1- Diagnosis and Psychopathology Flashcards
(212 cards)
Research on biogenic theories of autism:
Select one:
A. has demonstrated that biological and genetic factors are secondary to psychosocial factors in the etiology of this disorder.
B. has recently identified the specific gene that is responsible for the majority of cases.
C. has found that obstetric complications are the cause of most cases of this disorder.
D. has confirmed that biological and genetic factors are the primary cause although no single factor seems to be responsible for the majority of cases.
Correct Answer is: D
Studies investigating the biological and genetic contributions to Autistic Disorder have confirmed that these factors play a dominant role. However, no single factor has been identified as the most important one.
Additional Information: Etiology (Autism Spectrum Disorder)
Research suggests that the best single treatment for Agoraphobia is: Select one: A. implosive therapy. B. flooding. C. systematic desensitization. D. psychotropic medication.
Correct Answer is: B
Flooding involves exposing an individual to anxiety-provoking stimuli while preventing an avoidance response. In-vivo flooding is considered the most effective psychological treatment for Agoraphobia, with reports of long-term improvement for to 75% of treated patients.
Additional Information: Treatment (Agoraphobia)
Selye’s General Adaptation Syndrome involves the processes termed:
Select one:
A. alarm, resistance, exhaustion.
B. anticipation, defensiveness, exhaustion.
C. alarm, stimulation, resistance.
D. attention, accommodation, adaptation.
Correct Answer is: A
This paradigm was an early attempt to explain how we react to stress. It postulates that after we become aware of the stressful situation (alarm), we summon our resources and meet the challenge (resist). After the trauma is over, we collapse (exhaustion).
Research comparing patients with schizophrenia from non-Western developing countries to those from Western industrialized countries has found that they differ in terms of: Select one: A. symptoms B. age and gender C. gender and prognosis D. course and outcome
Correct Answer is: D
Several studies conducted by the World Health Organization have consistently found differences in the course and outcome of schizophrenia patients from developing and industrialized countries. Patients from developing countries more often exhibit an acute onset of symptoms, a shorter clinical course, and a complete remission of symptoms. No consistent differences were found between these two groups in regards to age, gender, or type of symptoms.
Additional Information: Culture (Schizophrenia)
A young woman is very anxious because, lately, she finds that she frequently misperceives things in the environment, which has caused some embarrassing moments at work and elsewhere. For example, at work, she mistook the coat rack for the company president. As a result, she is not enjoying her job or usual social activities as much as she used to. The woman's symptoms are most suggestive of Select one: A. hallucinations. B. illusions. C. agoraphobia. D. social phobia.
Correct Answer is: B
Note that the woman is misperceiving actual stimuli and that her other symptoms are directly related to this misperception. A misperception of a real stimulus is referred to as an illusion.
A headache that begins in the frontal or occipital area of the head and then proceeds to involve a bilateral dull ache is: Select one: A. a common migraine. B. a classic migraine. C. a cluster headache. D. a tension headache.
Correct Answer is: D
Migraine headaches cause unilateral throbbing pain. Cluster headaches cause intense pain behind the eye (which are the incorrect responses). So you’re left with “tension headache,” which is the correct answer.
Masters and Johnson found that their version of sex therapy, which incorporates education about sexuality, training in communication skills, and the technique known as sensate focus, is most effective for treating: Select one: A. premature ejaculation. B. impotence. C. sexual aversion. D. orgasmic disorder.
Correct Answer is: A
Masters and Johnson found that close to 100% of individuals with premature ejaculation were helped by their program which incorporated education about sexuality, improving communication, and sensate focus.
A diagnosis of childhood onset Conduct Disorder:
Select one:
A. requires an onset of two or more symptoms prior to age 13.
B. is equally common in boys and girls.
C. is associated with less overt aggression than adolescent onset Conduct Disorder.
D. is associated with a poorer prognosis than adolescent onset Conduct Disorder.
Correct Answer is: D
Age of onset of Conduct Disorder is correlated with a number of factors including symptoms (childhood onset is associated with more severe aggression) and prognosis – i.e., individuals with childhood onset are much more likely to continue to engage in antisocial behaviors in adolescence and adulthood.
