6- Industrial / organization psychology Flashcards
(233 cards)
According to equity theory, individuals are most likely to feel content and maintain their level of performance when:
Select one:
A. they perceive a balance between their contributions and the benefits they receive
B. they perceive their input-output ratio as equal to others
C. they accept the goals, even if the goals were assigned by their supervisor
D. there is no adverse impact
Correct Answer is: B
Equity theory holds that, in any work situation we assess both our input (how much effort we are contributing to a work situation) and our output (how much we get out of it). We then compare our input/output ratio to what we perceive are the ratios of our co-workers. A state of balance exists when we perceive that our input/output ratios are equal to those of our co-workers. If our input/output ratio is not equal to the ratios of others, a state of inequity exists and we will be motivated to create equity.
they perceive a balance between their contributions and the benefits they receive
This choice does not address the comparison to others.
they accept the goals, even if the goals were assigned by their supervisor
This is related to Goal-setting theory.
there is no adverse impact
Adverse impact is an important concept, but is not related to equity theory.
Additional Information: Equity Theory
In applied industrial settings, Maslow’s theory has been shown to be:
Select one:
A. applicable for lower-level employees only.
B. appropriate for supervisors but not managers.
C. applicable across the board.
D. not applicable
Correct Answer is: D
Maslow’s theory, as it applies to workplace settings, has not been supported by research. For instance, the notion that lower level needs, such as pay and job security, cease to be important once they are satisfied has not been shown to be true.
Additional Information: Maslow’s Need Hierarchy
In a job selection decision, age can be used as an exclusionary criterion
Select one:
A. never.
B. if there is a ruling from the appropriate federal agency allowing it.
C. if there is a significant difference in mean ages of incumbents and applicants.
D. if age is directly related to job performance.
Correct Answer is: D
Any limiting criterion is acceptable in a job selection procedure as long as the criterion is shown to be job-related. For instance, you could exclude people with very poor eyesight as air traffic controllers, you could exclude people with very little stamina and strength as firefighters, and so forth. Thus, if an employer can empirically demonstrate that being a certain age is a bona-fide occupational requirement, it could be used as a job criterion. Let’s say you were hiring painters to work on the Golden Gate Bridge. You might very well find that people over age 60 couldn’t do the job safely and well. If you could prove this finding empirically, you could use age as a criterion. Note, however, that if an employer is challenged on the use of a discriminatory exclusionary criterion, the employer bears the legal burden of demonstrating that it is job relevant.
Additional Information: Adverse Impact
A predictor with a criterion-related validity coefficient of .40 will be most useful when there is a
Select one:
A. high selection ratio and moderate base rate.
B. high selection ratio and low base rate.
C. low selection ratio and moderate base rate.
D. low selection ratio and low base rate.
Correct Answer is: C
A low selection ratio means that there’s lots of applicant to choose from (which is preferable to having only a few to choose from). A moderate base rate is preferable to a high or low base rate because this means that there’s room for improvement in the selection process. When the base rate is high, the company is already doing a good job and doesn’t need a new predictor; when the base rate is low, this usually means that something other than selection is the problem (e.g., the company’s performance standards are too high or there just aren’t enough good applicants to choose from).
Additional Information: Incremental Validity
A summative evaluation of a mental health program primarily deals with which of the following questions?
Select one:
A. Did the program meet its goals?
B. How can the program be improved in the future?
C. How can the strengths and weaknesses of the program be summarized?
D. What is preventing the program from operating more effectively right now?
Correct Answer is: A
In the terminology of program evaluation, a common distinction is between summative and formative evaluation. Summative evaluations deal with whether a program has achieved its intended objectives. They are typically used to address “bottom line” issues, such as if a program should continue existing, or if more or fewer resources should be allocated to it. By contrast, a formative evaluation addresses issues related to the implementation of a program. The main focus of a formative evaluation is how a program can be improved. In practice, most program evaluations contain elements of both formative and summative evaluation.
