hydrogen-peroxide 4. Metoclopramide 5. Ropinirole 6. Xylazine
apomorphine
92
Pairs Antiemetic agent, antidote for the side effect of ropinirole The alternatives: 1. Apomorphine 2. Maropitant 3. Hydrogen-peroxide 4. Metoclopramide 5. Ropinirole 6. Xylazine
metoclopramide
93
Pairs Peripheral emetic agent acting as irritant on the pharyngeal and stomach mucosa The alternatives: 1. Apomorphine 2. Maropitant 3. Hydrogen-peroxide 4. Metoclopramide 5. Ropinirole 6. Xylazine
hydrogen peroxide
94
Pairs Used in dogs, applied in conjuctivital sack, readministerable dopamine-agonist agent The alternatives: 1. Apomorphine 2. Maropitant 3. Hydrogen-peroxide 4. Metoclopramide 5. Ropinirole 6. Xylazine
ropinirole
95
Pairs The most potent antiemetic applied IV in small animal practice The alternatives: 1. Apomorphine 2. Maropitant 3. Hydrogen-peroxide 4. Metoclopramide 5. Ropinirole 6. Xylazine
maropitant
96
Pairs Used in cats applied IV or IM emetic agent The alternatives: 1. Apomorphine 2. Maropitant 3. Hydrogen-peroxide 4. Metoclopramide 5. Ropinirole 6. Xylazine
xylazine
97
Long acting sympathomimetics are mainly used for diagnostic ophthalmic purposes A. True B. False
B. False