Additional Information: Conduct Disorder
Which of the following best describes the results of studies investigating the role of psychosocial stressors in the course of Major Depressive Disorder, Recurrent?
Select one:
A. psychosocial stressors typically play a more significant role in triggering the first or second episodes than subsequent episodes.
B. psychosocial stressors typically play a more significant role in triggering episodes late in the course of the disorder than the first two episodes.
C. psychosocial stressors play a similar role in triggering episodes early and late in the course of the disorder.
D. psychosocial stressors do not play a role in the disorder since, by definition, Major Depressive Disorder is not triggered by external events.
Correct Answer is: A
Major Depressive Disorder, Recurrent involves two or more Major Depressive Episodes, which are characterized by five or more specific symptoms of depression present during the same two week period and representing a change from the previous level of functioning. Individuals with this disorder very commonly have more than two Major Depressive Episodes in the course of their lifetimes, and studies suggest that psychosocial stressors are more likely to trigger an episode early in the course of the disorder than they are later on.
A person repeatedly awakens from sleep in a state of fear, disorientation, and unresponsiveness to others. The person later can barely recall the episode at all. The most likely diagnosis for this person is Select one: A. Narcolepsy. B. Nightmare Disorder. C. Sleep Terror Disorder. D. Depersonalization Disorder.
Correct Answer is: C
Sleep Terror Disorder is characterized by repeated episodes of awakening in fear, often with a scream of panic. The person displays evidence of fear and autonomic arousal, and responds poorly or not all to the efforts of others to offer comfort. At the time, the person does not remember any dream in detail and cannot recall the entire episode later on.
Regarding the other choices, Nightmare Disorder involves repeated awakenings with detailed recall of frightening dreams, often with a recurrence of the same or similar themes. Unlike a person with Sleep Terror Disorder, a person with Nightmare Disorder quickly becomes alert and oriented after awakening. Narcolepsy is characterized by brief sleep and sudden sleep attacks during the period of the person’s normal waking; either or both cataplexy (sudden loss of muscle tone) and hypnagogic or hypnopompic hallucinations must be present. Depersonalization Disorder involves a lasting or recurrent feeling that the person is detached from, or is an outside observer of, one’s own mental processes or body, as if in a dream.
A psychologist working with a substance-addicted client bases his approach to treatment on Marlatt and Gordon’s relapse prevention model. The counselor is likely to incorporate all of the following into his treatment approach except
Select one:
A. identification of situations and cognitions that trigger the urge to use.
B. referral to an inpatient clinic immediately if a client uses the substance.
C. focus on minimizing the abstinence violation effect.
D. helping the client to develop “positive addictions.”
Correct Answer is: B
Marlatt and Gordon’s relapse prevention (RP) model for the treatment of substance addiction is a cognitive-behavioral approach that focuses on identifying and reducing or eliminating factors that can precipitate relapse. Treatment begins with assessment of the environmental and emotional factors that increase the risk of relapse, such as time spent with friends who still use, the client’s beliefs about the benefits of using, and any unrealistic expectations he has about treatment and abstinence. Based on this assessment, the counselor then works with the client to develop a set of applicable cognitive and behavioral interventions, including some that apply to the immediate situation (e.g., self-monitoring of behavior and cognition to reduce exposure to high risk situations) and some global lifestyle changes, such as encouraging the development of alternative, positive addictions, such as exercise or meditation. A central component of the RP model is to reduce what Marlatt and Gordon refer to as the abstinence violation effect (AVE). This occurs when a client “slips” or “lapses” by using the substance again, and attributes the slip to internal, stable and global causes (e.g., “I’m hopeless” or “I’ll always be an addict”). The AVE causes reduced feelings of self-efficacy and esteem and thereby often increases cravings to use, leading to a full-blown relapse. The RP model seeks to reduce this effect by, for example, directing the client’s attention to situational factors that could have triggered the slip and modifying unrealistic expectations about the course of addiction.
referral to an inpatient clinic immediately if a client uses the substance.