Additional Information: Program Evaluation
All of following are rater biases EXCEPT: Select one: A. contrast effect B. severity error C. central tendency bias D. floor effect
Correct Answer is: D
Subjective rating scale accuracy is influenced by the suspectibility to rater biases. A contrast effect* occurs when a rater’s ratings of a ratee are impacted by the ratings given to another. Severity error, or strictness bias, refers to the tendency to use the low end of a rating scale to rate all ratees, whereas the central tendency bias is the tendency to use the middle of a scale in rating (* incorrect options).
A floor effect is not a rater bias. It refers to a measuring instrument’s inability to distinguish between individuals who have low scores on whatever is being measured.
Additional Information: Rater Biases
Research has found that flexible work schedules have the greatest impact on: Select one: A. absenteeism B. job satisfaction C. productivity D. self-rated performance
Correct Answer is: A
The results of a meta-analysis concluded that flextime has positive effects on employee absenteeism (i.e., improved attendance), productivity, satisfaction with work schedule, and job satisfaction. However, the greatest impact was on absenteeism (effect size = .93), followed by productivity (.45), satisfaction with schedule (.32), and job satisfaction (.15). Note that job satisfaction was lower than previously reported findings.
Self-rated performance was not significantly related to flextime (.04) [B. Baltes, T. Briggs, J. Huff, J. Wright, and G. Neuman, flexible and compressed workweek schedules: A meta-analysis of their effects on work-related criteria, Journal of Applied Psychology, 84(4), 1999, 496-513].
Additional Information: Flextime
Leader-Member Exchange Theory (LMX) emphasizes:
Select one:
A. the relationships a leader has with members can be divided into two groups referred to as the “in-group” and the “out-group.”
B. adhering to formal organizational expectations yields increased access and opportunity
C. principles of fairness in members achieving a quality relationship with a leader
D. leaders and members use exchanges to achieve mutually beneficial outcomes
Correct Answer is: A
Leader member exchange theory (LMX) emphasizes that the nature of the relationship between a leader and member is the determining factor as to whether a member belongs to the “in-group” or the “out-group” and that not all members of the organization achieve the same quality relationship. Improved organizational effectiveness and achieving leader/employee needs satisfaction is the general objective. LMX theory suggests a developing leader-member relationship that moves through three phases: stranger, acquaintance, and partner. The relationship between the leader and members of the “out-group” is marked by a lower quality with both parties only completing their formal role obligations. Whereas, the relationship with the “in-group” members moves from low quality, one way, self-oriented and scripted to high quality, reciprocal, group oriented and negotiated exchanges. Given their status with the leader, in-group members have more decision-making influence, access to resources and responsibility than those in the out-group. The leader, in exchange for the additional effort of these members, provides more support, trust and initiative beyond the obligations of the job. Research indicates LMX theory is positively related to “higher job satisfaction, stronger organizational commitment, and better subordinate performance” (Yukl, 1998). LMX theory has been criticized as being discriminatory (i.e., increased opportunity for one group and formal expectations for another) and counter to principles of fairness among subordinates. The theory does not propose inequitable treatment of members rather it explains how relationships with various members can develop. LMX research suggests that leaders become cognizant of their attitudes toward all members and create methods for all employees to freely enter the in-group. (See: Northouse, P.G. (2001). Leadership Theory and Practice, second edition. Thousand Oaks, CA: Sage Publications, Inc. and Yukl, G. (1998). Leadership in organizations (4th ed.) Upper Saddle River, NJ: Prentice Hall.)
Additional Information: Leader Member Exchange (LMX) Theory
The tendency to rate all using the low end of the rating scale is referred to as: Select one: A. floor effect B. contrast effect C. central tendency bias D. severity error
Correct Answer is: D
Another term for the strictness bias or error is severity error. This rater bias refers to the tendency of raters to rate all ratees using the low end of the rating scale.
A rater rating all individuals using the middle range of a rating scale is exhibiting the central tendency bias. If the ratings of one individual is affected by the ratings given to another, then the rater bias is a contrast effect. A floor effect is not a rater bias. Characteristic of a measuring instrument, floor effect refers to the inability to distinguish between individuals who have low levels of what is being measured.