Contrary to this choice, immediate referral to an inpatient clinic following any use of the substance would reinforce the notion that a slip constitutes a full-blown relapse and that the client has failed in his efforts. Therefore, it would not likely be part of treatment based on the RP model.
Following surgery, a 73-year-old man reports visual hallucinations, displays poor alertness and spotty recognition of his family, and does not know why he is in the hospital. Most likely, the man is experiencing Select one: A. Dementia B. Delirium C. Amnestic Disorder D. a Psychotic Disorder
Correct Answer is: B
Delirium is characterized by a disturbance in cognition, impaired attention, and changes in cognition, due to a medical condition or other physiological cause such as substance intoxication. Specific symptoms may include reduced awareness of the environment, inability to sustain attention, memory deficits, disorientation, and language disturbances. Hallucinations sometimes occur. Delirium by definition develops rapidly and its symptoms fluctuate, usually over the course of the day. Often, the course is brief and temporary. Of the choices listed, the symptoms are most consistent with Delirium.
Dementia is a generally permanent disturbance in cognition and memory, and the question suggests that the deficits are temporary in nature by noting that the man just got out of surgery. Also, in dementia, alertness level is usually not impaired. Amnestic Disorder is characterized by an inability to recall previously learned information or retain newly learned information; it also usually is a permanent disturbance that becomes progressively worse over time. And psychotic disorders such as Schizophrenia involve symptoms such as delusions, hallucinations, disorganized or catatonic behavior, and flat affect. Only hallucinations are mentioned by the question and they are common in Delirium, which is more consistent with the rest of the presentation.
Of the following, which risk factor for childhood depression is the most prominent? Select one: A. substance use in parents. B. comorbid disorder such as ADHD. C. a parent with a depressive disorder. D. low socioeconomic status
Correct Answer is: C
Most experts agree that a family history of depression increases the risk of childhood depression more than any other one factor. By some estimates, for instance, maternal depression increases the risk of childhood depression by a factor of 3 to 5. The presence of depression in a parent can lead to depression in multiple ways, such as genetics, marital discord, and poor parenting skills. Other risk factors for childhood depression include substance abusing parents, a divorce, parental unemployment, frequent moves, and illness.
Which of the following conclusions about the effectiveness of treatments for Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) is best supported by empirical research?
Select one:
A. stimulant medication and behavior therapy are equal in effectiveness.
B. stimulant medication alone is just as effective as the combination of it with behavior therapy.
C. the combination stimulant medication and behavior therapy is more effective than either treatment used alone.
D. behavior therapy alone is just as effective as the combination of it with stimulant medication.
Correct Answer is: C
The National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) conducted a comprehensive study of four modalities of treatment for ADHD: 1) stimulant medication alone; (2) behavioral treatment alone; (3) a combination of medication and behavioral treatment; or (4) routine community care. The study found that the combination treatment and the medication-management treatment were superior to intensive behavioral treatment and routine community treatment.
stimulant medication alone is just as effective as the combination of it with behavior therapy.
However, contrary to this choice, the researchers did not conclude that medication alone was equal in effectiveness to the combination treatment. The latter allowed patients to be administered lower doses of medication, worked better than medication alone in improving some areas of functioning, and resulted in greater family satisfaction. Therefore, they concluded that stimulant medication combined with behavior therapy is the most effective modality.
Of the following, which treatment modality is, according to recent research, most likely to be effective in treating Borderline Personality Disorder?
Select one:
A. Interpersonal Therapy (IPT)
B. Dialectical Behavior Therapy (DBT)
C. Rational Emotive Behavior Therapy (REBT)
D. Reality Therapy
Correct Answer is: B
Dialectical Behavior Therapy (DBT) is a cognitive-behavioral therapy intended to treat Borderline Personality Disorder as well as other long-standing behavioral disorders. The term “dialectical” reflects the treatment’s focus on the synthesis of opposites, such as the acceptance of the client in the context of helping them change, as well as the therapy’s goal of replacing rigid, dichotomous thinking with flexible, dialectical thinking. Treatment includes a variety of cognitive and behavioral interventions, focused on specific goals and learning new skills, such as teaching mindfulness, skills training, cognitive modification, and exposure. Research has found DBT to be an effective mode of treatment for Borderline Personality Disorder, especially in the control of self-mutilating and self-damaging impulsive behavior.
Abrupt cessation of chronic alcohol use typically results in which of the following symptoms?
Select one:
A. depression, lethargy, and hypersomnia
B. irritability, decreased heart rate, and increased appetite
C. nausea, diarrhea, and fever
D. autonomic hyperactivity, insomnia, and nausea
Correct Answer is: D
Alcohol Withdrawal is characterized by two or more of the following symptoms, following cessation of chronic, heavy use: autonomic hyperactivity (e.g., sweating, increased pulse), hand tremor, insomnia, nausea or vomiting, transient hallucinations or illusions, psychomotor agitation, anxiety, and grand mal seizures. Symptoms typically begin within 4-12 hours after the person stops drinking, peak during the second day of abstinence, and decrease markedly by the fourth or fifth day.
Additional Information: Substance-Induced Disorders
Of the following, which is most likely to cause rapid and abrupt changes in cognitive functioning? Select one: A. Dementia of the Alzheimer's Type B. AIDS Dementia Complex C. Vascular Dementia D. Korsakoff's syndrome
Correct Answer is: C
Dementia is characterized by multiple cognitive deficits such as memory impairment, language disturbances, and impairments in executive functioning that have a specific physiological cause–i.e., a medical condition or the persisting effects of a substance. Vascular Dementia is diagnosed in individuals who have Dementia judged to be caused by a cerebrovascular disease such as a stroke. Its onset is typically abrupt and it typically has a fluctuating, stepwise course characterized by rapid changes in cognitive functioning and orientation.
By contrast, the course in Alzheimer’s Dementia tends to be slow and progressive, with abilities deteriorating over the span of several years. In AIDS Dementia Complex, the course is also typically progressive, but punctuated by abrupt accelerations. Korsakoff’s syndrome is dementia caused by a lack of thiamine in the brain, which is usually caused by chronic alcoholism and sometimes by severe malnutrition. Onset is variable–sometimes rapid and sometimes insidious.
According to current cognitive-behavioral theories, a central factor in the maintenance of anorexia nervosa symptom is
Select one:
A. intense fear of gaining weight.
B. positive reinforcement from family and friends for weight loss.
C. the need to control eating.
D. a fear of sexuality and sexual maturity.
Correct Answer is: C
Cognitive-behavioral therapy is commonly used to treat anorexia nervosa, and is empirically supported as an effective intervention. There are a few different cognitive-behavioral theories of the disorder, but they are similar. They emphasize two major factors in the maintenance of the disorder: an extreme need to control eating, and an extreme tendency to judge self-worth on the basis of body shape and weight. Treatment, after addressing the immediate need to begin eating and gaining weight, includes self-monitoring, examination and restructuring of distorted beliefs, and relapse prevention training.
Prior to puberty the incidence of Major Depressive Disorder:
Select one:
A. is about equal for boys and girls Correct
B. is greater for boys than for girls
C. is greater for girls than for boys
D. doesn’t become evident in either gender before mid-adolescence
Correct Answer is: A
The incidence of Major Depressive Disorder in adult females compared to adult males is 2:1. This gender difference becomes evident in mid-adolescence. Prior to puberty the incidence of Major Depressive Disorder is about equal for boys and girls.
Blood-Injection-Injury Type of Specific Phobia, relative to other types of Specific Phobias, is characterized by: Select one: A. dry skin B. childhood onset C. awareness the fear is irrational D. low blood pressure
Correct Answer is: D
In most of the Specific Phobias there is an increase in heart rate and blood pressure. However, in the Blood-Injection-Injury Type there is an initial brief acceleration in heart rate followed by a deceleration and a drop in blood pressure. This often results in vasovagal fainting. Due to this unique physiological response to the feared stimulus, the recommended treatment involves tensing muscles, rather than relaxing them, in the presence of the feared stimulus.