Additional Information: Rater Biases
Which of the following would be least useful as a method for management development? Select one: A. Outward Bound programs B. job rotation C. coaching or mentoring D. vestibule training
Correct Answer is: D
Management development is a growing field in organizational psychology. A number of techniques are used to train (develop) managers including job rotation, coaching, mentoring, and even Outward Bound, which fosters trust and cooperation. Vestibule training involves the use of procedures or an environment similar to the actual job and is used for such jobs as bank tellers, clerks, and typists.
Additional Information: Program Design (Training)
Which of the following is true of transformational leaders?
Select one:
A. the goals of the organization are redefined to reflect the self-interest of followers
B. believe that subordinates are persuaded when the organization’s goals are compatible with their self-interests
C. motivate by encouraging subordinates to transcend self-interest for the greater good of the organization
D. assent to the self-interest of their followers
Correct Answer is: C
Transformational leaders are change-oriented. They encourage and inspire subordinate acceptance and support for organizational change that is in the best interests of the organization. In contrast, transactional leaders motivate through appealing to the followers’ self-interests and focus more on stability than change.
Additional Information: Transformational vs. Transactional Leadership
A transactional leader emphasizes:
Select one:
A. rules and regulations.
B. common goals.
C. individual responsibility and decision-making.
D. changing his/her style to fit the situation.
Correct Answer is: A
A distinction is made in the leadership literature between transformational and transactional leaders. Transformational leaders empower employees, raise their consciousness, and successfully guide them through organizational change. In contrast, transactional leaders focus on conforming to rules and regulations and maintaining the status quo.
Additional Information: Transformational vs. Transactional Leadership
According to a recent meta-analysis on the "big five" traits and job satisfaction, which trait has the strongest relation with overall job satisfaction? Select one: A. agreeableness B. extraversion C. conscientiousness D. neuroticism
Correct Answer is: D
The meta-analysis of 163 studies linking traits from the 5-factor model of personality to overall job satisfaction by Judge, Heller & Mound (2002) found neuroticism was the strongest, most consistent correlate of job satisfaction and also the Big-Five trait most often studied in relation to job satisfaction. Conscientiousness displayed the second strongest correlation followed by extraversion. The estimated true score correlations with job satisfaction include: Neuroticism (-.29), Conscientiousness (.26), Extraversion (.25), Agreeableness (.17), and (.02) for Openness to Experience. The findings support previous reviews that lower neuroticism and higher extraversion are associated with higher job satisfaction. The study also notes Conscientiousness, previously found to have positive effects in terms of job performance, has been overlooked in studies in terms of job satisfaction. (See: Judge, T.A., Heller, D., & Mount, M.K. (2002). Five-factor model of personality and job satisfaction. A meta-analysis. Journal of Applied Psychology. Vol. 87, No. 3, 530-541.)
According to the EEOC’s 80% rule for determining disparate impact of hiring practices on a minority group, disparate impact occurs when
Select one:
A. the hiring rate of a protected group is less than 80% of the hiring rate of another group.
B. 80% or more of applicants in a protected group are not hired.
C. less than 20% of applicants for the job are members of any protected group.
D. the number of people who would have been hired based on a random selection process is more than 80% greater than the number of protected group applicants hired.
Correct Answer is: A
According to the EEOC’s Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Criteria, disparate impact (also known as adverse impact) occurs if members of a protected class are selected at a rate less than 4/5ths, or 80% of the selection rate of another group. For example, if 2 out of every 10, or 20%, of African American applicants are hired, and 3 out of 10, or 30%, whites are hired, the ratio of the selection rates for the two groups would be 20/30, or 66%. This would indicate adverse impact against African-Americans in the hiring practice. Note that since this guideline was published, legal standards such as the Civil Rights Act of 1991 have held that failure to adhere to the 80% rule is not, by itself, sufficient to provide the basis for an adverse impact claim. Usually, additional proof, such as statistically significant differences between the hiring rates of two groups is required.
Additional Information: Adverse Impact
Margaret is reluctant to give poor ratings to her subordinates for fear of "ruffling feathers." Consequently, she tends to be unusually easy in her ratings. Margaret is committing what type of error? Select one: A. central tendency B. halo C. leniency D. severity
Correct Answer is: A
Rater biases include the strictness, leniency, central tendency, and halo biases. The central tendency bias is the tendency to use the middle of a scale in rating all ratees.
halo
The halo effect occurs when evaluations of one aspect of a person’s behavior influence evaluations of other aspects. The halo effect can be positive or negative; i.e., it can result in a bias in favor of or against a person.
leniency
You may have considered the leniency bias as the correct response. This type of rater bias involves giving ratees high ratings on each dimension of performance regardless of their actual performance. However, the question does not indicate that all the ratings are high, only that Margaret is reluctant to give low scores for poor performance.
severity
Severity error, or strictness bias, refers to the tendency to use the low end of a rating scale to rate all ratees.
Additional Information: Rater Biases
Organizational psychologists would most likely use which of the following when talking to business leaders about implementing the use of psychological tests in selecting employees? Select one: A. utility analysis B. utility evaluation C. job analysis D. job evaluation
Correct Answer is: A
Utility analysis is a procedure used to translate the cost and benefits of different business alternatives into dollars and cents. In this case, an I/O psychologist would use utility analysis to compare how much money the company currently makes without using the psychological tests and how much money the company would be expected to make if a testing program were implemented.
A job analysis is a detailed analysis and description of a job that specifically states what needs to be done (job-related tasks), the nature of the work (work environment), and the type of individual who can perform the work successfully (knowledge, skills, and abilities). Job evaluation is the process used to determine how much to pay each employee. A typical job evaluation process involves assessing the value of each job-related task to the business and then adding up the value of all tasks listed in the job description to determine the overall value of the job.
Additional Information: Utility Analysis
The usefulness of a job selection test is increased to the degree that
Select one:
A. the base rate is low and the selection ratio is high.
B. the base rate is high and the selection ratio is low.
C. the base rate is moderate and the selection ratio is low.
D. the base rate is moderate and the selection ratio is high.
Correct Answer is: C
In a job selection test, usefulness refers to the degree to which the test helps you hire successful candidates. Job selection tests are useful to the degree that the correlation between test scores and job performance is high, the base rate is moderate, and the selection ratio is low. The base rate refers to the percentage of people in the population who are able to perform the job successfully. To understand why you’d want a moderate base rate, think about the extreme cases: a base rate of 100% or 0%. A 100% base rate means that everyone can do the job successfully; a 0% base rate mean that no one can. In both cases, a job selection test is useless because you don’t need it to distinguish between good and bad candidates. A base rate of 50% means that half of the population can do the job successfully and a selection test therefore becomes more useful in distinguishing between acceptable and unacceptable applicants. The selection ratio refers to the proportion of available jobs relative to applicants. For example, if 100 people apply for 10 openings, the selection ratio would be 10%. With a small selection ratio, you are only selecting the very top scorers on the test, and assuming the test has a reasonable correlation with job performance, these top scorers are more likely to succeed on the job. Note that the smaller the selection ratio, the higher the number of false negatives, which are people who fail the test but would have succeeded on the job. But this is more of a problem for candidates than it is for businesses that use the test; the latter will still end up with more successful candidates the lower the selection ratio.
Additional Information: Incremental Validity
Research on goal-setting theory suggests that it is:
Select one:
A. applicable to the performance of males but not females.
B. applicable only to females in managerial-level jobs.
C. applicable to females when goals are set participatively but not when they are assigned.
D. applicable to both males and females whether goals are set participatively or are assigned.
Correct Answer is: D
Very few studies have attempted to determine if there are differences between males and females in goal-setting behavior. The existing studies suggest that, overall, the predictions of goal-setting theory are equally applicable to both genders, although there may be some minor differences. For example, at least one study found that females prefer mastery goals over social comparison goals.
Additional Information: Goal-Setting Theory
Super’s theory of career development views “career maturity” as:
Select one:
A. the extent to which a person has mastered the tasks related to his or her developmental stage.
B. knowing how to choose a career that is consistent with your self-concept.
C. unattainable for most people.
D. attainable, but typically not until mid-life or later.
Correct Answer is: A
Donald Super proposed a five stage model of career development: growth (birth-15 yrs), exploration (15-24 yrs), establishment (25-44 yrs), maintenance (45-64 yrs), and decline (65+ yrs). A person is considered to have reached “career maturity” when he or she has mastered the tasks of his or her developmental stage and is prepared to enter the next stage. The term “self concept” is another important aspect of Super’s theory and refers to a person’s abilities, interests, values, personality traits, etc. He believed that people choose a career that is consistent with their self-concept.