Although the Blood-Injection-Injury Type usually does begin in childhood, so do many of the other Specific Phobias. In all Specific Phobias the person recognizes that the fear is excessive or unreasonable, except in children who may not recognize this (* incorrect options).
Possible causes of a Mood Disorder caused by a known organic factor such as a medical condition or substance use include:
Select one:
A. PCP use, cataracts, and ulcer
B. viral illness, hallucinogen use, and carcinoma of the pancreas
C. barbiturate use, hypothyroidism, and broken bones
D. hyperthyroidism, cerebral palsy, and arthritis
Correct Answer is: B
The DSM identifies the following disorders as possible causes of organically-based mood symptoms: substances such as hallucinogens and PCP; endocrine disorders, such as hypo- or hyperthyroidism; carcinoma of the pancreas; viral illness; and structural disease of the brain, such as that caused by a stroke.
The most serious potential medical side effect of Bulimia Nervosa is Select one: A. dehydration. B. electrolyte imbalance. C. fatigue. D. malnutrition.
Correct Answer is: B
Electrolytes are salts that conduct electricity; they are found in the body fluid, tissue, and blood. Examples are chloride, calcium, magnesium, sodium, and potassium. Electrolyte imbalance can be caused by the frequent induced vomiting and overuse of laxatives that occur in Bulimia Nervosa. The most frequently found electrolyte disturbance in Bulimia is hypokalemia, a reduced level of potassium in the blood. Electrolyte imbalances can cause cardiac irregularities and cardiac arrest, potentially leading to death. Dehydration and fatigue are also potential side effects of Bulimia, but their potential consequences are not as serious as those of electrolyte imbalance.
Additional Information: Associated Features (Bulimia Nervosa)
Autistic children tend to do as well as or better than other children the same age on tests of Select one: A. abstract problem solving. B. facial recognition. C. response speed. D. field independent processing.
Correct Answer is: D
Field dependence-independence is a construct viewed as a dimension of cognitive style, or the way in which individuals think, perceive, remember, and use information to solve problems. Those with a field independent cognitive style tend to use internal referents to solve problems and tend to see environments in terms of their constituent parts rather than as organized wholes. By contrast, a field dependent style relies on external or environmental referents to solve problems; perception tends to be dominated by the overall organization of the environment (or field) rather than its individual parts. Autistic individuals tend to have a field-independent cognitive style, and on some tasks that assess field independence, they consistently outperform their same-age peers. For example, numerous studies have found that autistic children outperform age-matched children on the Childhood Embedded Figures Test, which requires examinees to identify a simple figure hidden in a complex background design. Good performance on this test indicates field independence because it requires separating an item from the field in which it is embedded.
Research on Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR) in the treatment of Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder has suggested that
Select one:
A. the eye movement phase of treatment is not necessary for its success.
B. the eye movement phase of treatment is crucial for its success.
C. the desensitization phase of therapy is not necessary for its success.
D. it is an ineffective treatment.
Correct Answer is: A
Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR) is an approach to psychotherapy that applies ideas from multiple therapeutic modalities, such as psychodynamic, cognitive-behavioral, and interpersonal. It focuses on past experiences that contribute to current problems and current situations that trigger their symptoms. Thus, it is typically applied to problems resulting from disturbing and unresolved life experiences and specifically to Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD). EMDR involves eight phases of treatment. A number of these phases, after history taking and ensuring that the client is stable enough to handle emotional distress, involve imaginal exposure to the trauma that underlies the problem. In addition, during phases 4 through 6, clients imaginally attend to the trauma, or a positive cognition, at the same time as they attend to another stimulus, usually their own eye movements. It is thought that simultaneous attention to another stimulus facilitates information processing. However, meta-analyses of studies evaluating the EMDR’s effectiveness in treating PTSD have suggested that, while EMDR is an effective form of treatment, it is no more effective than other modalities that involve imaginal exposure to the trauma without eye movements. Thus, although it has been noted that studies with larger samples are needed for clarification, the general research consensus is that the eye movement phase of treatment does not contribute to the efficacy of EMDR.