Additional Information: Super’s Career and Life Development Theory
According to House’s path-goal theory, the optimal leader style:
Select one:
A. is a democratic one that allows workers to participate in setting goals and identifying ways for achieving them.
B. is the one that emphasizes a task-oriented (versus person-oriented) approach that focuses on ways to achieve goals.
C. varies depending on the situation but always involves helping workers achieve their goals.
D. varies depending on the leader’s experience and personality but always focuses on ensuring that goals are consistent with workers’ skills and knowledge.
Correct Answer is: C
As its name implies, path-goal theory predicts that leaders will be most successful when they show followers the path for achieving goals. Path-goal theory is also a contingency theory, which means that it proposes that the best leadership style depends on certain characteristics of the situation.
Additional Information: House’s Path-Goal Theory of Leadership
Overall, research on the compressed work week suggests that its effects are:
Select one:
A. increased job satisfaction, with no effect on job performance.
B. increased job performance, with no effect on job satisfaction.
C. decreased job performance, with no effect on satisfaction.
D. increased job performance and increased job satisfaction.
Correct Answer is: A
In the compressed work week (CWW), the number of days worked is shortened but the work hours per day are lengthened. For example, the work week might be compressed into four days a week, ten hours a day. Research results regarding the effects of the CWW are mixed, but most studies suggest that job satisfaction tends to increase, while job performance is not affected and (depending on the job) may even decrease. The CWW also tends to result in decreased absenteeism.
Additional Information: Compressed Work Week
According to Donald Super, career development can be described in terms of progress through a developmental sequence of vocational stages. One's standing in this developmental sequence, in relation to where one should be, given his or her chronological age, is referred to as Select one: A. vocational maturity. B. vocational consistency. C. vocational resolution. D. vocational level.
Correct Answer is: A
Super postulated a developmental sequence of vocational development occurring through the life span and consisting of five stages: growth, exploration, establishment, maintenance, and decline. Each of these stages also consists of a number of substages. Super coined the term “vocational maturity” to refer to the degree to which a person’s progress in this sequence is appropriate given the person’s chronological age. In fact, Super and his colleagues constructed a number of assessment instruments specifically designed to measure vocational maturity.
Additional Information: Super’s Career and Life Development Theory
The company you work for has asked you to develop and implement a training program. You would begin with a: Select one: A. formative evaluation B. summative evaluation C. needs assessment D. job evaluation
Correct Answer is: C
Needs assessment, or needs analysis, is a process to determine if training is needed and, if so, what type of training should be provided. This process is generally divided into three steps: (1) organizational analysis, (2) task analysis, and (3) person analysis. An organizational analysis is to identify if training fits with the organization’s goals. Task analysis identifies the specific tasks that employees need to be trained in and links them to the relevant knowledge, skills, and abilities of each task. A person analysis identifies employees who need to be trained, the type of training they need and if they are ready for training.
A formative evaluation* is a method of assessing a program’s weaknesses while the program activities are forming or happening, focusing on the process. A summative evaluation* determines the effects of a training program after it has been developed. A job evaluation* determines the appropriate compensation for a job (* incorrect choices).
Additional Information: Needs Analysis
Low LPC leaders would be most likely to say:
Select one:
A. More beautiful paint colors in this office make us all feel better
B. Flexitime was a brillant invention
C. It’s time for a change around here
D. The first one to hand in this budget report wins the office lottery pool
Correct Answer is: D
According to Fiedler’s 1971 contingency theory, a leader’s effectiveness is determined by a combination of the leader’s style and the characteristics of the situation. Low LPC leaders are task and achievement oriented.
More beautiful paint colors in this office make us all feel better
Flexitime was a brillant invention
These two options could describe High LPC leaders who are primarily relationship oriented.
It’s time for a change around here
This could describe a transformational leader which Bass (1990) (see I/O section) described as change focused.
Additional Information: Fiedler’s Contingency (LPC) Theory